This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Physiology & Rehabilitation. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 241
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a "pop" and tearing sensation in his anterior chest wall while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. Which of the following is true regarding this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avulsion of the sternocostal head from the humerus is the most common tear pattern
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur during eccentric contraction, such as a bench press, and most commonly involve avulsion of the sternocostal head from its humeral insertion. Surgical repair is recommended in active patients to restore strength.
Question 242
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During rehabilitation, a patient slowly lowers a weight from a flexed elbow position, lengthening the active biceps brachii muscle. This is an example of which type of muscle contraction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eccentric
Explanation
An eccentric contraction occurs when a muscle lengthens while under tension. Eccentric contractions typically generate higher forces than concentric contractions and are known to cause more delayed-onset muscle soreness.
Question 243
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During an eccentric muscle contraction, the muscle length actively increases while generating tension. Compared to concentric contractions, eccentric contractions are biomechanically characterized by:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Higher force generation with lower metabolic energy consumption
Explanation
Eccentric contractions are capable of generating significantly higher peak forces than either concentric or isometric contractions. Furthermore, they are more mechanically efficient, requiring less metabolic energy (ATP) for a given amount of generated force.
Question 244
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During normal human gait, the joint reaction force across the knee is highest during which specific phase?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Single-limb support (Mid-stance)
Explanation
The knee joint reaction force peaks during the stance phase, specifically at single-limb support (mid-stance), where it can reach approximately 3 times body weight due to muscle contraction and body mass.
Question 245
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient presents with a severe procurvatum deformity of the proximal tibia (apex anterior angulation) due to a prior unreduced fracture. Which of the following compensatory gait abnormalities is mechanically most likely to be observed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A functional knee flexion contracture during the stance phase
Explanation
A procurvatum deformity of the proximal tibia tilts the tibial plateau posteriorly relative to the mechanical axis, mechanically mimicking a knee flexion contracture. This limits full extension during the stance phase of gait, causing the patient to compensate by walking with a continuously flexed knee.
Question 246
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with severe unilateral right hip osteoarthritis walks with a Trendelenburg gait, characterized by a lateral lurch of the torso over the affected right hip during the stance phase. What is the primary biomechanical effect of this compensatory gait pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreases the required force of the hip abductors.
Explanation
Correct Answer: Decreases the required force of the hip abductors.A Trendelenburg gait (abductor lurch) is a compensatory mechanism used by patients with hip pain or abductor weakness. By shifting the torso laterally over the affected hip during the stance phase, the patient moves their center of gravity closer to the center of rotation of the hip joint. This significantly decreases the lever arm of the body weight. Because the torque created by body weight is reduced, the opposing force required by the hip abductors to maintain a level pelvis is also proportionally decreased. Consequently, this compensatory lurch decreases the overall joint reaction force across the painful hip, thereby reducing pain during ambulation.
Question 247
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
The inability to feel a 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament on the plantar surface of the foot in a diabetic patient is clinically defined as the loss of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Protective sensation
Explanation
Correct Answer: Protective sensationThe 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament specifically tests for 'protective sensation.' Loss of protective sensation means the patient cannot feel trauma or pressure that could lead to skin breakdown, making it a critical threshold in diabetic foot screening.
Question 248
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
In the evaluation of a diabetic patient, the inability to perceive the 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament specifically indicates the loss of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Protective sensation
Explanation
Correct Answer: Protective sensationThe 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament is specifically designed and validated to test for 'protective sensation.' While vibratory sensation, two-point discrimination, and temperature sensation can also be affected by diabetic neuropathy, the 5.07 monofilament is the most useful and reliable screening method specifically for protective foot sensation.
Question 249
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
Which metabolic pathway is primarily implicated in the development of diabetic peripheral neuropathy through the accumulation of intracellular osmoles and subsequent cellular edema?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Polyol pathway
Explanation
Hyperglycemia activates the polyol pathway, where aldose reductase converts excess glucose into sorbitol. Sorbitol cannot easily cross cell membranes, leading to osmotic stress, cellular edema, and eventual neuronal damage.
Question 250
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 10-year-old boy with Spinal Muscular Atrophy Type III (Kugelberg-Welander disease) is ambulatory but exhibits a pronounced waddling gait with excessive lateral trunk sway over the stance limb during each step. This specific gait deviation is primarily a compensatory mechanism for weakness in which of the following muscle groups?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip abductors (Gluteus medius and minimus)
Explanation
SMA Type III patients are typically ambulatory but develop progressive proximal muscle weakness. The described gait is a compensated Trendelenburg gait (or "abductor lurch"). During the stance phase of gait, the hip abductors (gluteus medius and minimus) of the stance leg must contract to keep the pelvis level. When these muscles are weak, the pelvis drops on the contralateral (swing) side. To compensate for this drop and maintain balance, the patient laterally flexes their trunk over the weak stance limb, shifting their center of gravity over the hip joint to reduce the demand on the weak abductors. This results in the classic waddling appearance.
Question 251
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 35-year-old male presents with a painless burn on his right hand. Neurological examination reveals a loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution over his shoulders and upper extremities, while light touch and proprioception remain intact.
Which of the following neuroanatomical structures is primarily affected in the early stages of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior white commissure
Explanation
This patient has syringomyelia, characterized by a central cavitary lesion in the spinal cord. It typically first compresses the anterior white commissure, disrupting crossing spinothalamic fibers and causing a dissociated sensory loss (loss of pain/temperature with preserved light touch/proprioception).
Question 252
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
In a patient developing syringomyelia, the expanding syrinx initially causes bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation while preserving touch and proprioception. Which specific spinal cord structure is compressed first to cause this presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior white commissure
Explanation
The syrinx typically originates in or near the central canal and expands outward. The earliest structure it compromises is the anterior white commissure, where the lateral spinothalamic tracts decussate, leading to bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.
Question 253
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
As a cervical syrinx progressively enlarges ventrally, it begins to compress and destroy adjacent structures beyond the central commissure. Which of the following neurological findings in the upper extremities is a classic consequence of this ventral extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower motor neuron signs including flaccid weakness and atrophy
Explanation
As a syrinx expands ventrally into the anterior horns of the spinal cord, it destroys the lower motor neurons located there. This results in classic lower motor neuron signs in the upper extremities, including profound flaccid weakness, muscle atrophy, and areflexia.
Question 254
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with syringomyelia presents with the classic 'cape-like' bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation over the shoulders and upper extremities.
This specific neurological deficit is caused by the expanding syrinx compressing which structure within the spinal cord?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior white commissure
Explanation
A central cord syrinx initially compresses the crossing spinothalamic fibers in the anterior white commissure. This disruption causes the classic dissociated sensory loss (loss of pain and temperature, with preserved fine touch and proprioception).
Question 255
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 65-year-old man presents with a massively enlarged, painless knee. He has a history of untreated syphilis in his youth. Radiographs reveal severe joint destruction and large osteophytes. Neurological exam shows loss of proprioception and a positive Romberg sign. Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiological mechanism for his joint destruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of protective sensation and proprioception
Explanation
The patient has a Charcot joint secondary to Tabes Dorsalis (neurosyphilis). The "neurotraumatic theory" posits that loss of proprioception and protective pain sensation leads to repeated, unperceived microtrauma and subsequent joint destruction.
Question 256
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 32-year-old male presents with painless swelling and instability of his left shoulder. He has noted recent burns on his hands that he did not feel. Imaging shows severe joint destruction.
What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central cavitation of the spinal cord expanding into the anterior white commissure
Explanation
The patient has a Charcot shoulder secondary to syringomyelia. The syrinx expands to affect the crossing spinothalamic tracts in the anterior white commissure, causing a cape-like loss of pain and temperature sensation.
Question 257
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 45-year-old male presents with painless swelling and severe crepitus in his right shoulder. He has a history of cervical syringomyelia. Radiographs show severe joint destruction, debris, and dislocation.
What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism for this joint destruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of protective proprioception and sensation
Explanation
Neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy in the upper extremity is classically associated with syringomyelia. Repetitive microtrauma secondary to loss of protective pain and proprioceptive sensation leads to severe joint destruction.
Question 258
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A pelvic support osteotomy (Ilizarov hip reconstruction) is planned for a young adult with a chronically dislocated, painful hip. The first osteotomy of this procedure is typically performed in the proximal femur. What specific geometric changes are created at this proximal osteotomy site?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Valgus and extension
Explanation
The proximal osteotomy in a pelvic support reconstruction is designed to create valgus and extension. The valgus eliminates Trendelenburg gait by abutting the pelvis, and the extension compensates for the fixed flexion contracture of the chronically dislocated hip.
Question 259
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient has a fixed equinus contracture of the ankle due to spasticity. Over time, what is the most common compensatory deformity observed at the knee during the stance phase of gait?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Genu recurvatum
Explanation
A fixed equinus contracture forces the tibia backward during the stance phase as the foot attempts to achieve plantigrade contact. This chronic posterior thrust stretches the posterior knee capsule, leading to compensatory genu recurvatum.
Question 260
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A young adult with a painful, chronically dislocated hip due to childhood sepsis undergoes an Ilizarov pelvic support osteotomy. This procedure involves a double level femoral osteotomy. What is the primary purpose of the distal femoral osteotomy in this specific reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To realign the mechanical axis and equalize limb length
Explanation
The proximal valgus osteotomy provides pelvic support (eliminating Trendelenburg gait) but introduces a massive mechanical axis deviation. The distal varus osteotomy (often with lengthening) is strictly required to realign the mechanical axis parallel to the plumb line and restore equal leg length.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.