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Orthopedic Anatomy Review | Dr Hutaif Basic Science Rev -...

Updated: Feb 2026 83 Views
Ace wellfixed uncemented stem: Essential Orthopedic MCQs

Key Medical Takeaway

We review everything you need to understand about Orthopedic MCQS online Anatomy 017. Neurogenic claudication, characterized by a “shopping cart” sign, often stems from spinal stenosis due to a symptomatic synovial cyst, a gelatinous lesion typically requiring surgical excision. Separately, a wellfixed uncemented stem describes an orthopedic implant designed for secure, cement-free integration into bone, commonly used in joint replacement surgery.

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Orthopedic MCQS online Anatomy 017

QUESTION 1
of 100
Figures 1a and 1b are the MR images of a 69-year-old woman with bilateral leg pain that is worse with ambulation. She feels better when she is sitting down or leaning on a grocery cart. Which condition or structure is indicated by the arrows?

1
Disk herniation
2
Synovial cyst
3
Arachnoid cyst
4
Epidural lipomatosis
QUESTION 2
of 100
Figures 2a and 2b are the clinical photographs taken at the time of cubital tunnel surgery. The ulnar nerve is indicated by the red arrow. What is the name of the structure at the tip of the blue arrow?

1
Extensor digitorum manus
2
Anconeus epitrochlearis
3
Medial triceps
4
Flexor carpi medialis
QUESTION 3
of 100
Which nerve is at greatest risk in the setting of an anterior shoulder dislocation?



1
Axillary
2
Musculocutaneous
3
Radial
4
Suprascapular
QUESTION 4
of 100
What is the most serious outcome associated with this injury?
1
Osteonecrosis
2
Subtalar arthritis
3
Wound necrosis
4
Complex regional pain syndrome
QUESTION 5
of 100
Risk for osteonecrosis associated with this injury is most related to
1
time from the injury to surgery.
2
type of fixation used for open reduction and internal fixation.
3
energy imparted at the time of injury.
4
nonsurgical treatment.
QUESTION 6
of 100
Which surgical approach will provide the most exposure and pose the lowest risk?
1
Medial approach
2
Lateral approach
3
Lateral and medial approach with a deltoid split, if needed
4
Lateral and medial approach with a medial malleolar osteotomy, if needed
QUESTION 7
of 100
If all levels of injury severity are taken into account, what is the likelihood of osteonecrosis among all patients with this injury?
1
4%
2
31%
3
64%
4
97%
QUESTION 8
of 100
Figure 8 is the axial MR image through C5-6 of a 55-year-old right-handed man who is experiencing excruciating neck pain and left arm weakness. What is the most likely finding upon examination?
1
Numbness along the left shoulder and deltoid weakness
2
Numbness down the left arm to the thumb and biceps weakness
3
Numbness down the left arm to the long finger and triceps weakness
4
Numbness down the left arm to the small finger and finger flexor weakness
QUESTION 9
of 100
An examination of a newborn infant reveals a positive Ortolani test result on the right side and a negative result on the left. What is the preferred hip imaging method?
1
Plain radiographs
2
Ultrasonography
3
CT scan
4
MR imaging
QUESTION 10
of 100
Figures 10a through 10c are the radiographs and MR image of a 65-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who has posterior headaches, hand and gait clumsiness, and dizziness. What is the most likely diagnosis?


1
Rheumatoid plaque
2
Atlantoaxial subluxation
3
Basilar invagination
4
Subaxial subluxation
QUESTION 11
of 100
Which procedure(s) would most directly correct the principal deformity shown in Figure 11?
1
Tendo achilles lengthening (TAL)
2
Medializing calcaneal osteotomy and TAL
3
Posterior tibial tendon (PTT) debridement with flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and first tarsometatarsal fusion
4
Lateral column lengthening and spring ligament reconstruction
QUESTION 12
of 100
Figures 12a through 12c


1
T-type fracture
2
Anterior column fracture
3
Anterior wall fracture
4
Posterior wall fracture
5
Posterior column and posterior wall fracture
QUESTION 13
of 100
Figures 13a through 13c


1
T-type fracture
2
Anterior column fracture
3
Anterior wall fracture
4
Posterior wall fracture
5
Posterior column and posterior wall fracture
QUESTION 14
of 100
Figures 14a through 14c


1
T-type fracture
2
Anterior column fracture
3
Anterior wall fracture
4
Posterior wall fracture
5
Posterior column and posterior wall fracture
QUESTION 15
of 100
Figures 15a through 15d



1
T-type fracture
2
Anterior column fracture
3
Anterior wall fracture
4
Posterior wall fracture
5
Posterior column and posterior wall fracture
QUESTION 16
of 100
During the deep dissection for a direct anterior hip arthroplasty, a vascular bundle is encountered in the interval between the rectus femoris muscle and the gluteus medius muscle. Which artery is contained in this vascular bundle?
1
Ascending branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
2
Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
3
Superior branch of the obturator artery
4
Lateral ascending cervical artery
QUESTION 17
of 100
If growth arrest is suspected after the fracture shown in the radiographs in Figures 17a through 17c, what is the most appropriate imaging modality to verify the presence of a physeal bar?


1
Thin-cut CT scan
2
MRI
3
Ultrasound
4
Plain radiograph
QUESTION 18
of 100
Where are the origin and insertion of the knee posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)?
1
Lateral femoral notch and at the articular surface of the tibia
2
Lateral femoral notch and 1 cm distal to the articular surface of the tibia
3
Medial femoral notch and at the articular surface of the tibia
4
Medial femoral notch and 1 cm distal to the articular surface of the tibia
QUESTION 19
of 100
During an anterior approach to correct thoracolumbar scoliosis, there is a sudden decrease in somatosensory-evoked potential (SSEP) and motor-evoked potential (MEP) signals. Correction maneuvers have not been attempted when signals go down. All neuromonitoring and anesthesia concerns have been addressed, and the measured abnormalities persist. What is the likely reason behind the neuromonitoring abnormalities?

1
Occlusion of the artery of Adamkiewicz
2
Neurapraxia
3
Mechanical injury to the cord via instrumentation
4
False positive, proceed as planned
QUESTION 20
of 100
Treatment for this injury can be surgical or nonsurgical. Which outcome is more likely with surgical treatment?
1
Better ankle motion at 1 year
2
Wound-healing problems
3
Earlier return to full strength
4
Earlier return to activity
QUESTION 21
of 100
Which 2 things generally need to be present for this injury to occur?
1
A gastrocnemius equinus contracture and a sudden concentric contraction
2
A gastrocnemius equinus contracture and a sudden eccentric contraction
3
Tendinosis and a sudden concentric contraction
4
Tendinosis and a sudden eccentric contraction
QUESTION 22
of 100
Which aspect of rehabilitation from this injury is necessary, regardless of how it is treated?
1
Delayed weight-bearing activity (6 to 8 weeks)
2
Early weight-bearing activity (2 weeks)
3
Early strengthening (2 weeks)
4
Early stretching (2 weeks)
QUESTION 23
of 100
How long does it generally take for patients to return to preinjury levels of activity after sustaining this injury?
1
1 to 2 months
2
3 to 4 months
3
6 to 8 months
4
2 to 3 years
QUESTION 24
of 100
What is the incidence of malignant transformation for the lesion shown in Figures 24a and 24b?






1
1%
2
5%
3
10%
4
40%
QUESTION 25
of 100
Figures 25a through 25d are the presurgical anteroposterior (AP), presurgical lateral, postsurgical AP, and postsurgical lateral radiographs of a 65-year-old woman who undergoes a multilevel lumbar laminectomy and fusion through a combined left lateral and posterior approach. After surgery, she awakens with excruciating left anterior thigh numbness and pain. Furthermore, she cannot bear weight on her left leg because her leg keeps buckling. What is the most likely cause of this neurological deficit?



1
Lumbar plexus injury during the surgical approach
2
Neurapraxia secondary to deformity correction
3
Malpositioned hardware
4
Patient positioning on the spinal table
QUESTION 26
of 100
What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Osgood-Schlatter disease
2
Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome
3
A tibia stress fracture
4
Patellar tendonitis
QUESTION 27
of 100
Which pathology is associated with this condition?
1
Degenerative changes in the patellar tendon
2
Apophysitis of the inferior pole of the patella
3
Apophysitis of the tibial tubercle
4
Partial avulsion of the quadriceps tendon
QUESTION 28
of 100
The patient returns 4 years later; now he is a 17-year-old boy who has anterior knee pain with jumping and kneeling (Figure 28). The pain is located at the tibial tubercle. There is soft-tissue swelling and tenderness to palpation over the tubercle. He is able to do a straight-leg raise and there is no effusion, but the pain prevents him from playing basketball. Initial treatment should include
1
surgery to repair the patellar tendon.
2
nonsurgical treatment with ice, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs,) physical therapy for stretching, and an unloading brace.
3
a cortisone injection into the patellar tendon.
4
open reduction and internal fixation of the tibial tubercle.
QUESTION 29
of 100
The patient fails nonsurgical treatment for this condition. What is the best next step?
1
Continued nonsurgical care with physical therapy, a brace, and stretching
2
Activity restrictions and avoiding painful activity
3
Surgical excision of the tibial tubercle ossicle
4
Debridement of the ossicle and repair of the patellar tendon
QUESTION 30
of 100
Which structure does the dashed line represent in Figure 30?
1
Anterior wall of the acetabulum
2
Ilioischial line
3
Cotyloid fossa
4
Posterior wall of the acetabulum
QUESTION 31
of 100
A surgeon is performing a revision total hip arthroplasty. Multiple screws are used to stabilize the acetabulum, including screws placed in the anterior superior and posterior superior quadrants. In the postanesthesia care unit, the patient develops a progressive decline in blood pressure. Intraoperative injury to which anatomical structure has most likely occurred?
1
Femoral artery
2
External Iliac artery
3
Superior gluteal artery
4
Inferior gluteal artery
QUESTION 32
of 100
Figures 32a and 32b are the CT and MR image of a man who undergoes fusion for his degenerative spondylolisthesis. He wakes up with a foot drop. Which structure has most likely been injured?

1
S1 nerve root
2
Lumbosacral plexus
3
Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
4
L5 nerve root
QUESTION 33
of 100
Figures 33a through 33c are the radiographs of a total knee arthroplasty (TKA). What is the cause of the radiographic abnormality?


1
External rotation of the femoral component
2
Internal rotation of the femoral component
3
Lateralization of the femoral component
4
Medialization of the patellar component
QUESTION 34
of 100
Figures 34a through 34c are the radiographs and MR image of a 15-year-old, right-hand-dominant boy who was playing ice hockey and was checked into the boards. He had immediate anterior right shoulder pain and was unable to return to play. He was seen in the emergency department, and radiograph findings reportedly were normal. A sling is placed and he is seen in the office 3 days later. An examination reveals forward flexion of 90 degrees, abduction of 50 degrees, and external rotation of 0 degrees; all are painful. Belly-press test findings also are painful and abnormal. What is the most likely diagnosis?


1
Lesser tuberosity fracture
2
Acromioclavicular separation
3
Coracoid fracture
4
Salter 1 fracture of the proximal humerus
QUESTION 35
of 100
Figure 35
1
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Walking boot and weight bearing as tolerated until pain subsides
3
Nonweight-bearing cast for 6 weeks
4
Physical therapy
5
Closed reduction and weight bearing as tolerated
QUESTION 36
of 100
Figure 36
1
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Walking boot and weight bearing as tolerated until pain subsides
3
Nonweight-bearing cast for 6 weeks
4
Physical therapy
5
Closed reduction and weight bearing as tolerated
QUESTION 37
of 100
Figure 37
1
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Walking boot and weight bearing as tolerated until pain subsides
3
Nonweight-bearing cast for 6 weeks
4
Physical therapy
5
Closed reduction and weight bearing as tolerated
QUESTION 38
of 100
Figures 38a and 38b


1
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Walking boot and weight bearing as tolerated until pain subsides
3
Nonweight-bearing cast for 6 weeks
4
Physical therapy
5
Closed reduction and weight bearing as tolerated
QUESTION 39
of 100
What is the most likely cause of the deformity shown in Figures 39a through 39c?


1
Posttraumatic growth arrest
2
Remote frostbite injury
3
Severe vitamin D deficiency
4
Congenital deformity
QUESTION 40
of 100
While performing the modified Stoppa approach for fixation of an acetabular fracture, a vascular anastomosis, the “corona mortis,” will be encountered. Which 2 blood vessels contribute to this anastomosis?
1
External iliac and obturator
2
External iliac and superior gluteal
3
Internal iliac and obturator
4
Internal iliac and superior gluteal
QUESTION 41
of 100
A 27-year-old man who underwent ankle ORIF 5 years ago is experiencing continuous ankle pain that has worsened over time (Figures 41a and 41b).

1
Tibial and/or fibular osteotomy with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Ankle distraction arthroplasty
3
Ankle fusion
4
Total ankle arthroplasty (TAA)
QUESTION 42
of 100
A 71-year-old man with long-standing ankle arthrosis who has previously had a subtalar fusion (Figure 42).

1
Tibial and/or fibular osteotomy with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Ankle distraction arthroplasty
3
Ankle fusion
4
Total ankle arthroplasty (TAA) ![img](/media/upload/939dd27a-3c47-4250-b502-843a84c95393.jpg)
QUESTION 43
of 100
A 52-year-old woman who is an avid hiker. Her ankle pain has begun to substantially limit her activity (Figure 43).
1
Tibial and/or fibular osteotomy with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Ankle distraction arthroplasty
3
Ankle fusion
4
Total ankle arthroplasty (TAA)
QUESTION 44
of 100
A 46-year-old woman had an ankle fracture and ORIF 6 years ago. She had subsequent removal of some of the hardware, but her pain has persisted (Figures 44a and 44b).

1
Tibial and/or fibular osteotomy with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Ankle distraction arthroplasty
3
Ankle fusion
4
Total ankle arthroplasty (TAA)
QUESTION 45
of 100
Figures 45a through 45e are the radiographs and clinical photographs of a 10-year-old boy who sustained a direct blow to the elbow yesterday while playing football. He has focal tenderness over the lateral side of the elbow without significant swelling and 10 to 140 degrees of flexion with full pronosupination. What is the most likely explanation for the appearance on radiographs?




1
Olecranon fracture
2
Normal skeletal anatomy
3
Lateral condyle fracture
4
Lateral epicondyle avulsion fracture
QUESTION 46
of 100
Figure 46 is the CT scan of a 50-year-old man who is brought to the emergency department after a fall. He has a complete C5 neurological injury. What is the root cause of his fracture?
1
Degenerative osteoarthritis
2
Ankylosing spondylosis
3
Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
4
High-energy trauma
QUESTION 47
of 100
Figures 47a and 47b are the radiograph and ultrasound of a 62-year-old, right-hand-dominant manual laborer who has experienced 3 days of right elbow pain and antecubital swelling and ecchymosis. He was changing a truck tire when he felt a pop in his elbow. A hook test result is abnormal; he has pain with resisted supination and weakness with resisted elbow flexion. Which outcome can be expected if this patient chooses nonsurgical treatment?


1
He will lose 50% of elbow flexion strength and 15% to 20% of supination strength; grip strength will be normal
2
He will lose 50% of supination strength, up to 30% of flexion strength, and 10% to 15% of grip strength
3
He will lose 75% of elbow flexion strength and 20% of supination strength
4
He will not lose any significant elbow strength
QUESTION 48
of 100
Optimal biomechanical fixation for the injury should include
1
ORIF with lag screws.
2
ORIF with lag screws supplemented by suture anchors.
3
suture anchor fixation.
4
suture repair of the Achilles through a bone tunnel.
QUESTION 49
of 100
Figure 50 is the radiograph of a 19-year-old woman who injured her left knee while playing soccer 4 days ago. She was cutting to her right, was tackled on the inside of her left knee, and felt a pop. She has no history of prior injury to her knee. Which structure attaches at the site of the avulsion fracture?









1
Iliotibial band
2
Lateral meniscus
3
Fibular collateral ligament
4
Anterolateral ligament (ALL) ![img](/media/upload/31924551-a2b6-46de-8f5d-fd71ae80a8cc.jpg)
QUESTION 50
of 100
Hip dysplasia is indicated if the measurement exceeds 10 degrees
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 51
of 100
Indicates the anterior center edge angle
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 52
of 100
Indicates the lateral center edge angle
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 53
of 100
The femoral head overlaps the ilioischial spine medially
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 54
of 100
The floor of the acetabular fossa touches the ilioischial line
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 55
of 100
Allows for visualization of the anterior column
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 56
of 100
Provides visualization of the ilioischial line
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 57
of 100
Figure 58 is the CT scan of a 50-year-old man who has fallen from a height of 12 feet. He has a reported incomplete spinal cord injury. He is intubated and sedated prior to an examination. What are the likely neurological examination findings?
1
No motor weakness, but an inability to feel throughout the entire body
2
Motor weakness in bilateral lower extremities, sensation intact to nipples only, no bulbocavernosus reflex
3
Motor weakness in bilateral upper and lower extremities, sensation intact to the umbilicus, no bulbocavernosus reflex
4
Motor weakness in the ankle and foot, sensation intact to arms only, no bulbocavernosus reflex
QUESTION 58
of 100
Which structures are often encountered and may need to be mobilized in the surgical treatment of the injury shown in Figure 59?
1
Greater saphenous vein and sural nerve
2
Saphenous nerve and sural nerve
3
Superficial peroneal nerve and sural nerve
4
Lesser saphenous vein and sural nerve
QUESTION 59
of 100
The direct anterior approach is used to perform a total hip arthroplasty (THA). When the surgeon makes postsurgical rounds, it is noted that the patient cannot extend her knee flat into the bed. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
1
Neurapraxia of the obturator nerve from errant retractor placement intraoperatively
2
Neurapraxia of the superior gluteal nerve from errant retractor placement intraoperatively
3
Neurapraxia of the femoral nerve from errant retractor placement intraoperatively
4
Neurapraxia of the peroneal branch of the sciatic nerve attributable to excessive retraction
QUESTION 60
of 100
Figure 61

1
Osteonecrosis
2
Chondrosarcoma
3
Hip dysplasia
4
Transient osteoporosis of the hip
5
Femoral neck fracture
QUESTION 61
of 100
Figure 62


1
Osteonecrosis
2
Chondrosarcoma
3
Hip dysplasia
4
Transient osteoporosis of the hip
5
Femoral neck fracture
QUESTION 62
of 100
Figure 63
1
Osteonecrosis
2
Chondrosarcoma
3
Hip dysplasia
4
Transient osteoporosis of the hip
5
Femoral neck fracture
QUESTION 63
of 100
Figure 64


1
Osteonecrosis
2
Chondrosarcoma
3
Hip dysplasia
4
Transient osteoporosis of the hip
5
Femoral neck fracture
QUESTION 64
of 100
Figure 66

1
Osteonecrosis
2
Chondrosarcoma
3
Hip dysplasia
4
Transient osteoporosis of the hip
5
Femoral neck fracture
QUESTION 65
of 100
Figures 67a and 67b are the radiographs of a 58-year-old man who has a painful left shoulder. Three months ago he underwent an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) for glenohumeral osteoarthritis. He was doing some yardwork when he felt a pop in his shoulder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1
An infected total shoulder prosthesis
2
An axillary nerve injury
3
A malpositioned prosthesis
4
A ruptured subscapularis tendon
QUESTION 66
of 100
Figure 68 is the MR image of an 85-year-old patient who cannot ambulate unless leaning over things. While sitting, the patient has minimal pain. Which structure is the arrow pointing to?




1
Superior articular process
2
Inferior articular process
3
Cauda equina
4
Ligamentum flavum
QUESTION 67
of 100
Where does the blood supply enter the fracture fragment?
1
Anteriorly
2
Posteriorly
3
Distally
4
Medially
QUESTION 68
of 100
What is the most likely complication after surgical treatment of this injury?
1
Osteonecrosis of the fragment
2
Deep infection
3
Persistent stiffness at 2 years
4
Growth arrest of the capitellar physis
QUESTION 69
of 100
What is the average time to radiographic union of this fracture?
1
3 weeks
2
4 weeks
3
6 weeks
4
8 weeks
QUESTION 70
of 100
Surveillance for growth arrest resulting from this injury should continue for how long after injury?
1
6 months
2
1 year
3
3 years
4
5 years
QUESTION 71
of 100
Figures 74a and 74b are the MR images of a 36-year-old man with a 3-month history of excruciating left leg pain. Which finding upon examination would be most consistent with the MR images?

1
Numbness and pain along the anterolateral thigh and weakness of hip adduction
2
Numbness and pain along the anterolateral calf and weakness of ankle dorsiflexion
3
Numbness and pain along the lateral and plantar aspect of the foot with weakness of ankle plantar flexion
4
Numbness and pain along the medial malleolus and weakness of knee extension
QUESTION 72
of 100
During a transpsoas approach, which lumbar level is at highest risk for a neurological motor deficit?
1
L1-2
2
L2-3
3
L3-4
4
L4-5
QUESTION 73
of 100
In a neutrally aligned leg, which percentage of force is transmitted through the medial compartment during weight-bearing activities?
1
35%
2
50%
3
65%
4
80%
QUESTION 74
of 100
Figure 77 shows the CT scan of a 65-year-old Asian man who has been experiencing increasing difficulty using his hands. His handwriting has changed and he feels off balance. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
1
Ossifed posterior longitudinal ligament
2
Ossifed ligamentum flavum
3
Herniated disk
4
Degenerative spondylosis
QUESTION 75
of 100
Figure 78 is the radiograph of a 20-year-old male college basketball player who sustained the injury shown. Which treatment most likely will allow quickest return to play?
1
Prolonged nonweight-bearing activity
2
Open reduction and internal fixation
3
Bone stimulator
4
CAM boot and weight bearing as tolerated
QUESTION 76
of 100
Which level has the smallest pedicle diameter?
1
T4
2
T8
3
T12
4
L4
QUESTION 77
of 100
Figure 80a

1
Well-fixed cemented stem
2
Well-fixed uncemented stem
3
Well-fixed uncemented stem with femoral osteolysis
4
Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding
5
Loose cemented stem
QUESTION 78
of 100
Figure 81
1
Well-fixed cemented stem
2
Well-fixed uncemented stem
3
Well-fixed uncemented stem with femoral osteolysis
4
Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding
5
Loose cemented stem
QUESTION 79
of 100
Figure 82

1
Well-fixed cemented stem
2
Well-fixed uncemented stem
3
Well-fixed uncemented stem with femoral osteolysis
4
Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding
5
Loose cemented stem
QUESTION 80
of 100

1
Well-fixed cemented stem
2
Well-fixed uncemented stem
3
Well-fixed uncemented stem with femoral osteolysis
4
Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding
5
Loose cemented stem
QUESTION 81
of 100
Figure 84


1
Well-fixed cemented stem
2
Well-fixed uncemented stem
3
Well-fixed uncemented stem with femoral osteolysis
4
Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding
5
Loose cemented stem
QUESTION 82
of 100
Figure 85
1
Well-fixed cemented stem
2
Well-fixed uncemented stem
3
Well-fixed uncemented stem with femoral osteolysis
4
Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding
5
Loose cemented stem
QUESTION 83
of 100


1
Well-fixed cemented stem
2
Well-fixed uncemented stem
3
Well-fixed uncemented stem with femoral osteolysis
4
Well-fixed uncemented stem with stress shielding
5
Loose cemented stem
QUESTION 84
of 100
Which abnormality most likely is associated with the clinical photograph and radiograph findings in Figures 87a and 87b?

1
Craniofacial deformity
2
Chest wall deformity
3
Cardiac defect
4
Abdominal tumor
QUESTION 85
of 100
A 75-year-old woman falls from standing height. She is found a few hours later by her family and is taken to the emergency department. She has more profound weakness in her upper extremities than lower. She can elevate her shoulders bilaterally but cannot grasp. Her sensation is slightly diminished in both upper extremities. What is the likely scenario?


1
Cauda equina syndrome
2
Brown-Séquard syndrome
3
Anterior cord syndrome
4
Central cord syndrome
QUESTION 86
of 100
Which approach will allow for the best visualization of all structures that may be impeding reduction through the interval between the pectineus and the femoral neurovascular bundle?
1
Medial
2
Anterior
3
Lateral
4
Posterior
QUESTION 87
of 100
Numbness in the proximal lateral thigh is attributable to structure damage indicated by Figure 89b through which surgical approach?
1
Medial
2
Anterior
3
Lateral
4
Posterior
QUESTION 88
of 100
Which surgical approach is less useful for children who have reached walking age because it does not allow for capsulorrhaphy?
1
Medial
2
Anterior
3
Lateral
4
Posterior
QUESTION 89
of 100
During a medial approach to the hip, which anatomic structure identified in the figures can help surgeons locate the true acetabulum?
1
Medial femoral circumflex artery
2
Acetabular labrum
3
Ligamentum teres
4
Femoral neurovascular bundle
QUESTION 90
of 100
A 30-month-old boy underwent open reduction of his right hip to address developmental hip dysplasia. The reduction was performed through an anterior approach, and a shortening femoral osteotomy was not performed. Four months after surgery, hip radiographs reveal absence of ossification of the femoral epiphysis and fragmentation of the ossific nucleus. What is the likely cause of this complication?
1
Intraoperative damage to the medial femoral circumflex artery
2
Intraoperative damage to the lateral femoral circumflex artery
3
Excessive pressure on the femoral head after reduction
4
Incarceration of the acetabular labrum in the reduction
QUESTION 91
of 100
Figure 94 is the radiograph of a 60-year-old patient who has a drop-head deformity. What is the most likely cause?

1
Muscular dystrophy
2
Down syndrome
3
Rheumatoid arthritis
4
Postlaminectomy kyphosis ![img](/media/upload/b325491e-91c0-4ad1-83ba-ef3f5d02d43b.jpg)
QUESTION 92
of 100
Excessive leg lengthening has been implicated as a risk factor for sciatic nerve palsy during total hip arthroplasty (THA). As a percentage of femur length, what is the maximum amount the sciatic nerve can safely be lengthened?
1
5%
2
10%
3
15%
4
20%
QUESTION 93
of 100
The patient in Figure 96 has medial pain at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint and no other pain.

1
Proximal phalangeal osteotomy alone
2
Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
3
Distal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
4
First tarsometatarsal fusion with a modified McBride procedure
5
First metatarsophalangeal fusion ![img](/media/upload/7e3c1664-94f0-471c-83ad-5efc867720f3.jpg)
QUESTION 94
of 100
The patient in Figure 97 has medial pain at the first MTP joint and pain under the second metatarsal head, or transfer metatarsalgia, with a loose first tarsometatarsal joint.
1
Proximal phalangeal osteotomy alone
2
Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
3
Distal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
4
First tarsometatarsal fusion with a modified McBride procedure
5
First metatarsophalangeal fusion
QUESTION 95
of 100
The patient in Figure 98 has pain medially at the first MTP joint and no other pain.

1
Proximal phalangeal osteotomy alone
2
Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
3
Distal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
4
First tarsometatarsal fusion with a modified McBride procedure
5
First metatarsophalangeal fusion ![img](/media/upload/39dca40f-ef83-4093-83e4-604b7ad17783.jpg)
QUESTION 96
of 100
The patient in Figure 99 has pain at the first MTP joint.
1
Proximal phalangeal osteotomy alone
2
Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
3
Distal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
4
First tarsometatarsal fusion with a modified McBride procedure
5
First metatarsophalangeal fusion
QUESTION 97
of 100
A 65-year-old woman with an unstable C2 fracture undergoes posterior fixation with a C1 lateral mass and C2 pars screw technique. Pulsatile bleeding is encountered while placing the C1 screw, which was placed across both cortices. Which artery is most likely injured?
1
Vertebral artery
2
Internal carotid artery
3
External carotid artery
4
Basilar artery
Table of Contents
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
Keywords
Prof. Mohammed Hutaif Orthopedic Surgeon Yemen abstract at pubmed pubmed pmid view pmid view abstract review pubmed pmid
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