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Ace Orthopedic MCQs: ESR in Hip & Knee Revisions

Updated: Feb 2026 90 Views
Illustration of erythrocyte sedimentation rate esr - Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Ace Orthopedic MCQs: ESR in Hip & Knee Revisions

QUESTION 1
Cementless knee replacements are associated with
1
increased risk for revision.
2
increased wear of the polyethylene insert.
3
increased infection risk.
4
significantly higher Knee Society Scores (KSS).
QUESTION 2
Figures 2a and 2b are the radiographs of a 56-year-old woman who has groin pain and decreased function 15 months after a total hip replacement using the posterolateral approach. Findings from the workup for infection are negative and physical examination localizes pain to the hip joint. Records show the patient underwent total hip surgery with a metal-on-metal bearing.
The patient undergoes cup revision to a more optimal position using a 36-mm metal-polyethylene bearing. Abductor muscle damage from gross metal debris and inflammation are encountered during surgery. After cup revision, repair of abductors, and hip brace use for several weeks, the patient has no more pain.Several months after surgery, the patent returns with a history of multiple hip dislocations that have proven refractory to treatment including hip precautions, bracing, and exercise. Radiographs perfectly positioned components; the patient has no pain, and examination under anesthesia shows show hip instability.

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Before recommending revision total hip arthroplasty, what other step(s) should be included in the workup?
1
Aspiration of the hip joint and diagnostic injection of an anesthetic
2
Draw an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
3
Three-phase bone scan of the hip
4
Lumbar spine radiographs
QUESTION 3
Figures 2a and 2b are the radiographs of a 56-year-old woman who has groin pain and decreased function 15 months after a total hip replacement using the posterolateral approach. Findings from the workup for infection are negative and physical examination localizes pain to the hip joint. Records show the patient underwent total hip surgery with a metal-on-metal bearing.
The patient undergoes cup revision to a more optimal position using a 36-mm metal-polyethylene bearing. Abductor muscle damage from gross metal debris and inflammation are encountered during surgery. After cup revision, repair of abductors, and hip brace use for several weeks, the patient has no more pain.Several months after surgery, the patent returns with a history of multiple hip dislocations that have proven refractory to treatment including hip precautions, bracing, and exercise. Radiographs perfectly positioned components; the patient has no pain, and examination under anesthesia shows show hip instability.

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Before this patient’s most recent revision surgery, her symptoms were most likely related to
1
systemic metal ion debris.
2
component malposition.
3
leg length inequality.
4
Head-neck taper corrosion.
QUESTION 4
Figures 2a and 2b are the radiographs of a 56-year-old woman who has groin pain and decreased function 15 months after a total hip replacement using the posterolateral approach. Findings from the workup for infection are negative and physical examination localizes pain to the hip joint. Records show the patient underwent total hip surgery with a metal-on-metal bearing.
The patient undergoes cup revision to a more optimal position using a 36-mm metal-polyethylene bearing. Abductor muscle damage from gross metal debris and inflammation are encountered during surgery. After cup revision, repair of abductors, and hip brace use for several weeks, the patient has no more pain.Several months after surgery, the patent returns with a history of multiple hip dislocations that have proven refractory to treatment including hip precautions, bracing, and exercise. Radiographs perfectly positioned components; the patient has no pain, and examination under anesthesia shows show hip instability.

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After revision surgery, this patient’s total hip remains unstable and unresponsive to nonsurgical treatment.What is the most appropriate surgical option?
1
Trochanteric advancement
2
Revision to a constrained polyethylene liner
3
Revision to the largest head size and increase leg length
4
Resection with repeat abductor repair, with staged reimplantation
QUESTION 5
A 67-year-old active man returns for routine follow up 12 years after hip replacement. He has no hip pain.Radiographs revealed a well-circumscribed osteolytic lesion around a single acetabular screw. All hip components were perfectly positioned. Six months later, comparison radiographs show an increase in the size of the osteolytic lesion. A CT scan shows a well-described lesion that is 3 cm at its largest diameter and is localized around 1 screw hole with an eccentric femoral head. What treatment is appropriate,assuming well-fixed cementless total hip components exist?
1
Revision of the polyethylene liner, removal of the screw, and debridement of the osteolytic lesion with or without bone grafting
2
Revision of the acetabular component to a newer design without screws
3
Removal of the screw, revision of the polyethylene liner, and stem cell injection into the lytic lesion
4
Removal of the offending screw from the metal socket and placement of a new polyethylene liner in the existing socket
QUESTION 6
A 70-year-old man underwent removal of an infected total hip arthroplasty (THA) and insertion of an articulating antibiotic-loaded spacer to treat a deep periprosthetic hip infection. He was in a nursing home receiving intravenous antibiotics 3 weeks after surgery when he tripped and fell. Examination shows swelling in the mid and distal thigh, intact skin and neurovascular structures, and severe pain with knee or hip movement. Radiographs of the
femur are shown in Figures 6a through 6d. What is the most appropriate treatment for the fracture below the implant?

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1
Balanced traction to address concern regarding persistent infection with reoperation
2
Open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture with a lateral plate and screws
3
Removal of the articulating spacer and revision to a longer-stem antibiotic-loaded articulating spacer
4
Removal of the articulating spacer and reimplantation using a long-stem fluted uncemented hip replacement
QUESTION 7
What antithrombotic agent is a selective factor I0a inhibitor?
1
Warfarin
2
Low-molecular-weight heparin
3
Rivaroxaban
4
Aspirin
QUESTION 8
What is the difference between annealed (below the melting temperature) and remelted highly crossedlinked polyethelyne?
1
Annealing results in lower potential for oxidation in vivo.
2
Annealing results in less change to mechanical properties and strength compared to remelting.
3
Remelting of polyethylene eliminates the potential for oxidation.
4
Remelting of the polyethylene removes the remaining free radicals and makes the polyethylene stronger.
QUESTION 9
A 68-year-old woman had advanced right knee arthritis and total knee replacement was planned. She learned she had primary biliary cirrhosis at age 41 and now has advancing liver failure. Preoperative coagulation tests show a baseline International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 1.36. Appropriate methods to prevent thromboembolic disease as recommended by the 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline,Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty,include
1
use of mechanical prophylaxis (eg, pneumatic calf compressors) while in the hospital.
2
oral warfarin with a goal INR between 2.0 and 3.0.
3
low-dose warfarin for 3 weeks postsurgically beginning 48 hours after surgery.
4
no prophylaxis because this patient already is partially anticoagulated secondary to her liver disease.
QUESTION 10
A healthy, active 72-year-old man tripped and fell, landing on his left hip 10 weeks after an uncomplicated left primary uncemented total hip replacement. A radiograph taken 6 weeks after surgery and before the fall is shown in Figure 10a. A radiograph taken after the fall is shown in Figure 10b. He was unable to bear weight and was brought to the emergency department. Examination revealed a slightly shortened left lower extremity and some mild ecchymosis just distal to the left greater trochanteric region, but his skin was intact without abrasions or lacerations. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Open reduction and cerclage fixation of the fracture
2
Open reduction and revision of the femoral implant to a long cemented stem
3
Open reduction and revision of the femoral implant to a long fluted and tapered uncemented stem
4
Application of balanced traction and surgery after the ecchymosis has resolved
QUESTION 11
A 78-year-old active woman who weighs 227 pounds has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and had a total knee replacement 15 years ago. She underwent revision arthroplasty for loose components.After surgery, she fell and now has a 35-degree extensor lag with a high-riding patella on the lateral radiographic view. When attempting to surgically repair the torn extensor, gross purulence is found,leading to a resection with an antibiotic cement spacer. Enterococcus bacteria are recovered on cultures a few days later; this species is resistant to several antibiotics. The wound drains for 3 weeks and then heals with continued redness, pain, and swelling despite intravenous antibiotics. What is the most effective longterm treatment for this patient?
1
Knee fusion
2
Primary extensor repair with a hinged total knee
3
Revision total knee with extensor mechanism allograft
4
Repeat debridement and chronic antibiotic suppression
QUESTION 12
A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension who underwent an index total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 1 year ago has a knee aspirate culture positive methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus periprosthetic joint infection after 2 days of increasing pain and swelling. She states her knee“never felt right.” Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are elevated. Radiographs reveal well-fixed, appropriately positioned components.

What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Open debridement, poly exchange, and intravenous (IV) antibiotics
2
Two-stage exchange arthroplasty
3
Arthroscopic debridement
4
Resection arthroplasty
QUESTION 13
A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension who underwent an index total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 1 year ago has a knee aspirate culture positive methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus periprosthetic joint infection after 2 days of increasing pain and swelling. She states her knee“never felt right.” Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are elevated. Radiographs reveal well-fixed, appropriately positioned components.

The patient undergoes a successful first stage that includes removal of implants and placement of an articulating spacer. IV antibiotics are administered for 6 weeks.
Appropriate clinical management for this patient includes
1
leukocyte-labeled imaging.
2
reimplantation surgery only after her ESR and CRP values are within defined limits.
3
obtaining an intraoperative culture at the time of 2-stage exchange.
4
obtaining intraoperative gram stain at the time of the 2-stage exchange.
QUESTION 14
A 77-year-old man who had right total knee replacement surgery 2½ years ago has had knee pain since surgery. The pain is diffuse, constant, and made worse with activity. He notes warmth and swelling in his knee. Examination shows a well-healed incision, no erythema, moderate warmth, synovitis, and an effusion. The knee is stable, and has an arc of flexion between 3 and 120 degrees. Radiographs show well-fixed and well-aligned implants. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
1
Knee aspiration for culture
2
CT scan of the knee to assess implant rotation
3
Indium, technetium-sulfur colloid scan of the knee
4
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) labs
QUESTION 15
Figures 15a and 15b are the 6-week postsurgical anteroposterior hip radiograph and current radiograph of a 54-year-old avid hiker who returns for routine follow-up 3 years after an uncomplicated uncemented modular metal-on-metal hip replacement. He reports mild activity-related aching diffusely around the right hip region, but does not feel restricted with his activities. Examination reveals no local tenderness, a well-healed incision, and mild discomfort at the extremes of rotation. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are obtained, showing 9 mm/h (reference range, 0-20 mm/h) and 2.0 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), respectively. What is the etiology of the radiographic finding?

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1
Osteolysis secondary to metal particle wear (an adverse reaction to metal debris)
2
Osteolysis secondary to loosening of the femoral implant
3
Metastatic lesion to the proximal femur
4
Deep periprosthetic joint infection
QUESTION 16
What risk factor is associated with a poor prognosis after revision of a failed metal-on-metal resurfacing hip arthroplasty to total hip arthroplasty?
1
Femoral neck fracture
2
Osteonecrosis of the femoral head
3
Aseptic loosening of the femoral component
4
Pseudotumor formation
QUESTION 17
Ten-year follow-up studies of total hip replacements performed with modern alumina ceramic femoral heads and acetabular liners show what outcomes?
1
Low incidence of osteolysis, squeaking noise, and ceramic head fractures
2
Same incidence of osteolysis as metal-polyethylene total hips of the same design
3
Higher incidence of osteolysis in hips that make audible noises in vivo
4
Elimination of ceramic head fractures resulting from use of improved biomaterials
QUESTION 18
When do most symptomatic thromboembolic events occur after undergoing total joint arthroplasty?
1
On the day of surgery
2
Within the first week after surgery
3
Between 1 week and 6 weeks after surgery
4
More than 3 months after surgery
QUESTION 19
What effect does morbid obesity (body mass index [BMI] higher than 40) have on total knee arthroplasty outcomes?
1
No difference in functional outcome
2
Complication rates are similar to those experienced by nonobese patients
3
Revision rates are similar to those experienced by nonobese patients
4
More postoperative radiolucent lines
QUESTION 20
A 70-year-old woman who underwent total knee replacement 18 months ago has had 3 weeks of moderate drainage from a previously healed wound. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Wound vacuum-assisted closure dressing
2
IV antibiotics for 6 weeks flowed by long term oral antibiotics
3
Irrigation and debridement and polyethylene exchange
4
Two-stage debridement and reconstruction
QUESTION 21
A 66-year-old woman had fever, chills, and increasing pain in her right hip. She underwent a total hip arthroplasty using large-head metal-on-metal articulation 4 years earlier without complications. Her hip pain began about 1 month ago following several days of productive cough that her primary care physician had diagnosed as a viral illness. She had elevated serology with an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 70mm/h (reference range, 0-20 mm/h) and C-reactive protein of 3.5 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L).There is no radiographic evidence of loosening or adverse bone remodeling around the hip arthroplasty.What is the most appropriate course of action?
1
Hip aspiration
2
Metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) MRI
3
Initiate intravenous antibiotics
4
Assess serum metal trace element levels
QUESTION 22
When comparing arthroscopic lavage and knee debridement to placebo in patients with chronic symptomatic osteoarthritis, what outcome has been demonstrated?
1
Reliable and durable pain relief
2
No significant benefit for chronic osteoarthritis
3
Up to 75% pain relief for 2 months, then variable response
4
Three-month measurable pain relief, followed by recurrence
QUESTION 23
A 57-year-old woman reported pain 1 year after total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The pain was characterized as a sharp catching anterior pain that was aggravated by rising from a chair or climbing stairs. Physical examination revealed a mild effusion and a range of motion of 2 to 130 degrees with patellar crepitus. Symptoms were reproduced by resisted knee extension. Radiographs showed a wellaligned posterior-stabilized TKA without evidence of component loosening.

What is the most likely cause of this patient’s pain?
1
Patella clunk syndrome
2
Flexion gap instability
3
Polyethylene wear
4
Femoral component malrotation
QUESTION 24
A 57-year-old woman reported pain 1 year after total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The pain was characterized as a sharp catching anterior pain that was aggravated by rising from a chair or climbing stairs. Physical examination revealed a mild effusion and a range of motion of 2 to 130 degrees with patellar crepitus. Symptoms were reproduced by resisted knee extension. Radiographs showed a wellaligned posterior-stabilized TKA without evidence of component loosening.

What is the recommended treatment for this patient?
1
Physical therapy
2
Arthroscopic synovectomy
3
Tibial insert revision
4
Femoral component revision
QUESTION 25
is the anteroposterior hip radiograph of a 74-year-old healthy and active man who was seen in the office 18 months after a primary uncemented total hip replacement with a history of 3 hip dislocations.The last dislocation occurred 1 week ago and he was treated in the emergency department with a closed reduction and application of a hip abduction brace.

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All episodes of dislocation occurred when bending forward. Aside from the episodes of dislocation, his hip functions well. Examination revealed a normal gait with good abductor strength and pain-free hip movement. What is the most appropriate next treatment step?
1
Prescribe physical therapy to work on abductor strengthening and reinforce hip position precautions.
2
Recommend revision of the acetabular component to change cup position and increase the head and liner size.
3
Recommend revision of the head and liner to a larger size using an elevated or oblique liner.
4
Continue use of the hip abduction brace for 6 weeks and follow with physical therapy.
QUESTION 26
A 67-year-old man who underwent an uncomplicated hip arthroplasty 9 years ago has had a 1-week history of groin pain with movement. Radiographs reveal a well-positioned, well-fixed cementless arthroplasty with mild eccentricity of the femoral head within the polyethylene. His serum C-reactive protein (CRP) level is 3.0 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate(ESR) is 5 mm/h (reference range, 0-20 mm/h). What is the most appropriate next step in management of the patient?
1
Aspiration of the hip to rule out an infectious process
2
Complete blood count with differential
3
Observation
4
Bone scan
QUESTION 27
Cryotherapy has been demonstrated to achieve what effect after total knee replacement?
1
Decreased transfusion requirement
2
Improved pain, swelling, and analgesia
3
Improved range of motion at the time of discharge
4
Better long-term knee range of motion
QUESTION 28
Compared to retention of the native patella in primary total knee arthroplasty, routine patella resurfacing is associated with
1
no patellar complications.
2
an increased occurrence of anterior knee pain.
3
a decreased patellar fracture rate.
4
a decreased risk for revision surgery.
QUESTION 29
What clinical outcome is associated with total hip replacements that have metalmetal bearings (compared to total hip replacements with metal-polyethylene bearings)?
1
Soft-tissue sarcomas
2
Similar revision rates at 5 years
3
Increased nephrotoxicity
4
Pseudotumors
QUESTION 30
A 55-year-old man with unilateral osteoarthritis of the hip underwent a total hip arthroplasty using cementless fixation. The acetabular cup was 52 mm and the femoral head was 28 mm and made of cobaltchromium alloy. The bearing surface was made of annealed highly cross-linked polyethylene, with an estimated thickness of 6.5 mm. What should the orthopaedic surgeon tell the patient regarding wear of the bearing surface?
1
A highly cross-linked polyethylene bearing has superior wear characteristics compared to a conventional polyethylene bearing.
2
A highly cross-linked polyethylene bearing has similar wear characteristics compared to a conventional polyethylene bearing.
3
The incidence of osteolysis is expected to be higher with highly cross-linked polyethylene than with conventional polyethylene.
4
The volumetric wear rate would be lower if a 36-mm femoral head were used. DISCUSSION-In a prospective, randomized clinical trial of 100 patients undergoing cementless total hip arthroplasties,the investigators compared highly crossed-linked polyethylene to conventional polyethylene. All of the femoral heads were 28 mm. The mean follow-up was 6.8 years. The mean head penetration was 0.003 mm/year for the highly cross-linked polyethylene group in comparison to 0.051 mm/year for the conventional polyethylene group (P = .006). The improved wear is seen with larger-diameter heads as well. The volumetric wear rate of highly cross-linked polyethylene is equivalent to slightly higher with a larger head than a 28-mm head. Incidence of periarticular osteolysis is lower with highly cross-linked polyethylene.
QUESTION 31
A 49-year-old active man has groin pain 3 years after undergoing an uneventful total hip replacement using a cobalt-chrome femoral head articulating against a cobalt-chrome acetabular insert. The pain intensifies with activity and travels down his thigh. Examination and radiographic evaluation are not particularly helpful; there is no evidence of spinal or vascular disease. What is the next step in the evaluation of this patient?
1
A 3-phase bone scan
2
Measurement of synovial metal ions levels
3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), and possible hip aspiration
4
Bearing exchange to a metal-polyethylene combination
QUESTION 32
are the radiographs of a 25-year-old woman whose pain has progressed during the last several years to pain with any activity and pain at night. What is the most appropriate treatment?

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1
Proximal tibial osteotomy
2
Distal femoral osteotomy
3
Lateral unicompartmental arthroplasty
4
Total knee arthroplasty
QUESTION 33
What is the plasma half-life of warfarin?
1
1 to 2 hours
2
4 to 6 hours
3
12 to 18 hours
4
36 to 42 hours
QUESTION 34
An orthopaedic surgeon noticed a displaced calcar fracture during stem insertion when performing total hip arthroplasty using cementless fixation. What is the most appropriate course of action?
1
Intraoperative exploration to determine the extent of the fracture
2
Use of a longer stem without fixation of the calcar fracture
3
Complete insertion of the stem and measures to protect the patient against full weight bearing for 4 weeks
4
Removal of the stem, internal fixation of the fracture, and definitive reconstruction at a later stage after the fracture has healed
QUESTION 35
A 48-year-old woman had an 8-month history of spontaneous onset of left medial knee pain. She was otherwise healthy with an unremarkable past medical history. Prior to the onset of knee pain, she jogged,played tennis, and golfed regularly. She wished to remain active. Examination showed a fit woman witha BMI of 26, a stable left knee with full range of motion, and some mild medial joint line tenderness.Radiograph results were normal. An MRI scan showed diffuse grade 3 and a focal area of grade 4 chondromalacia on the medial femoral condyle. The medial meniscus had a degenerative signal but no tear. The remainder of the knee showed no additional pathology. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
1
Lateral heal wedge
2
Low-impact aerobic exercises
3
Glucosamine 1500 mg/day and chondroitin sulfate 800 mg/day
4
Arthroscopic debridement and microfracture of the focal area of grade 4 chondromalacia to reduce risk for progression
QUESTION 36
is the postoperative photograph of a patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty 10 days after surgery. Knee aspiration suggests a Streptococcus infection.
1
Stop physical therapy and institute oral antibiotics.
2
Stop physical therapy and institute intravenous (IV) antibiotics.
3
Open irrigation and debridement, polyethylene spacer exchange, and IV antibiotics
4
Remove components and insert an antibiotic spacer. _For each question below, please select the most appropriate treatment from the list above._
QUESTION 37
Seven weeks after total knee replacement surgery, a patient has a painful swollen knee. Knee aspiration reveals coagulase-negative Staphylococcus aureus.
1
Stop physical therapy and institute oral antibiotics.
2
Stop physical therapy and institute intravenous (IV) antibiotics.
3
Open irrigation and debridement, polyethylene spacer exchange, and IV antibiotics
4
Remove components and insert an antibiotic spacer. _For each question below, please select the most appropriate treatment from the list above._
QUESTION 38
What is the difference in outcome when comparing high tibial osteotomy (HTO) to total knee arthroplasty(TKA)?
1
TKA has a longer recovery period than HTO.
2
HTO provides more complete pain relief than TKA.
3
HTO is more reliable in older patients than TKA.
4
HTO outcomes among thin, active, young patients who undergo this procedure approach outcomes associated with TKA.
QUESTION 39
is a radiograph of a 72-year-old man who underwent an open reduction and internal fixation of a right femoral neck fracture. After 3 months he started to develop pain, and during the next 8 months hecomplained of progressive pain and shortening of the hip. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Girdlestone
2
Total hip replacement
3
Hardware removal
4
Hardware removal with revision open reductions and internal fixation
QUESTION 40
is the radiograph of a 68-year-old woman who has right knee pain that is limiting her activity and severe preoperative valgus deformity. During total knee arthroplasty, what pathologic features are typically encountered?
1
Lateral femoral hypoplasia
2
Internal rotation of the tibia relative to the femur
3
Medial patella tracking
4
Tight medial collateral ligament
QUESTION 41
A 72-year-old man with previous total hip arthroplasty developed hip pain of 1 month’s duration. He underwent dental work 6 weeks ago. Aspiration showed a white blood cell count of > 6000 cells/µL (reference range, 4500-11000/µL) and presence of gram-positive cocci in clusters on gram stain. The orthopaedic surgeon recommended urgent debridement and irrigation. The components were judged to be stable with regard to fixation, and the surgeon elected to retain the implants.

What is this patient’s prognosis for infection resolution?
1
Good because it is a gram-positive organism
2
Good because it is an acute infection
3
Poor because it is a gram-positive organism
4
Poor because it is a late infection
QUESTION 42
A 72-year-old man with previous total hip arthroplasty developed hip pain of 1 month’s duration. He underwent dental work 6 weeks ago. Aspiration showed a white blood cell count of > 6000 cells/µL (reference range, 4500-11000/µL) and presence of gram-positive cocci in clusters on gram stain. The orthopaedic surgeon recommended urgent debridement and irrigation. The components were judged to be stable with regard to fixation, and the surgeon elected to retain the implants.

The patient had a final culture that revealed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). If the attending physician recommended the 2-stage protocol including the use of an antibiotic-cement spacer,what is the most likely prognosis for this patient?
1
Better functional outcome in comparison to infections from sensitive organisms
2
Same functional outcome as infections from sensitive organisms
3
Same prognosis for eradication of infection as infections from sensitive organisms
4
Poorer prognosis for eradication of infection compared to infection from sensitive organisms
QUESTION 43
A 59-year-old active woman underwent elective total hip replacement using a posterior approach. She had minimal pain and was discharged to home 2 days after surgery. Four weeks later she dislocated her hip while shaving her legs. She underwent a closed reduction in the emergency department. Postreduction radiographs show a reduced hip with well-fixed components in satisfactory alignment. What is the most appropriate management of this condition from this point forward?
1
Observation and patient education regarding hip dislocation precautions
2
Revision to a larger-diameter femoral head
3
Revision to a constrained acetabular component
4
Application of a hip orthosis for 3 months
QUESTION 44
Patellar pain, subluxation, or dislocation after total knee arthroplasty can result from which of the following component orientations?
1
Internal rotation of the tibial component
2
Lateralization of the tibial component
3
Lateralization of the femoral component
4
External rotation of the femoral component
QUESTION 45
How does the risk for periprosthetic infection after total knee arthroplasty compare to risk for infection after total hip arthroplasty?
1
Higher in primary arthroplasty
2
Lower in primary arthroplasty
3
Lower in revision arthroplasty
4
Equivalent in both primary and revision arthroplasty
QUESTION 46
What factor is associated with a higher risk for dislocation after total hip arthroplasty?
1
Male gender
2
Previous hip surgery
3
A direct lateral surgical approach
4
Metal-on-metal bearing surfaces
QUESTION 47
What surgical technique has been associated with increased risk for recurrent dislocation after revision total hip arthroplasty?
1
Posterior capsulorrhaphy
2
Use of a jumbo cup
3
Use of a lateralized liner
4
Use of a larger femoral head diameter
QUESTION 48
Viscosupplementation (hyaluronan) achieves what effect in treatment of osteoarthritis pain of the knee?
1
Alters the natural history of osteoarthritis
2
No improvement in validated outcomes
3
Rebuilds articular cartilage
4
Beneficial for treating early-to-moderate osteoarthritis
QUESTION 49
A 40-year-old man with a history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease underwent a right hip resurfacing 3 years ago with no perioperative complications. He has developed hip pain gradually during the last 4 months.Radiographs show no evidence of fixation loosening or any adverse changes at the femoral neck. There is no periarticular osteolysis.

What is the most appropriate management of this condition?
1
Continue to observe with repeat radiographs in 6 months.
2
Fluoroscopic-guided iliopsoas tendon cortisone injection
3
Hip aspiration
4
Serum cobalt and chromium levels and metal-reduction MRI scan
QUESTION 50
A 40-year-old man with a history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease underwent a right hip resurfacing 3 years ago with no perioperative complications. He has developed hip pain gradually during the last 4 months.Radiographs show no evidence of fixation loosening or any adverse changes at the femoral neck. There is no periarticular osteolysis.

The patient developed a large intra-articular and intrapelvic pseudotumor. What predominant histological features are present in such a lesion?
1
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
2
Extracellular metal-wear debris
3
Cement particles within the macrophages
4
Lymphocytes and plasma cells
QUESTION 51
A 72-year-old man was scheduled for left total knee replacement. He has a history of hypertension and deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in his right lower extremity after an ankle fracture 2 years ago that was treated nonsurgically. The patient asked about the recommended types of DVT prophylaxis or investigations. Based on the 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty, what is an acceptable option?
1
Six weeks of acetylsalicylic acid postsurgically beginning the evening of surgery
2
Six weeks of low-molecular-weight heparin beginning the morning after surgery
3
Routine duplex scans of both lower extremities before hospital discharge to ensure the patient has not developed another DVT
4
Use of pneumatic calf compressors on both lower extremities while in the hospital and 4 weeks of warfarin starting the evening of surgery
QUESTION 52
What has been identified as a risk factor for total knee arthroplasty failure after previous high tibial osteotomy?
1
Body mass index higher than 35
2
Female gender
3
Preoperative stiffness
4
Advanced age
QUESTION 53
What limits indications for the use of constrained liners?
1
Association with periprosthetic fracture
2
Technical difficulty associated with insertion
3
High costs associated with their use
4
High failure rates associated with their use
QUESTION 54
A 70-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 34 and a history of hypercholesterolemia has elected to undergo total hip arthroplasty. Her son recently learned he has Factor V Leiden following an episode of pulmonary embolism. What are this patient’s risk factors for thromboembolic disease?
1
Type of surgery, age, and BMI
2
Type of surgery, hypercholesterolemia, and age
3
Age, BMI, and hypercholesterolemia
4
BMI, type of surgery, and hypercholesterolemia
QUESTION 55
An otherwise healthy 79-year-old man underwent a total hip arthroplasty 5 years ago. He has had a 48-hour history of groin and thigh pain and malaise. Examination reveals pain with internal motion of thehip. Radiographs show well-fixed, appropriately positioned components.

What serum inflammatory marker has the highest correlation with periprosthetic joint infection?
1
C-reactive protein
2
Serum white blood cell count
3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4
Interleukin 6 (IL-6)
QUESTION 56
An otherwise healthy 79-year-old man underwent a total hip arthroplasty 5 years ago. He has had a 48-hour history of groin and thigh pain and malaise. Examination reveals pain with internal motion of thehip. Radiographs show well-fixed, appropriately positioned components.

Serum blood work reveals markedly elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein(CRP), and IL-6 levels. Cultures from a hip aspirate reveal a low virulence staph epidermis. What is the next appropriate step in management?
1
Arthroscopic debridement
2
Reaspiration to confirm that the organism is not a contaminant
3
Indium scan to evaluate for infection
4
Irrigation and debridement and head and liner exchange
QUESTION 57
A 70-year-old man complains of symptomatic medial knee pain that has become progressively worse during the past year. An MRI scan reveals a complex posterior horn medial meniscus tear with associated medial and patellofemoral cartilage defects.
Radiographs reveal medial joint space narrowing and osteophytes in the other compartments. What treatment is most likely to provide long-term, durable symptom relief?
1
High tibial osteotomy
2
Total knee replacement
3
Unicondylar knee replacement
4
Arthroscopic partial menisectomy
QUESTION 5
A 68-year-old man reports hip pain 15 years after successful cementless total hip arthroplasty.Radiographs show 3 mm of linear wear of the modular acetabular liner and a retro-acetabular osteolytic lesion. Both the titanium femoral and acetabular components appear to be well fixed. The orthopaedic surgeon recommends revision of the acetabular liner and femoral head. This patient is at increased risk for
1
dislocation.
2
periprosthetic fracture.
3
infection.
4
progressive osteolysis.
QUESTION 59
A 61-year-old man with a body mass index of 31 had a 6-month gradual onset of right medial knee pain.Examination revealed a small effusion, stable ligaments, a normally tracking patella, and mild medial joint line tenderness. Standing radiographs show mild medial joint space narrowing. Effective treatment at this stage of early medial compartmental osteoarthritis includes
1
glucosamine 1500 mg/day and chondroitin sulfate 800 mg/day.
2
weight loss through dietary management and low-impact aerobic exercises.
3
arthroscopic debridement and lavage.
4
a valgus-directing brace.
QUESTION 60
show the intraoperative photograph, anteroposterior radiograph, and axial MRI scan of a 63-year-old man who had right groin pain 18 months after undergoing an uncemented right total hip replacement using a modular femoral neck implant and a metal-on-polyethylene bearing. His laboratory studies revealed an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 8 mm/h (reference range, 0-20 mm/h) and C-reactive protein level of 5.4 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). A preoperative aspiration revealed cultures that were negative for infection. A cell could not be obtained for evaluation because the cells were “degenerative.” At the time of surgery the joint fluid was turbid in appearance; the periarticular tissues appeared avascular and tan/beige in color. An intraoperative frozen section was negative for acute inflammation.
The implants were solidly fixed to bone. The cause of this patient’s symptoms and the intraoperative findings most likely are attributable to

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1
“backside” polyethylene wear.
2
metal debris.
3
soft-tissue sarcoma.
4
iliopsoas tendonitis.
QUESTION 61
The range of knee mobility after total knee replacement is multifactorial and dependent upon implant design, surgical implantation accuracy, and patient-specific variables. What total knee implant design is associated with the most knee flexion after total knee replacement?
1
Highly conforming articular surface geometry
2
Higher-flexion femoral component design manufactured to allow the most knee flexion
3
Posterior cruciate-stabilized implant, with or without a higher flexion manufacturing modification
4
Posterior cruciate-retaining design with a mobile bearing, custom implanted based on CT scan Data
QUESTION 62
In total knee arthroplasty, in vitro testing has shown that cross-linking can diminish the rate of polyethylene wear by 30% to 80%. What other change in material properties is possible when polyethylene is highly cross-linked?
1
Increased ductility
2
Increased wettability
3
Diminished fatigue strength
4
Decreased resistance to abrasive wear
QUESTION 63
What factor is associated with a high risk for developing pseudotumors after metal-on-metal hip resurfacing?
1
Large-diameter components
2
Age 40 or older for men
3
Age 40 or younger for women
4
Diagnosis of primary osteoarthritis
QUESTION 64

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Figure 64 is the radiograph of a 77-year-old woman with a painful total hip arthroplasty (THA) who had surgery 15 years ago. Preoperative laboratory studies reveal a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 4 mg/L(reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). Her serum white blood cell (WBC) count and differential values are within defined limits, and her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 35 mm/h (reference range, 0-20mm/h).

What is the next appropriate step in management of the patient?
1
Labeled WBC scan
2
MRI scan of the hip to evaluate for fluid collection
3
Revision THA with gram stain and multiple cultures
4
Aspiration with cell count and differential and culture
QUESTION 65

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Figure 64 is the radiograph of a 77-year-old woman with a painful total hip arthroplasty (THA) who had surgery 15 years ago. Preoperative laboratory studies reveal a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 4 mg/L(reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). Her serum white blood cell (WBC) count and differential values are within defined limits, and her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 35 mm/h (reference range, 0-20mm/h).

At the time of revision THA, the acetabular defect is confined to a contained cavitary defect in the dome. Anterior and posterior columns are intact, as is the rim. What is the most appropriate acetabular reconstruction?
1
Bilobed or “double bubble” acetabular component
2
Cementless acetabular hemisphere with multiple screws
3
Cemented all-polyethylene shell
4
Antiprotrusio cage device
QUESTION 66

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Figure 64 is the radiograph of a 77-year-old woman with a painful total hip arthroplasty (THA) who had surgery 15 years ago. Preoperative laboratory studies reveal a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 4 mg/L(reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). Her serum white blood cell (WBC) count and differential values are within defined limits, and her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 35 mm/h (reference range, 0-20mm/h).

During the revision, a large anterior column defect secondary to reaming is noted. At the time of impaction of the acetabular component, a loss of resistance is noted and the shell is unstable. After removing the shell, a fracture through the posterior column is noted.
What is the most appropriate course of action?
1
Resection arthroplasty
2
Distraction of the fracture with a large porous acetabular component
3
Acetabular antiprotrusio cage with screw fixation
4
Revision of the acetabular component with allograft and a cemented socket
QUESTION 67
a is the radiograph of a 78-year-old woman who has a recent history of increasing thigh pain 12 years after undergoing total hip arthroplasty. Figure 67b is the radiograph after she fell and was unable to ambulate. What is the most appropriate treatment?

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1
Application of a femoral cable plate
2
Application of cerclage-wired double allograft femoral struts
3
Femoral revision with an uncemented long stem
4
Femoral revision with a cemented long-stem prosthesis
QUESTION 68
What criterion is most reliable when attempting to establish a diagnosis of chronic periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) of the hip and knee?
1
Positive bone scan
2
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
3
Elevated serum white blood cell (WBC) count
4
Aspiration with > 2500 WBC per mm3
QUESTION 69
A 70-year-old man is scheduled to undergo bearing surface revision for wear and osteolysis 10 years after cementless total hip arthroplasty. The femoral head is 28 mm alumina-oxide ceramic material. The components are in good position, and there is no evidence of fixation loosening of either component by radiograph or preoperative bone scan. What outcome is associated with isolated polyethylene exchange?
1
Reduced risk for future wear and osteolysis with a larger femoral head
2
Reduced risk for future wear and osteolysis with a cobalt chrome femoral head
3
Similar risk for dislocation compared to primary total hip arthroplasty
4
Increased risk for dislocation compared to primary total hip arthroplasty
QUESTION 70
A healthy, active 68-year-old woman had a total hip arthroplasty 3 months ago. She has been to the emergency department with a posterior dislocation 3 times during the last 2 months. Plain radiographs and a CT scan confirm that the acetabular component is oriented in 5 degrees of retroversion and 55 degrees of abduction. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Revision of the femoral and acetabular components
2
Maximizing head-neck ratio and increasing head length
3
Acetabular component revision
4
Closed reduction with an abduction brace and reinforcement of hip precautions
QUESTION 71
A 55-year-old woman with history of HIV infection is scheduled for revision total knee arthroplasty to address instability. The index surgery was done 3 years ago. What is the white blood cell (WBC) count threshold in the synovial fluid for an infection diagnosis?
1/. 100000
2/. 25000
3/. 2500
4/. 250
1
Option 1
2
Option 2
3
Option 3
4
Option 4
QUESTION 72
What is the most common complication after a total hip replacement done through the anterior (Smith-Peterson) approach?
1
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury
2
Heterotopic ossification
3
Femoral nerve palsy
4
Anterior dislocation
QUESTION 73
is the anteroposterior pelvis radiograph of a 58-year-old woman who reported chronic hip pain and a clunking sensation 18 months after hip surgery. Laboratory test findings are negative for infection.What is the most appropriate treatment?

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1
Revision total hip arthroplasty
2
Trochanteric bursa injection
3
Acetabular component revision
4
A course of physical therapy
QUESTION 74
Early postoperative infections following primary total hip arthroplasty are most likely caused by which organism?
1
Staphylococcus epidermidis
2
Streptococcus viridans
3
Propionibacterium acnes
4
Staphylococcus aureus
QUESTION 75
Figures 75a through 75c are the radiographs and CT scan of a 58-year-old woman who underwent cementless left total hip arthroplasty. Nine months after surgery, she continued to have groin pain when she actively flexed her hip. She had trouble walking up stairs and getting out of her car.

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What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Trochanteric bursitis
2
Femoral component loosening
3
Iliopsoas tendonitis
4
Acetabular component loosening
QUESTION 76
Figures 75a through 75c are the radiographs and CT scan of a 58-year-old woman who underwent cementless left total hip arthroplasty. Nine months after surgery, she continued to have groin pain when she actively flexed her hip. She had trouble walking up stairs and getting out of her car.

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This patient failed a course of appropriate nonsurgical treatment. What is the next step in definitive treatment?
1
Acetabular component revision
2
Femoral component revision
3
Acetabular liner exchange
4
Trochanteric bursectomy
QUESTION 77
A 72-year-old woman returns 3 weeks after a right total knee replacement. She has been experiencing increasing pain, swelling, and decreasing range of motion during the last 10 days. Examination shows the knee to be more swollen and warm than what is typical at 3 weeks after surgery. The knee feels stable,but she has diffuse tenderness and range of motion is between 15 and 85 degrees. What is the most appropriate investigation(s) to diagnose the etiology of her current problem?
1
Radiographs of the knee
2
Radiographs, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and C-reactive protein (CRP)
3
Radiographs, ESR, CRP, and knee aspiration
4
No investigations are needed; reassure the patient that her findings are typical at this point
QUESTION 78
What is the most effective method to increase range of motion to impingement during total hip arthroplasty?
1
Increase neck length with a skirted component
2
Increase femoral head diameter
3
Decrease femoral neck offset
4
Use an elevated lip liner
QUESTION 79
What factor is associated with high wear and elevated serum metal ion levels after metal-on-metal resurfacing hip arthroplasty?
1
Retroversion of the femoral component
2
Acetabular anteversion more than 20 degrees
3
Acetabular inclination more than 50 degrees
4
Recurrent dislocation of the hip prosthesis
QUESTION 80
are the anteroposterior and lateral radiographs taken 8 months after revision of an aseptically loose acetabular component of an 81-year-old man who has mild cognitive impairment but is medically healthy. A 32-mm femoral head with metal-on-polyethylene was used at the time of revision.He has a history of numerous subluxation events and 2 dislocations requiring closed reduction since the cup revision. An abduction brace was prescribed after the first dislocation. The hip functions well apart from the episodes of instability. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein values are within defined limits. What is the most appropriate treatment for his recurrent instability?

---
1
Reinforce the use of an abduction brace when he is out of bed
2
Prescribe physical therapy focusing on abductor strengthening and reinforce hip precautions
3
Revision of the acetabular implant
4
Revision of the head and liner to a larger bearing size
QUESTION 81
After undergoing elective knee arthroplasty, which risk factor is most likely to cause a symptomatic pulmonary embolus?
1
Female gender
2
Previous knee surgery
3
High preadmission blood glucose
4
History of coronary artery disease
QUESTION 82
A 72-year-old patient fell 3 weeks after undergoing a total hip arthroplasty using cementless fixation of the femoral component. She sustained a comminuted Vancouver type B-2 fracture with displacement of the calcar fragment. What is the best treatment option?
1
Revision using a proximal femoral replacement prosthesis
2
Revision using a long-stem femoral prosthesis along with cerclage fixation
3
Open reduction internal fixation using a locking plate with strut graft
4
Protected weight bearing with abduction bracing
QUESTION 83
Figure 83a is the radiograph of a previously active patient with pain in her lower lumbar spine region and lateral hip 6 months after a cementless hip arthroplasty. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

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1
Increased hip joint offset
2
Increased leg length
3
Increased hip joint offset and leg length
4
Increased leg length but no increase in offset
QUESTION 84
In patients with Crowe types III and IV developmental dysplasia of the hip with high hip centers,acetabular reconstruction often requires lowering the acetabular component into the native acetabulum. In doing so, significant risk for limb lengthening beyond 4 cm exists, making the hip difficult to reduce and also raising risk for nerve injury. Which technique is used to overcome this problem?
1
Subtrochanteric osteotomy with femoral shortening
2
Use of an offset femoral component
3
Use of a lateralized liner
4
Extended trochanteric osteotomy DISCUSSION-When significant lengthening of a dysplastic hip will occur because a high dislocation is relocated into a significantly lower acetabulum, a femoral shortening may be necessary to reduce the hip and avoid a stretch injury to the sciatic nerve. No other choice specifically addresses the need for femoral shortening,and high offset stems and lateralized liners may exacerbate the problem if used alone and without femoralshortening.
QUESTION 85
Figures 85a and 85b are the radiographs of an 81-year-old woman who is brought to the emergency department after tripping and landing on her right knee. She had a right total knee replacement 8 years before this injury. The replacement had functioned well, but now she cannot bear weight and examination shows swelling and an abrasion over the patella.
Neurovascular examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate treatment?

---
1
Urgent open reduction and internal fixation using cerclage cables
2
Urgent closed, and possible open, reduction and internal fixation using a lateral periarticular locking screw plate
3
Wait for the patellar abrasion to heal, and then proceed with revision of her knee replacement to a distal femoral replacement.
4
Wait for the patellar abrasion to heal, and then proceed with revision of her femoral component using a long-stemmed femoral revision stem.
QUESTION 86
A 65-year-old woman has had 6 months of activity-related pain in her 15-year-old hip replacement.Her radiograph reveals an eccentric position of the ball head within the acetabulum. She has minimal periacetabular osteolysis, and her uncemented acetabular and femoral components are well fixed. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Revision of the acetabular component with retention of the femoral component
2
Revision of both acetabular and femoral components
3
Liner and ball head exchange
4
Observation
QUESTION 87
When compared to a general population of patients undergoing knee arthroplasty, patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at higher risk for developing what condition?
1
Stiffness and ossification
2
Infection
3
Component loosening
4
No heightened risk; they can expect the same outcome as patients with primary osteoarthritis ![img](/media/upload/41cfc047-5468-4b3d-891b-c80057fd89df.jpg) ---
QUESTION 88
Figure 88 is the radiograph of an 84-year-old man who had bilateral total knee replacements 14 years ago. For 3 years he has had pain and swelling in his right knee. Radiographs reveal a progressive valgus deformity of the knee. The patient wants to return to full function and ambulate throughout his household with minimal surgical risk.

Which of the following descriptions best characterizes the polyethylene particles liberated from this patient’s knee in comparison to wear particles found in a patient who undergoes total hip arthroplasty?
1
Smaller and less reactive
2
Smaller and more reactive
3
Larger and less reactive
4
Larger and more reactive
QUESTION 89
Figure 88 is the radiograph of an 84-year-old man who had bilateral total knee replacements 14 years ago. For 3 years he has had pain and swelling in his right knee. Radiographs reveal a progressive valgus deformity of the knee. The patient wants to return to full function and ambulate throughout his household with minimal surgical risk.

What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
1
Revision of both the femoral and tibial components
2
Polyethylene exchange
3
Tibia component revision
4
Osteotomy
QUESTION 90
A 76-year-old woman underwent an uncomplicated total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 7 years ago. She has had a 4-month history of pain and swelling. Radiographs reveal a global large lucency under the tibial component. Comparison of older radiographs reveals gross migration and subsidence of the tibial component. Further testing reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level, as well as a synovial white blood cell count > 15000 cells/µL. Synovial fluid cultures are negative for bacterial growth at 48 hours.

What is the most appropriate next step?
1
Synovial fluid gram stain
2
Tissue samples sent for culture and frozen section
3
Revision of both components with antibiotic cement and stems
4
Removal of the tibial component and retention of the femoral component if well fixed and appropriately positioned
QUESTION 91
A 76-year-old woman underwent an uncomplicated total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 7 years ago. She has had a 4-month history of pain and swelling. Radiographs reveal a global large lucency under the tibial component. Comparison of older radiographs reveals gross migration and subsidence of the tibial component. Further testing reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level, as well as a synovial white blood cell count > 15000 cells/µL. Synovial fluid cultures are negative for bacterial growth at 48 hours.

Frozen sections reveal 17 neutrophils per high-power field. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment associated with the highest chance for successful eradication of infection?
1
Irrigation and debridement with tibial revision
2
Irrigation and debridement with placement of an intra-articular antibiotic pump
3
Resection arthroplasty with placement of an antibiotic spacer
4
One-stage exchange
QUESTION 92
A 68-year-old woman underwent an uncemented medial/lateral tapered femoral placement during a total hip arthroplasty. The orthopaedic surgeon noticed a nondisplaced vertical fracture in the calcar region of the femoral neck with final implant insertion. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Removal of the press-fit implant and cementing of the same femoral stem
2
Removal of the uncemented femoral component and placement of a revision modular taperfluted femoral stem
3
Removal of the implant, placement of a cerclage cable around the femoral neck above the lesser trochanter, and reinsertion of the implant
4
Final seating of the uncemented femoral component without additional measures
QUESTION 93
The pharmacokinetics of which deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylactic agent are affected by liver function and dietary intake?
1
Dalteparin
2
Warfarin
3
Fondaparinux
4
Enoxaparin
QUESTION 94
is the radiograph of a patient who underwent component removal, insertion of an antibiotic spacer, and recent completion of 6 weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The patient’s C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) have decreased and are now within defined limits.The skin is supple and the patient has a range of motion between 10 and 70 degrees. What is the mostappropriate next step?
1
Two weeks off of antibiotics (antibiotic holiday), followed by knee joint aspiration
2
Continued observation for 6 months after surgery to make sure the infection has resolved
3
Joint aspiration for culture and cell count at the time of completion of IV antibiotic therapy
4
Antibiotic spacer exchange
QUESTION 95
What factor is associated with decreased range of motion to impingement?
1
Skirted modular femoral head
2
Trapezoidal neck geometry
3
Vertical cup inclination of 40 to 55 degrees
4
Anteversion of 10 to 20 degrees of both the stem and cup
QUESTION 96
A 68-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated total knee replacement through a midline incision that is extended distally to join a previous incision from a high-tibial osteotomy done 12 years previously.Despite relief of pain and appropriate knee mobility at 2 weeks, drainage continues from the distal part of the wound. What are the most appropriate next step(s) in treatment?
1
Oral cephalexin while the wound heals
2
Vacuum suction drain applied over the draining part
3
Intravenous antibiotics and reassess the knee in 24 hours
4
Urgent open debridement of the knee, cultures, and evaluation of inflammatory laboratory data
QUESTION 97
What infection-control measure has been shown to have the most notable impact in reducing surgical-site infections?
1
Intravenous antibiotic administration within 1 hour of surgical incision
2
Screening and decolonization of patients colonized with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
3
Horizontal laminar flow
4
Use of enclosed body exhaust suits
QUESTION 98
Three years after undergoing a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty, a 72-year--old woman develops pain with weight bearing and rest. Hip flexion and internal rotation is associated with pain.Radiographs show no evidence of loosening. What is the most appropriate next step in this evaluation?
1
Bone scan
2
White blood cell (WBC) count
3
Labeled white cell scan
4
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels
QUESTION 99
is a CT scan at the level of the distal femur and femoral component. What is the orientation of the femoral component in the CT scan?

---
1
Properly rotated
2
Internally rotated
3
Externally rotated
4
Excessive flexion
QUESTION 100
A 68-year-old woman with a 9-year history of type II diabetes is seen 11 weeks after an uncemented left total hip replacement. When seen 6 weeks after surgery, some mild erythema and induration at the distal incision was noted, but no drainage. She states that drainage started 2 weeks ago. Examination shows turbid drainage coming from the distal third of the incision with mild surrounding erythema. Hip range of motion causes mild discomfort. Investigations reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 45 mm/h(reference range, 0-20 mm/h) and C-reactive protein of 54 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). A rapid polymerase chain reaction of the swabbed fluid is positive for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.Hip aspiration under fluoroscopy is attempted but no fluid is obtained. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Debridement of the skin and superficial tissues
2
Debridement and removal of the implants and insertion of an antibiotic spacer
3
Debridement of superficial and deep tissues including the joint with exchange of the modular head and liner
4
Prescription for sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim DS), 1 tablet, twice daily for 14 days, and then re-evaluate the patient
Table of Contents
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon