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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 451-500 451. (3639) Q1-7416: What is the most frequent intraoperative complication during the course of shoulder arthroplasty for rh…

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Updated: مارس 2026
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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This topic focuses on ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 451-500, Periprosthetic humeral fracture is the most frequent intraoperative complication in shoulder arthroplasty for rheumatoid arthritis. For total hip arthroplasty, component malposition leads to dislocation and increased wear. Preventing complications involves precise surgical technique and careful pre-operative planning, ensuring optimal implant stability from microns to microns.

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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 451-500

QUESTION 1
In addition to routine medical clearance prior to surgery, what additional test should be considered in patients with rheumatoid arthritis:
1
Hip radiographs
2
Knee radiographs
3
Wrist radiographs
4
Hand radiographs
5
Cervical spine: Flexion-extension views
QUESTION 2
The most common technical cause of dislocation after primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) is:
1
Implant failure
2
Infection
3
Component malposition
4
Muscle weakness
5
NeurologiCdysfunction
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not a consequence of acetabular shell malposition:
1
Fibrous ingrowth
2
Increased fretting wear
3
Increased bearing wear
4
Impingement
5
Limited range of motion
QUESTION 4
Excessive anteversion of the acetabular cup may lead to:
1
Cup medialization
2
Posterior implant impingement
3
Leg length discrepancy
4
Premature osteolysis
5
Dislocation with excessive internal rotation
QUESTION 5
Mechanical guide inaccuracy in cup placement during total hip arthroplasty occurs due to:
1
AnatomiCsoft tissue variance
2
Displaced fracture of acetabulum
3
Poor implant fixation
4
Excessive motion between guide and implant
5
PelviCpositional instability
QUESTION 6
Excessive abduction of the acetabular shell may result in all of the following except:
1
Edge loading
2
Superior instability
3
Osteolysis
4
Superior cup migration
5
Linear polyethylene wear
QUESTION 7
Longevity of traditional total hip arthroplasty in young patients is limited by:
1
Implant failure
2
Infection
3
Fracture
4
Osteolysis and aseptiCloosening
5
Limited range of motion
QUESTION 8
Advantages of metal-on-metal vs metal-on-polyethylene articulation include:
1
Metal ion generation
2
Capacity for large head diameter
3
Lower infection rate
4
Increased bearing wetability
5
Lower cost
QUESTION 9
Which of the following cannot be modified during hip resurfacing:
1
Cup medialization
2
Femoral component angle
3
Leg length
4
Cup size
5
Cup angle
QUESTION 10
The most common failure mechanism in hip resurfacing is:
1
Acetabular component loosening
2
Infection
3
Recurrent dislocation
4
Femoral component loosening
5
Fracture
QUESTION 11
Potential contraindication for primary hip resurfacing include all of the following except:
1
Excessive femoral cyst formation
2
Osteoporosis with low bone density t-score
3
Previous femoral neck fracture
4
Severe developmental hip dysplasia
5
Osteonecrosis with femoral head collapse
QUESTION 12
Failure of first-generation cementless femoral stems is attributed to:
1
Material composition
2
Malrotation
3
Wear particle migration
4
Fatigue failure
5
Fracture
QUESTION 13
Evidence of cementless acetabular implant loosening is radiographically observed as:
1
Surrounding cystiClesions
2
HeterotopiCbone formation
3
Increased radiodensity
4
Implant spot welds
5
Radiolucency surrounding the shell
QUESTION 14
Increased scintigraphiCactivity surrounding an implant may signal all of the following except:
1
Recent implantation
2
Quiescent heterotopiCbone
3
Osteolysis
4
Loosening
5
Infection
QUESTION 15
Imaging of pelviCbone loss around the acetabulum is best accomplished with:
1
PelviCJudet views
2
Computed tomography (CT) scan
3
PelviCinlet view
4
Cross-table lateral of affected hip
5
PelviCoutlet view
QUESTION 16
The ideal range of micromotion to stimulate bone ingrowth into cementless implants is:
1
Less than 20 microns
2
30 microns to 150 microns
3
200 microns to 500 microns
4
600 microns to 800 microns
5
Greater than 900 microns
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a postoperative periprosthetiCfracture of the humerus:
1
Diabetes
2
Female gender
3
Age
4
Diagnosis of avascular necrosis
5
Polyethylene-induced osteolysis
QUESTION 18
What nerve is most frequently injured at the time of a periprosthetiCfracture of the humerus:
1
Median nerve
2
Ulnar nerve
3
Radial nerve
4
Musculocutaneous nerve
5
Axillary nerve
QUESTION 19
What is the average length of time for a periprosthetiChumeral fracture to heal with operative treatment:
1
Less than 30 days
2
Between 30 and 90 days
3
Between 90 and 120 days
4
Between 120 and 240 days
5
Greater than 240 days
QUESTION 20
According to the classification system of Wright and Cofield, what constitutes a type A periprosthetiChumeral fracture:
1
Fracture at the tip of the prosthesis, extends proximally
2
Prosthesis tip without extension
3
Prosthesis tip with extension distally
4
Fracture present with a loose prosthesis
5
Distal to the tip of prosthesis
QUESTION 21
What is the preferred treatment for a type CperiprosthetiCfracture with a well-fixed humeral component:
1
Open reduction internal fixation with a plate
2
Long stem prosthesis
3
Strut allograft and cerclage wires
4
Nonoperative treatment
5
Long stem with a strut
QUESTION 22
The approximate distance of the axillary nerve from the lateral border of the acromion is:
1
1 cm
2
3 cm
3
5 cm
4
7 cm
5
10 cm
QUESTION 23
Which of the following nerves enters the coracobrachialis muscle distal to the tip of the coracoids:
1
Radial nerve
2
Ulnar nerve
3
Median nerve
4
Musculocutaneous nerve
5
Axillary nerve
QUESTION 24
Which of the following approaches is used when the deltoid is taken down off the clavicle and anterior acromion:
1
Superior approach
2
Anterosuperior approach
3
Direct approach
4
Anteromedial approach
5
Medial approach
QUESTION 25
The deltoid inserts on this surface of the clavicle:
1
Superior surface
2
Anterior surface
3
Inferior surface
4
All of the above
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is an indication for an anteromedial approach:
1
Post-traumatiCarthritis with severe scarring
2
Rheumatoid arthritis
3
Revision shoulder arthroplasty
4
All of the above
QUESTION 27
What are the contraindications for a corrective osteotomy for a proximal humerus malunion:
1
Glenohumeral arthritis
2
Massive rotator cuff tear
3
Articular incongruity
4
Avascular necrosis
5
All of the above
QUESTION 28
What is the most significant factor affecting the results of shoulder arthroplasty for a malunion:
1
Placement of a glenoid component
2
Placement of a reverse shoulder arthroplasty
3
Resurfacing arthroplasty of the humerus
4
Avoidance of performing a tuberosity osteotomy
5
Performing a biceps tenodesis
QUESTION 29
When considering arthroscopiCtreatment of a malunion, what is the procedure most frequently performed:
1
Biceps tenodesis
2
Superior labral anterior posterior (SLAP) repair
3
ArthroscopiCcapsular release
4
Acromioplasty
5
Tuberoplasty
QUESTION 30
What are the complications commonly associated with tuberosity osteotomy at the time of shoulder arthroplasty for malunion:
1
Nonunion of the tuberosity
2
Tuberosity resorption
3
Malunion of the tuberosity
4
All of the above
QUESTION 31
Which of the following intraoperative techniques can be used to avoid tuberosity osteotomy:
1
Placement of the stem in slight varus
2
Bending the stem to accommodate the deformity
3
Placement of the stem in slight valgus
4
All of the above
QUESTION 32
What are the potential benefits of performing a lesser tuberosity osteotomy:
1
Bone-to-bone healing
2
Improved glenoid exposure
3
Ability to detect on radiographs disruption of the anterior repair
4
All of the above
QUESTION 33
What are the potential benefits of performing magnetiCresonance imaging (MRI) of a shoulder arthroplasty with a suspected rotator cuff tear:
1
Assess degree of fatty atrophy
2
Define the location of the tear
3
Evaluate the size of the tear
4
All of the above
QUESTION 34
In an elderly patient with a postoperative rotator cuff tear and escape, which of the following options is most effective to create a stable shoulder arthroplasty:
1
Coracohumeral reconstruction with an Achilles tendon graft
2
Bipolar arthroplasty
3
Hemiarthroplasty
4
Reverse shoulder arthroplasty
QUESTION 35
What is the reported frequency of rotator cuff tear following shoulder arthroplasty:
1
Less than 1%
2
1% to 2%
3
3% to 4%
4
Greater than 5%
QUESTION 36
What are some potential benefits of performing arthroscopiCcompared to open acromioplasty in a patient who develops impingement syndrome following hemiarthroplasty:
1
Ability to evaluate the status of the glenoid
2
Capacity to address intra-articular pathology
3
More rapid postoperative recovery
4
Less violation of the deltoid
5
All of the above
QUESTION 37
Which medication has been identified as a risk factor for a nerve injury after shoulder arthroplasty:
1
Prednisone
2
Warfarin
3
Clopidogrel bisulfate
4
Aspirin
5
Methotrexate
QUESTION 38
Which is the most common mechanism for nerve injury after shoulder arthroplasty:
1
Laceration
2
Expanding hematoma
3
Contusion
4
Tearing
5
Temporary neuropraxia due to stretch
QUESTION 39
Which approach has been identified as a risk factor for the development of a nerve injury with shoulder arthroplasty:
1
Transacromial
2
Anteromedial
3
Superior
4
Posterior
5
Deltopectoral
QUESTION 40
Which nerve is most likely to have evidence of a deficit after shoulder arthroplasty:
1
Radial nerve
2
Ulnar nerve
3
Musculocutaneous nerve
4
Median nerve
5
Axillary nerve
QUESTION 41
Which of the following is the reported incidence of nerve injuries following total shoulder arthroplasty:
1
Less than 1%
2
Between 1% and 2%
3
Between 2% and 4%
4
Between 4% and 5%
5
Greater than 10%
QUESTION 42
Which is the most common reason for revision surgery among patients who undergo hemiarthroplasty:
1
Humeral component loosening
2
PeriprosthetiCfracture
3
Infection
4
Instability
5
Glenoid arthritis
QUESTION 43
Which of the following are nonanatomiCinstability procedures:
1
Bristow
2
Putti-Platt
3
Magnuson-Stack
4
Latarjet
5
All of the above
QUESTION 44
Which is the mean 10-year survival for shoulder arthroplasty after prior instability surgery:
1
Greater than 95%
2
Between 85% and 95%
3
Between 75% and 85%
4
Between 65% and 75%
5
Less than 65%
QUESTION 45
Compared to shoulder arthroplasty for primary osteoarthritis, shoulder arthroplasty after prior instability surgery is associated with which of the following:
1
Lower revision rate
2
Similar revision rate
3
Higher revision rate
QUESTION 46
Which are the most common complications after shoulder arthroplasty for instability associated arthritis:
1
Instability
2
Component failure
3
Glenoid arthritis
4
All of the above
QUESTION 47
What anatomiCfactor has been identified as placing a patient at an increased risk for re-tearing a rotator cuff after repair:
1
Greater tuberosity foot print less than 2 cm in width
2
Wide lateral extension of the acromion
3
Increased humeral retroversion
4
Increased inclination of the humeral neck
5
Narrow bicipital groove
QUESTION 48
What are some of the potential benefits of using ultrasound to evaluate the integrity of the rotator cuff:
1
Portable device
2
Low cost compared to magnetiCresonance imaging (MRI)
3
DynamiCevaluation
4
Noninvasive procedure
5
All of the above

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Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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