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Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set B3CDB8

Master your boards with our Advanced Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam. Test yourself with 50 high-yield FRCS and Arab Board MCQs in Study or Exam mode today!

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Updated: Jul 2026
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
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This mock exam provides 50 randomized questions derived from Arab Board and FRCS databanks to perfectly simulate testing environments.

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set B3CDB8

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set B3CDB8

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
A 45-year-old male sustains an anterior-posterior compression (APC) type III pelvic ring injury following a crush injury. He is hemodynamically unstable upon arrival. If an arterial source of bleeding is identified on pelvic angiography, which of the following arteries is most likely to be injured based on the fracture pattern?
Explanation
In anterior-posterior compression (APC) injuries, the internal pudendal and obturator arteries are the most commonly injured arterial branches due to disruption of the anterior ring. Conversely, in lateral compression injuries and fractures extending through the greater sciatic notch, the superior gluteal artery is the most frequently injured.
Question 2


A 22-year-old elite soccer player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Preoperatively, she demonstrated a high-grade pivot shift test. The surgeon decides to perform an anterolateral ligament (ALL) reconstruction concurrently to improve rotational stability. Which of the following is true regarding the anatomy and biomechanics of the ALL?
Explanation
The anterolateral ligament (ALL) originates posterior and proximal to the lateral femoral epicondyle and inserts on the proximal tibia midway between Gerdy's tubercle and the fibular head. It acts as a secondary restraint to internal tibial rotation and the pivot shift phenomenon.
Question 3
A 65-year-old highly active male is undergoing a total hip arthroplasty (THA). The surgeon is discussing bearing surface options with him. Which of the following is a recognized biomechanical or clinical characteristic of ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearings compared to metal-on-polyethylene (MoP) bearings?
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearings possess excellent scratch resistance and have the lowest linear and volumetric wear rates among the available bearing surfaces, significantly reducing the incidence of wear particle-induced osteolysis. However, they carry a unique risk of squeaking and catastrophic ceramic component fracture.
Question 4


A 60-year-old male presents with progressively worsening manual dexterity and balance issues over the past 8 months. Examination reveals a positive Hoffmann's sign and hyperreflexia. MRI shows multi-level cervical stenosis with cord signal changes. Which of the following MRI findings most strongly predicts a poor neurologic recovery following surgical decompression?
Explanation
In the setting of cervical spondylotic myelopathy, T1 hypointensity on MRI represents permanent structural damage to the spinal cord (myelomalacia, necrosis, or cavitation) and is a strong independent predictor of poor clinical outcomes and limited neurologic recovery following decompression. T2 hyperintensity alone can represent reversible edema.
Question 5


A 12-year-old boy presents with left thigh pain and an antalgic gait for 4 weeks. Radiographs confirm a stable left slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Prophylactic in situ pinning of the contralateral asymptomatic right hip is most strongly indicated if the patient has which of the following concomitant conditions?
Explanation
Patients with endocrine disorders (such as hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency) or renal osteodystrophy are at a significantly elevated risk for bilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). In these populations, prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended, regardless of their chronological age.
Question 6


A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic, progressive dorsal wrist pain and weakness. Radiographs demonstrate scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC) stage II. Which of the following best describes the anatomical distribution of arthritis and an appropriate salvage procedure for this stage?
Explanation
SLAC Stage I involves the radial styloid and distal scaphoid. Stage II involves the entire radioscaphoid joint. Stage III involves the capitolunate joint. The radiolunate joint is typically spared in SLAC wrists. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) or four-corner fusion with scaphoid excision are appropriate for Stage II, but PRC is contraindicated in Stage III due to capitolunate arthritis.
Question 7


A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and severe peripheral neuropathy presents with a globally swollen, erythematous, and warm left foot. He denies any inciting trauma. Radiographs show periarticular debris and subtle fragmentation at the tarsometatarsal joints. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Explanation
The patient is presenting with acute Charcot arthropathy (Eichenholtz stage 0 or 1). The clinical picture mimics infection, but the lack of an ulcer or systemic signs points to Charcot. The mainstay of initial treatment during the acute inflammatory phase is immobilization (usually via total contact casting) and non-weight-bearing to arrest the destructive process and prevent further deformity.
Question 8


A 30-year-old male presents with a slow-growing, deep-seated, painful soft tissue mass in his left foot near the ankle joint. Imaging reveals a heterogeneous mass with stippled calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic pattern consisting of spindle cells and epithelial cells. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is classically associated with this tumor?
Explanation
The clinical, radiographic, and histologic descriptions are classic for synovial sarcoma. Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the specific chromosomal translocation t(X;18)(p11;q11), which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. This molecular marker is highly sensitive and specific for confirming the diagnosis.
Question 9


In the manufacturing of modern orthopedic implants, titanium alloys are frequently utilized due to their excellent biocompatibility and mechanical profile. Which of the following best explains the primary mechanism underlying titanium's exceptional corrosion resistance in vivo?
Explanation
Titanium and its alloys owe their high biocompatibility and excellent corrosion resistance to the spontaneous formation of a thin, passive, adherent oxide layer (primarily titanium dioxide, TiO2) on their surface when exposed to air or bodily fluids. This inert layer prevents further oxidation and interaction with the surrounding biological environment.
Question 10


A 75-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Prior to the injury, she was highly active, living independently, and ambulating without assistive devices. She undergoes a total hip arthroplasty (THA). Compared to a bipolar hemiarthroplasty, what is a known long-term clinical advantage of THA for this specific patient profile?
Explanation
In active, independent older adults with displaced femoral neck fractures, total hip arthroplasty (THA) is associated with better functional outcomes, less long-term groin pain (no acetabular cartilage wear), and lower long-term reoperation rates compared to hemiarthroplasty. This comes at the expense of a higher initial risk of dislocation, longer surgical times, and increased blood loss.
Question 11


A 50-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair for a massive, retracted tear. To improve lateral excursion of the supraspinatus tendon, the surgeon releases the coracohumeral ligament (CHL). Which of the following is true regarding the physiological function of the intact CHL?
Explanation
The coracohumeral ligament (CHL) originates on the base of the coracoid process and blends into the rotator interval, inserting onto the greater and lesser tuberosities. It is a primary static restraint to inferior translation and external rotation of the humerus when the shoulder is in an adducted position.
Question 12


During a primary posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices that the knee has symmetric extension and flexion gaps at 90 degrees, but exhibits a sudden 'cam jump' phenomenon when the knee is passively flexed past 110 degrees. Which of the following intraoperative variables is the most likely cause of this kinematic abnormality?
Explanation
In a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA, 'cam jump' or dislocation of the cam-post mechanism typically occurs in deep flexion. The primary cause of this phenomenon is a loose flexion gap (often combined with insufficient posterior tibial slope or a small femoral component). This laxity allows the femur to translate anteriorly relative to the tibia in deep flexion, clearing the post.
Question 13


A 35-year-old male presents following a high-speed motor vehicle accident. CT scan shows a T12 burst fracture with 40% canal compromise. His neurologic exam reveals 3/5 strength in bilateral hip flexors and knee extensors, with preserved perineal sensation. According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score (TLICS), how many points are assigned specifically for his neurologic status, and what is the overall treatment implication?
Explanation
The TLICS system allocates points based on morphology, neurologic status, and posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) integrity. For neurologic status: intact = 0, nerve root = 2, complete cord injury = 2, incomplete cord injury/cauda equina = 3. This patient has an incomplete deficit (3 points). With morphology being a burst fracture (2 points), the score is at least 5, which strongly favors operative intervention.
Question 14
An 8-week-old infant with rigid, idiopathic clubfoot is undergoing serial casting using the Ponseti method. To achieve a plantigrade, functional foot, the deformity must be systematically corrected in a specific sequence. Which of the following accurately represents the correct sequence of correction?
Explanation
The Ponseti method dictates that clubfoot deformities should be corrected in the specific order summarized by the mnemonic CAVE: Cavus (corrected first by elevating the first ray to supinate the forefoot), Adductus, Varus, and finally Equinus (which often requires a percutaneous Achilles tenotomy as the final step).
Question 15


A 55-year-old female with long-standing type 2 diabetes presents with a painful, catching ring finger that locks in flexion. She is diagnosed with stenosing tenosynovitis (trigger finger). Which annular pulley is primarily implicated in the pathogenesis of this condition, and what is its anatomic relationship to the corresponding joint?
Explanation
Trigger finger is caused by a size mismatch between the flexor tendon (often with a reactive nodule) and the retinacular sheath, primarily at the A1 pulley. The A1 pulley is located palmar to the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. The A2 pulley is over the proximal phalanx, and the A3 pulley is over the PIP joint.
Question 16
A 40-year-old female presents with a symptomatic hallux valgus deformity that has failed conservative shoe wear modification. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 35 degrees and a 1-2 intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 16 degrees. Clinical exam shows a stable first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint without hypermobility. Which of the following surgical procedures is most biomechanically appropriate?
Explanation
An intermetatarsal angle (IMA) greater than 13-15 degrees represents a moderate-to-severe deformity. A proximal osteotomy (e.g., Ludloff, crescentic, or proximal chevron) combined with a distal soft tissue release provides superior corrective power for larger IMAs. Distal osteotomies are reserved for mild deformities (IMA < 13 degrees). A Lapidus is indicated if first ray hypermobility is present.
Question 17


A 15-year-old boy presents with severe nocturnal thigh pain that awakens him from sleep but is dramatically relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs show dense cortical thickening in the proximal femoral diaphysis. CT scan reveals a 6 mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by intense reactive sclerosis. Which of the following is true regarding the pathophysiology of this specific lesion?
Explanation
Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone-forming tumor characterized by a radiolucent nidus usually less than 1.5-2 cm in diameter. The cells within the nidus produce very high levels of prostaglandins, particularly PGE2. This causes profound local vasodilation and severe pain, explaining the classic symptom of night pain that is rapidly and dramatically relieved by NSAIDs or aspirin.
Question 18
During secondary fracture healing in a long bone, the repair process transitions through several highly coordinated phases. Which type of collagen is predominantly synthesized during the soft callus phase, and which cell type is primarily responsible for its production?
Explanation
Secondary fracture healing involves endochondral ossification. During the soft callus phase, the hematoma is replaced by fibrocartilage, predominantly composed of Type II collagen synthesized by proliferating chondrocytes. This cartilaginous template is later calcified (involving Type X collagen) and finally replaced by woven bone (Type I collagen produced by osteoblasts) during the hard callus phase.
Question 19


A 28-year-old male undergoes reamed intramedullary nailing for a closed, high-energy midshaft tibia fracture. In the PACU, he develops severe, unrelenting leg pain out of proportion to the injury, exacerbated by passive stretch of the hallux. Intracompartmental pressures confirm compartment syndrome. If a four-compartment fasciotomy is performed via a standard two-incision technique, the lateral incision provides direct access to which compartments?
Explanation
The standard two-incision technique for lower leg fasciotomy involves an anterolateral incision and a posteromedial incision. The anterolateral incision is placed between the tibial crest and the fibula, providing access to release the anterior and lateral compartments. The posteromedial incision allows for release of the superficial and deep posterior compartments.
Question 20
A 16-year-old female athlete experiences her first acute lateral patellar dislocation. Physical exam reveals a positive J-sign and severe apprehension. MRI demonstrates a complete mid-substance tear of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). If reconstruction is planned, the surgeon must identify the precise femoral attachment of the MPFL. Where is this anatomic landmark located?
Explanation
The femoral origin of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is a critical landmark for anatomic reconstruction (often referenced radiographically as Schöttle's point). Anatomically, it is located in a saddle-shaped depression between the medial epicondyle (distal/anterior) and the adductor tubercle (proximal/posterior).
Question 21
A 45-year-old cyclist presents with numbness in his small and ring fingers, and weakness of finger abduction. Sensation to the dorsal ulnar aspect of the hand is preserved. At which zone of Guyon's canal is the compression most likely located, and what structures are involved?
Explanation
Preservation of dorsal ulnar sensation indicates the compression is distal to the dorsal ulnar sensory branch (which arises proximal to the wrist), localizing the lesion to Guyon's canal. Guyon's canal is divided into three zones: Zone 1 is proximal to the bifurcation and contains both motor and sensory fibers; Zone 2 contains only the deep motor branch; Zone 3 contains only the superficial sensory branch. Mixed motor and sensory deficits localize to Zone 1.
Question 22
Bone Morphogenetic Proteins (BMPs) initiate intracellular signaling through which of the following receptor types?
Explanation
BMPs are members of the TGF-beta superfamily. They initiate intracellular signaling cascades by binding to specific Type I and Type II transmembrane serine/threonine kinase receptors, which leads to the phosphorylation and activation of intracellular Smad proteins.
Question 23
A 32-year-old female presents with a distal femur lytic lesion that is diagnosed as a Giant Cell Tumor of Bone. She is started on Denosumab prior to surgery to help downstage the tumor. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

Explanation
Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL (Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand). By binding RANKL, it prevents it from interacting with the RANK receptor on osteoclasts and osteoclast precursors, thereby profoundly inhibiting osteoclast formation, function, and survival.
Question 24
A 6-week-old infant is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip. At the 2-week follow-up, the mother notes the child is no longer actively extending the knee on the treated side. What is the most likely cause, and what is the appropriate management?
Explanation
Hyperflexion in a Pavlik harness can lead to femoral nerve palsy, presenting as decreased active knee extension. The standard initial management for a clinically evident femoral nerve palsy in this setting is to temporarily remove the harness to allow for neurologic recovery, rather than continuing or tightening the straps.
Question 25
Trunnionosis in total hip arthroplasty is a phenomenon of mechanically assisted crevice corrosion. It is historically most strongly associated with which of the following combinations of head and stem materials?
Explanation
Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction, has been most commonly observed in combinations utilizing a large cobalt-chrome (CoCr) femoral head on a titanium alloy stem due to galvanic and fretting corrosion mechanics.
Question 26
Which of the following best describes the functional anatomy and biomechanics of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)?
Explanation
The PCL consists of two main bundles: the anterolateral (AL) bundle and the posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is the larger of the two and is tight in flexion and lax in extension. Conversely, the smaller PM bundle is tight in extension and lax in flexion.
Question 27
The strongest and most important ligamentous stabilizer of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is the:

Explanation
While the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is typically the first to tear in a syndesmotic injury, biomechanical studies demonstrate that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) provides the greatest proportion of strength (approximately 42%) to the syndesmosis, making it the strongest stabilizer.
Question 28
In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an anteroposterior compression (APC) type III pelvic ring injury, what is the anatomical target for the optimal placement of a circumferential pelvic sheet or binder?
Explanation
Optimal placement of a pelvic binder is centered directly over the greater trochanters. Placing the binder too high (e.g., iliac crests or ASIS) reduces its biomechanical efficacy in closing the pelvic volume and can paradoxically open the true pelvis further.
Question 29
A 14-year-old gymnast presents with chronic low back pain exacerbated by extension. Radiographs show a grade II isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. What is the most common neurological finding associated with this condition if radiculopathy is present?
Explanation
In L5-S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis, the exiting L5 nerve root is most commonly compressed within the neural foramen by fibrocartilaginous tissue of the pars defect, resulting in L5 radiculopathy (pain, weakness in EHL, and sensory changes in the first dorsal web space).
Question 30
A 45-year-old man presents with wrist pain 10 years after an untreated scaphoid fracture. Radiographs show arthritis involving the entire radioscaphoid joint, but the capitolunate joint is completely preserved. What stage of Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) is this, and what is a recommended salvage procedure?

Explanation
SNAC staging: Stage I involves the radial styloid and distal scaphoid. Stage II involves the entire radioscaphoid fossa. Stage III involves the capitolunate (midcarpal) joint. Because the entire radioscaphoid joint is arthritic but midcarpal is spared, this is Stage II. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) or four-corner fusion are standard recommended treatments.
Question 31
In Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, which of the following is considered a 'head-at-risk' radiographic sign of Catterall?
Explanation
Catterall's 'head-at-risk' signs include: Gage's sign (a V-shaped radiolucency in the lateral portion of the epiphysis/metaphysis), calcification lateral to the epiphysis, lateral subluxation of the femoral head, a horizontal physis, and metaphyseal cysts.
Question 32
During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty utilizing an anterior referencing guide, the surgeon notes that the knee is tight in flexion and well-balanced in extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative step to balance the knee?
Explanation
A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension requires a maneuver that exclusively increases the flexion gap. When using an anterior referencing system, decreasing the femoral component size selectively decreases the posterior condylar offset (thinner posterior cut), which enlarges the flexion space without altering the extension space.
Question 33
In normal articular cartilage, the superficial (tangential) zone is functionally and structurally characterized by which of the following properties?
Explanation
The superficial zone of articular cartilage is characterized by the highest water content, lowest proteoglycan content, and densely packed collagen fibers that are oriented parallel to the joint surface to resist sheer stress.
Question 34
Which of the following injury patterns classically defines a 'floating shoulder'?
Explanation
A 'floating shoulder' refers to a double disruption of the superior shoulder suspensory complex, most classically represented by an ipsilateral fracture of the glenoid neck and a fracture of the clavicle shaft, thereby functionally isolating the glenohumeral joint from the axial skeleton.
Question 35
A 65-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair and is noted to have a highly degenerate long head of the biceps tendon. A biceps tenotomy is performed. Compared to biceps tenodesis, simple tenotomy is associated with a statistically higher rate of:
Explanation
While both biceps tenotomy and tenodesis yield similarly good outcomes regarding pain relief and function, simple tenotomy has a significantly higher rate of cosmetic deformity (the 'Popeye' muscle bulge) and occasional cramping, compared to tenodesis.
Question 36
In the evaluation of a suspected Lisfranc injury, which radiographic finding on a weight-bearing AP view of the foot is considered a primary indicator of disruption?

Explanation
A classic and pathognomonic finding of a Lisfranc injury on an AP radiograph is any step-off or malalignment of the medial border of the second metatarsal base with the medial border of the middle cuneiform. They should form a perfectly continuous line in a normal foot.
Question 37
A 16-year-old male presents with severe nocturnal thigh pain that is rapidly relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs demonstrate a small radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic reactive bone in the proximal femur. After failing medical management, which of the following is the most appropriate initial definitive treatment?
Explanation
The classic presentation of an osteoid osteoma is night pain relieved by NSAIDs, characterized radiographically by a radiolucent nidus with surrounding sclerosis. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is the standard of care for definitive minimally invasive treatment when medical management fails.
Question 38
The Stener lesion, which prevents non-operative healing of a complete ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) tear of the thumb, involves the interposition of which structure between the torn ends of the UCL?
Explanation
A Stener lesion occurs when the distal attachment of the thumb ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) completely avulses and retracts proximally, becoming displaced superficial to the adductor pollicis aponeurosis. This aponeurosis interposes between the torn UCL ends, preventing native healing and necessitating surgical repair.
Question 39
A 22-year-old restrained passenger is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. CT of the lumbar spine reveals a flexion-distraction injury (Chance fracture) at L2. Which of the following associated injuries has the highest incidence in this patient population?

Explanation
Chance fractures (flexion-distraction injuries of the spine) are highly associated with lap-belt use in motor vehicle accidents. They carry a very high rate (up to 40-50%) of concomitant intra-abdominal visceral injuries, particularly to hollow viscous organs like the small bowel.
Question 40
Tranexamic acid (TXA) is widely used in orthopedic surgery to reduce perioperative blood loss. What is its primary biochemical mechanism of action?
Explanation
Tranexamic acid (TXA) is a synthetic analog of the amino acid lysine. It acts as an antifibrinolytic agent by reversibly binding four to five lysine receptor sites on plasminogen, which prevents plasmin from binding to and degrading fibrin, thereby stabilizing the blood clot.

Detailed Chapters & Topics

Dive deeper into specialized chapters regarding orthopedic-mock-exam-b3cdb8

9 Chapters
01
Chapter 1 50 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set B658AF

Ace your boards with our Advanced Orthopedic Mock Exam (Set B658AF). Test yourself with 50 high-yield MCQs from FRCS an…

02
Chapter 2 60 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set A8E923

Prepare for your boards with our Advanced Orthopedic Mock Exam. Features 50 high-yield MCQs from FRCS and Arab Board da…

03
Chapter 3 64 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set 7868C9

Ace your FRCS and Arab Orthopaedic Board exams with our advanced 50-question mock exam. Practice high-yield questions i…

04
Chapter 4 62 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set FF5036

Ace your boards with our Advanced Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam. Test yourself with 50 high-yield MCQs from FRCS and Ara…

05
Chapter 5 68 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set CD23EE

Ace your exams with our advanced Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam. Test yourself with 50 high-yield FRCS and Arab Board MCQ…

06
Chapter 6 136 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set BD61F5

Ace your boards with our Advanced Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam. Practice 50 high-yield MCQs from FRCS and Arab Board da…

07
Chapter 7 30 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set F2EBEA

Ace your boards with this advanced Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam. Features 50 high-yield MCQs from FRCS and Arab Board d…

08
Chapter 8 57 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set 1F7639

Master your boards with this Advanced Orthopedic Mock Exam. Practice 50 high-yield MCQs from FRCS and Arab Board databa…

09
Chapter 9 56 min

Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set D14A91

Master orthopedic surgery board exams with our advanced mock exam. Test yourself with 50 high-yield FRCS and Arab Board…

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
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