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General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved)

Orthopedic Basic 2026 MCQs: Board Review Questions & Answers (Part 1)

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Question 1
A 13-year-old girl has had increasing left hip pain for the past 4 months. A radiograph, bone scan, MRI scan, and photomicrograph are shown in Figures 1a through 1d. Which of the following immunohistochemistry results would confirm the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
1b 1c 1d The imaging studies show a permeative lesion of the left hemipelvis with a large soft-tissue mass. The photomicrograph demonstrates a small blue cell tumor with pseudorosettes. The most likely diagnosis is primitive neuroectodermal tumor (Ewing's sarcoma family of tumors). MIC-2 is a highly sensitive and specific marker for this family of tumors. Cytokeratin is an epithelial marker. Vimentin is a mesenchymal marker. Thus, Ewing's sarcomas are cytokeratin negative and vimentin positive. Before discovery of the MIC-2 antigen, PAS and reticulin stains were commonly used to help differentiate Ewing's sarcoma from lymphoma. In contrast to lymphoma, Ewing's sarcomas are typically PAS positive and reticulin negative. Halliday BE, Slagel DD, Elsheikh TE, et al: Diagnostic utility of MIC-2 immunocytochemical staining in the differential diagnosis of small blue cell tumors. Diagn Cytopathol 1998;19:410-416.
References:
  • Llombart-Bosch A, Navarro S: Immunohistochemical detection of EWS and FLI-1 proteins is Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumors: Comparative analysis with CD99 (MIC-2) expression. Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2001;9:255-260.
Question 2
Which of the following is the preferred treatment for symptomatic localized pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS) of the knee?
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Explanation
Localized PVNS is a variant of the disease process where the synovial proliferation occurs in one area and usually presents as a discrete mass. It has been effectively treated with complete excision. This may be performed arthroscopically or with arthrotomy. Complete synovectomy and radiation therapy are unnecessary to eradicate the localized form of PVNS. Tyler WK, Vidal AF, Williams RJ, et al: Pigmented villonodular synovitis. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2006;14:376-385.
References:
  • Kim SJ, Shin SJ, Choi NH, et al: Arthroscopic treatment for localized pigmented villonodular synovitis of the knee. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2000;379:224-230.
Question 3
A previously asymptomatic 14-year-old girl sustained a twisting injury to her ankle. Radiographs are shown in Figures 2a and 2b. Management should consist of
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Explanation
2b The radiographs show a well-defined, irregular, eccentric lesion in the distal tibia metaphysis with a thin sclerotic margin. The radiographs are diagnostic of nonossifying fibroma, a common entity in this age group and in this location. No further work-up is indicated. The patient was asymptomatic prior to the injury and the lesion is small and thus not worrisome for an impending pathologic fracture; therefore, no treatment is indicated beyond observation. The natural history of these lesions is to gradually ossify as the patient reaches skeletal maturity. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 69-75.
References:
  • Biermann JS: Common benign lesions of bone in children and adolescents. J Pediatr Orthop 2002;22:268-273.
Question 4
A healthy 52-year-old woman is seeking professional advice about management of osteoporosis. She has no risk factors for osteoporosis. What is the best recommendation for bone health for this patient?
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Explanation
Women older than age 50 years should receive daily supplementation with calcium and vitamin D to help preserve bone density. Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women age 65 years or older and postmenopausal women with at least one risk factor for osteoporotic fractures: prior fragility fracture, low estrogen levels, premature menopause, long-term secondary amenorrhea, glucocorticoid therapy, maternal history of hip fracture, or low body mass index. Hormone therapy is not approved for the treatment of osteoporosis. Gass M, Dawson-Hughes B: Preventing osteoporosis-related fractures: An overview. Am J Med 2006;119:S3-S11.
References:
  • Lin JT, Lane JM: Osteoporosis: A review. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2004;425:126-134.
Question 5
A 14-year-old boy reports progressive right wrist pain. Radiographs are shown in Figure 3a, and a photomicrograph is shown in Figure 3b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
3b The radiographs show a benign-appearing, well-defined lytic lesion with a thin rim of surrounding reactive bone. The photomicrograph shows spindle cells with a myxoid cartilaginous matrix. These findings are diagnostic of chondromyxoid fibroma. This is a rare, benign tumor that usually causes pain and can be locally aggressive. Lersundi A, Mankin HJ, Mourikis A, et al: Chondromyxoid fibroma: A rarely encountered and puzzling tumor. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;439:171-175.
References:
  • Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.
Question 6
A 37-year-old man pulled his hamstring playing softball 3 weeks ago. The patient had not noted any mass prior to his injury. MRI scans of the posterior thigh are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. Figure 4c shows the biopsy specimen from a needle biopsy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
4b 4c Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma. MFH typically presents as a large mass, deep to the fascia with heterogeneous signal on MRI. The MRI scans show a heterogeneous lesion in the posterior thigh. There is significant high signal uptake on the T2-weighted image. The histology shows malignant histiocytic cells with marked atypia and pleomorphism. Histology of a hematoma would show only old hemorrhage and some granulation tissue. Lipoma and liposarcoma are both seen as a fat-containing lesion on histology. No significant fat tissue is seen in this histologic specimen. Histology of myositis ossificans would show bone formation. Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 219-276.
References:
  • Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 965-981.
Question 7
A 16-year-old boy has had left knee pain and swelling after sustaining a minor twisting injury while playing basketball 2 weeks ago. Figures 5a through 5e show the radiograph, MRI scans, and biopsy specimens. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
5b 5c 5d 5e The imaging studies and histology are most consistent with Ewing's sarcoma. Tuberculosis can show small round blue cells on histology (lymphocytes associated with chronic infection) but would more typically involve the knee joint and periarticular bone. Osteosarcoma and MFH do not have small round blue cells histologically. Sissons HA, Murray RO, Kemp HBS: Orthopaedic Diagnosis. Berlin, Springer-Verlag, 1984, pp 254-256.
References:
  • Wafa H, Grimer RJ: Surgical options and outcomes in bone sarcoma. Expert Rev Anticancer Ther 2006;6:239-248.
Question 8
A 45-year-old man has had left thigh pain for the past 4 months. An AP radiograph, bone scan, MRI scans, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 6a through 6f. What is the most appropriate treatment?
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Explanation
6b 6c 6d 6e 6f The radiograph demonstrates thickened trabeculae and thickened cortices in the left proximal femur compared to the right, and the bone scan shows increased uptake in this area. The MRI scans show thickened trabeculae with normal marrow signal. These findings are diagnostic of Paget's disease. Medical treatment, including bisphosphonates and calcitonin, is indicated for painful bone lesions. Hadjipavlou AG, Gaitanis IN, Kontakis GM: Paget's disease of the bone and its management. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2002;84:160-169.
References:
  • Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 187-196.
Question 9
A 13-year-old boy has a painless "knot" over his left hip. History reveals that he injured his left hip playing soccer 4 months ago. A radiograph and MRI scan obtained at the time of injury are shown in Figures 7a and 7b. He is very active and is currently asymptomatic. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 7c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
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Explanation
7b 7c The diagnosis is myositis ossificans resulting from an injury. The initial radiograph reveals a small amount of mineralization in the soft tissues overlying the left hip. The MRI scan shows signal abnormality of the entire gluteus minimus muscle with a mineralized mass in the center. The current radiograph shows a lesion within the abductor musculature with mature ossification peripherally. The imaging studies are diagnostic and the patient is asymptomatic; therefore, the management of choice is observation with no further evaluation or treatment indicated. Miller AE, Davis BA, Beckley OA: Bilateral and recurrent myositis ossificans in an athlete: A case report and review of treatment options. Arch Phys Med Rehabil 2006;87:286-290.
References:
  • Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 15-27.
Question 10
Figure 8a shows the clinical photograph of an 83-year-old woman who has an enlarging left forearm mass. MRI scans are shown in Figures 8b and 8c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
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Explanation
8b 8c Any large (greater than 5 cm), deep, heterogeneous mass in the extremities should be considered a sarcoma until proven otherwise. Sarcomas are rare, and without a high index of suspicion, the lesions may be misdiagnosed or there may be a delay in diagnosis. Needle biopsies can obtain sufficient tissue for diagnosis and are associated with less morbidity than open biopsy. Marginal resections or excisional biopsies should be reserved for a few select benign lesions and locations. Damron TA, Beauchamp CP, Rougraff BT, et al: Soft-tissue lumps and bumps. Instr Course Lect 2004;53:625-637.
References:
  • Sim FH, Frassica FJ, Frassica DA: Soft-tissue tumors: Diagnosis, evaluation, and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:202-211.
Question 11
An otherwise healthy 33-year-old man who works in construction reports a 3-month history of knee pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 9a and 9b. An axial T1-weighted MRI scan with contrast, an angiogram, and histologies are shown in Figures 9c through 9f. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
9b 9c 9d 9e 9f Dedifferentiated parosteal osteosarcoma designates high-grade transformation of conventional low-grade parosteal osteosarcoma. Unlike conventional parosteal osteosarcoma, where wide surgical excision alone is considered adequate treatment, patients with dedifferentiated osteosarcoma are treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy and wide local resection. Recognition of dedifferentiated areas with angiography can localize the area that should be biopsied and thus render an accurate diagnosis. Percutaneous biopsy of hypervascular areas should prompt the administration of chemotherapy and wide local excision to optimize patient outcome. Sheth DS, Yasko AW, Raymond AK, et al: Conventional and dedifferentiated parosteal osteosarcoma: Diagnosis, treatment, and outcome. Cancer 1996;78:2136-2145.
References:
  • Lewis VO, Gebhardt MC, Springfield DS: Parosteal osteosarcoma of the posterior aspect of the distal part of the femur: Oncological and functional results following a new resection technique. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1083-1088.
Question 12
A 20-year-old man has a large soft-tissue mass behind his knee. MRI scans are shown in Figures 10a through 10c. Figure 10d shows a clinical photograph of his chest. The patient's condition is most likely a result of a defect in what gene?
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Explanation
10b 10c 10d The patient has a plexiform neurofibroma and multiple café-au-lait spots, all characteristic of von Recklinghausen's neurofibromatosis. This disease has been linked to a defect of the gene NF1 on chromosome 17. EWS is one of the genes associated with the 11;22 translocation found in Ewing's sarcoma and several other sarcomas. EXT1 is the most common gene affecting patients with multiple hereditary exostosis. P53 and Rb are tumor suppressor genes whose inactivation has been associated with tumors in conditions such as Li-Fraumeni and retinoblastoma, respectively. Theos A, Korf BR, American College of Physicians, et al: Pathophysiology of neurofibromatosis Type 1. Ann Intern Med 2006;144:842-849.
References:
  • Menendez LR: Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002.
Question 13
A 35-year-old man reports the development of a painful 2-cm nodule on his dorsal wrist over the past 3 years. A surgeon excised the lesion with a presumptive diagnosis of a ganglion cyst. Histology sections from the excision are shown in Figures 11a and 11b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
11b The histologic appearance of the soft-tissue lesion reveals compact nests of cells with a clear cytoplasm surrounded by a delicate border of fibrocollagenous tissue. There can be scattered multinucleated giant cells. This is consistent with a clear cell sarcoma, also called malignant melanoma of soft parts. This tumor is usually positive for S-100 and HMB45 (a melanoma-associated antigen). These tumors are frequently found around the foot and ankle. Similar to epithelioid sarcoma, it is usually intimately bound to tendons or tendon sheaths. Often the tumors are present for many years. The classic histologic appearance of this lesion differentiates it from the other choices. Enzinger FM, Weiss SW: Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 3. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1995, p 913.
References:
  • Lucas DR, Nascimento AG, Sim FH: Clear cell sarcoma of soft tissues: Mayo Clinic experience with 35 cases. Am J Surg Pathol 1992;16:1197-1204.
Question 14
Figures 12a through 12e show the radiograph, MRI scans, and biopsy specimens of a 17-year-old boy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
12b 12c 12d 12e The images show an epiphyseal lesion. The MRI scan shows extensive bone edema surrounding the lesion, consistent with chondroblastoma. Histology shows polygonal chondroblasts in a cobblestone-like pattern and areas of calcification consistent with chondroblastoma. Although some giant cells are seen, the age of the patient and the polygonal chondroblasts differentiate this lesion from giant cell tumor. Clear cell chondrosarcoma is an epiphyseal lesion that occurs in an older population, and the cells have clear cytoplasm. This lesion is not producing bone on imaging or histologic specimen, eliminating osteosarcoma. Tuberculous septic arthritis can be an epiphyseal lesion, but granulomas would be seen on histology. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.
References:
  • Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 247-263.
Question 15
An 18-year-old boy reports increasing pain with weight bearing on his right leg and at night. Examination reveals swelling around the right midcalf. Radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 13a through 13c, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 13d. What is the preferred treatment?
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Explanation
13b 13c 13d The findings are consistent with Ewing's sarcoma. The radiographs reveal a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right fibula. There is elevation of the periosteum and evidence of a surrounding soft-tissue mass. The biopsy specimen shows diffuse small round blue cells surrounding the lamellar bone. It is the second most common malignant bone tumor in children. The most common treatment regimen consists of chemotherapy followed by surgical resection and/or radiation therapy. Surgical resection is employed when the lesion can be removed with wide margins and causes less morbidity than radiation therapy. McCarthy EF, Frassica FJ: Pathology of Bone and Joint Disorders with Clinical and Radiographic Correlation. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, p 258.
References:
  • Gibbs CP Jr, Weber K, Scarborough MT: Malignant bone tumors. Instr Course Lect 2002;51:413-428.
Question 16
A 16-year-old girl injured her hip in a fall. Radiographs are shown in Figures 14a and 14b. She denies any history of pain prior to the fall and is currently asymptomatic. A bone scan, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 14c through 14f. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
14b 14c 14d 14e 14f Although the classic radiographic appearance of fibrous dysplasia is one of a central metaphyseal lesion with ground glass matrix, it is not unusual to see either a more radiodense-appearing lesion or a more peripheral location. The histologic finding of spicules of woven bone without osteoblastic rimming in a bland fibrous background is diagnostic of fibrous dysplasia. The imaging studies could be consistent with low-grade osteosarcoma, osteoblastoma, or osteomyelitis, but all have a very different histologic picture. Observation is indicated in the absence of symptoms, impending fracture, or deformity. Fibrous dysplasia most commonly occurs in the proximal femur. Huvos AG: Bone Tumors: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 30-43.
References:
  • DiCaprio MR, Enneking WF: Fibrous dysplasia: Pathophysiology, evaluation, and treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1848-1864.
Question 17
A 54-year-old woman reports worsening pain in her buttock, especially when sitting for long periods of time. She has occasional pain and paresthesias radiating down her posterior leg. She has no significant medical history. MRI scans are shown in Figures 15a and 15b and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 15c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
15b 15c The biopsy specimen shows a wavy collagenous matrix with elongated cells; this is most consistent with neurofibroma. The patient has a mass in the region of the sciatic nerve. Imaging characteristics, homogeneous and very low signal on T1-weighted and very high signal on the T2-weighted sequences, are consistent with a myxoid-type lesion. These include myxoma, myxoid sarcomas, and nerve sheath tumors. Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 1135-1136
References:
  • Menendez LR: Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 251.
Question 18
It has been shown that bisphosphonate-based supportive therapy (pamidronate or zoledronate) reduces skeletal events (onset or progression of osteolytic lesions) both in patients with multiple myeloma and in cancer patients with bone metastasis. The use of biphosphonate therapy has been associated with
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Explanation
The use of bisphosphonates has been recently associated with the development of osteonecrosis of the jaw. Length of exposure seems to be the most important risk factor for this complication. The type of bisphosphonate may play a role and previous dental procedures may be a precipitating factor. Bisphosphonates are a class of therapeutic agents originally designed to treat loss of bone density (ie, alendronate). The primary mechanism of action of these drugs is inhibition of osteoclastic activity, and it has been shown that these drugs are useful in diseases with propensities toward osseous metastases. In particular, they are effective in diseases in which there is clear upregulation of osteoclastic or osteolytic activity, such as breast cancer and multiple myeloma, and have developed into a mainstay of treatment for individuals with these diseases. Although shown to reduce skeletal events, there has been no improvement in patient survival. Bamias A, Kastritis E, Bamia C, et al: Osteonecrosis of the jaw in cancer after treatment with bisphosphonates: Incidence and risk factors. J Clin Oncol 2005;23:8580-8587. Thakkar SG, Isada C, Smith J, et al: Jaw complications associated with bisphosphonate use in patients with plasma cell dyscrasias. Med Oncol 2006;23:51-56.
References:
  • Van Poznak C: The phenomenon of osteonecrosis of the jaw in patients with metastatic breast cancer. Cancer Invest 2006;24:110-112.
Question 19
A 12-year-old girl has had pain in her right knee for 1 month that started as activity-related and progressed to night pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 16a and 16b, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 16c. What is the recommended treatment?
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Explanation
16b 16c This is a classic appearance for an osteosarcoma. The radiographs reveal a mixed osteolytic and osteoblastic lesion in a skeletally immature patient in the distal right femoral metaphysis. The pain pattern with progressive symptoms leading to the presence of night pain is also typical for this condition. The biopsy specimen reveals pleomorphic cells and the presence of osteoid. The current standard of care in the treatment of osteosarcoma is neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection or amputation followed by additional postoperative chemotherapy. Osteosarcoma is not radiosensitive. Wold LE, Adler CP, Sim FH, et al: Atlas of Orthopedic Pathology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, p 179.
References:
  • McCarthy EF, Frassica FJ: Pathology of Bone and Joint Disorders with Clinical and Radiographic Correlation. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, p 205.
Question 20
A 6-year-old boy presents with a mass and a lucent lesion involving the tibial shaft as seen in Figure 17a. The mass is mildly tender to palpation. The bone scan is focally hot in the tibia. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 17b and 17c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
17b 17c Osteofibrous dysplasia frequently presents at a very young age, usually less than 10 years. In most patients, it involves the anterior cortex of the tibial shaft and minor anterior bowing of the tibia is frequently seen. The lesion is unpredictable in nature, but local recurrence is very high in patients who undergo surgery before 15 years of age. Campanacci M, Laus M: Osteofibrous dysplasia of the tibia and fibula. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:367-375.
References:
  • McCaffery M, Letts M, Carpenter B, et al: Osteofibrous dysplasia: A review of the literature and presentation of an additional 3 cases. Am J Orthop 2003;32:479-486.
Question 21
Figure 18a shows the clinical photograph of a 31-year-old man who has a slowly growing nodule on his right middle finger. It is minimally tender, and there is no erythema on examination. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 18b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
18b Epithelioid sarcoma is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma in the hand and most commonly occurs in young adults. The tumors can be superficial and may become ulcerated. Deeper lesions are often attached to tendons, tendon sheaths, or fascial structures. These are usually minimally symptomatic. The biopsy specimen reveals the typical appearance of a nodular pattern with central necrosis. They can mimic a necrotizing granulomatous process. Usually there are chronic inflammatory cells along the margin of the tumor nodules. This biopsy specimen does not have the clear cells necessary for a clear cell carcinoma or sarcoma. Nora's tumor is a bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (BPOP) first described in 1983 by the pathologist, Nora. The lesion is defined as a reactive heterotopic ossification and is mostly found in the hands or feet of adults in the third decade of life. Enzinger FM, Weiss SW: Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 3. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1995, p 1074.
References:
  • Halling AC, Wollan PC, Pritchard DJ, et al: Epithelioid sarcoma: A clinicopathologic review of 55 cases. Mayo Clin Proc 1996;71:636-642.
Question 22
A 17-year-old girl who initially presented as a child with multiple skeletal lesions, café-au-lait spots, and precocious puberty now has bone pain. A recent bone scan reveals multiple areas of increased scintigraphic uptake, including bilateral proximal femurs. A radiograph is shown in Figure 19. Besides activity modification, what is the next best line of treatment for decreasing her pain?
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Explanation
McCune-Albright syndrome is the combination of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait lesions, and endocrine dysfunction. The most common endocrine presentation is precocious development of secondary sexual characteristics. Compared with bone lesions in patients without polyostotic disease, the skeletal lesions in patients with the syndrome tend to be larger, more persistent, and associated with more complications. Bisphosphonate therapy has been shown in several studies to decrease the pain associated with the skeletal lesions of fibrous dysplasia. DiCaprio MR, Enneking WF: Fibrous dysplasia: Pathophysiology, evaluation and treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1848-1864.
References:
  • Zacharin M, O'Sullivan M: Intravenous pamidronate treatment of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia associated with McCune Albright syndrome. J Pediatr 2000;137:403-409.
Question 23
What are the four most common soft-tissue sarcomas to spread via the lymph node system?
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Explanation
Soft-tissue sarcomas most frequently metastasize to the lung, but certain histologic types have a predilection for the lymph node system as well. Rhabdomyosarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, and synovial sarcoma are four of the most common types to spread in this fashion. Careful evaluation and/or sentinel lymph node biopsy plays a role in disease staging and prognosis. Riad S, Griffin AM, Liberman B, et al: Lymph node metastasis in soft-tissue sarcoma in an extremity. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2004;426:129-134.
References:
  • Blazer DG III, Sabel MS, Sondak VK: Is there a role for sentinel lymph node biopsy in the management of sarcoma? Surg Oncol 2003;12:201-206.
Question 24
Figures 20a and 20b show the AP and lateral radiographs of a 62-year-old man who has had hip pain for the past 3 weeks. Figure 20c shows a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. A needle biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 20d. Preoperative management should include which of the following?
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Explanation
20b 20c 20d The histology shows findings consistent with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Renal cell carcinoma metastases are extremely vascular. Preoperative embolization helps minimize the amount of blood loss during curettage of these lesions. Chatziioannou AN, Johnson ME, Pneumaticos SG, et al: Preoperative embolization of bone metastases from renal cell carcinoma. Eur Radiol 2000;10:593-596.
References:
  • Sun S, Lang EV: Bone metastases from renal cell carcinoma: Preoperative embolization. J Vasc Interv Radiol 1998;9:263-269.
Question 25
A 15-year-old girl reports a 6-month history of activity-related knee pain and swelling. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 21a through 21c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation
21b 21c The epiphyseal location on the radiograph and MRI scan and the histologic findings of polyhedral cells separated by a chondroid matrix with pericellular, lattice-like "chicken wire" calcification all suggest chondroblastoma. Although giant cell tumors of bone typically occupy an epiphyseal location, they are rare in children and when present are often metaphyseal in skeletally immature patients. Enchondromas and osteoblastomas are generally metaphyseal and, along with giant cell tumors, have very different histology than seen here. Chondromyxoid fibromas are typically metaphyseal in location. Huvos AG: Bone Tumors: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 295-313.
References:
  • Lin PP, Thenappan A, Deavers MT, et al: Treatment and prognosis of chondroblastoma. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;438:103-109.

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