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Question 1801

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 70-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for massive rotator cuff tear arthropathy. The Grammont reverse design fundamentally alters the biomechanics of the glenohumeral joint to restore active forward elevation. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical change induced by the rTSA?

. Medializes and superiorly translates the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and superiorly translates the center of rotation
. Medializes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation
. Maintains the anatomic center of rotation but increases humeral offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medializes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation


Explanation

The traditional Grammont design of the reverse total shoulder arthroplasty medializes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint. This biomechanical alteration increases the moment arm (lever arm) of the deltoid muscle and recruits more of the anterior and posterior deltoid fibers, allowing the deltoid to act as the primary elevator of the shoulder in the absence of a functional rotator cuff.

Question 1802

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 10-year-old girl with a history of an obstetrical brachial plexus palsy has been referred for evaluation. Examination reveals a severe adduction internal rotation contracture of the shoulder and a mild flexion contracture of the elbow. Hand function is normal. Radiographs show mild glenohumeral joint incongruity. To achieve the best functional outcome, management should consist of

. physical therapy to stretch the tight structures.
. a humeral rotational osteotomy.
. anterior shoulder release and posterior muscle transfers.
. anterior shoulder release.
. shoulder fusion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a humeral rotational osteotomy.


Explanation

The patient has an upper plexus palsy (Erb palsy) with severe shoulder contracture. While physical therapy for stretching is the treatment of choice to prevent contracture in the newborn, it is unlikely to be of benefit in the older child with an established contracture. Contracture release alone or in combination with muscle transfers can improve the cosmetic appearance, and in the case of a mild deformity, may also improve function. These procedures are less likely to help when there is deformity of the shoulder joint or when arthritic changes are present. The procedure of choice for an older child with joint deformity is rotational osteotomy of the proximal humerus because it can improve cosmesis and function, even in the face of joint deformity. Jahnke AH Jr, Bovill DF, McCarroll HR Jr, James P, Ashley RK: Persistent brachial plexus birth palsies. J Pediatr Orthop 1991;11:533-537. Strecker WB, McAllister JW, Manske PR, Schoenecker PL, Dailey LA: Sever-L'Episcopo transfers in obstetrical palsy: A retrospective review of 20 cases. J Pediatr Orthop 1990;10:442-444.

Question 1803

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 57-year-old man involved in a motor vehicle accident sustains an injury to his right shoulder. A spot AP radiograph is shown in Figure 34. What is the next most appropriate step in the orthopaedic management of this patient?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 1 - Figure 68

. Axillary view
. CT of the shoulder
. Closed reduction
. Sling and close follow-up
. Functional brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary view


Explanation

The next step in the management of this injury is completion of the shoulder trauma series. An axillary radiograph, which can be quickly performed in the emergency department, must be obtained to accurately assess the humeral head relationship to the glenoid. If difficulty is encountered, a "Velpeau" axillary may be substituted. If that fails to elucidate the status of the glenohumeral joint, a CT scan should be obtained.

Question 1804

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old man who underwent an open capsulolabral stabilization procedure 15 years ago now reports pain and has no external rotation on the affected side. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals external rotation to -5 degrees compared with 50 degrees of external rotation on the contralateral side. Radiographs show a small inferior osteophyte and minimal posterior glenoid wear. Which of the following procedures will offer the best chance of restoring motion, decreasing pain, and preserving the native joint?

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 20) - Figure 60

. Arthroscopic removal of the osteophytes
. Arthroscopic debridement and acromioplasty
. Arthroscopic release of the posterior capsule
. Release of the rotator interval and anterior capsule
. Closed manipulation under anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Release of the rotator interval and anterior capsule


Explanation

Loss of external rotation following stabilization procedures can result in progressive degenerative joint disease. A tight anterior capsule results in posterior humeral translation and progressive posterior glenoid wear. Patients with early degenerative joint disease and pain can be treated with anterior release to restore more normal glenohumeral biomechanics. This procedure not only improves function but also decreases pain in most patients. Closed manipulation at 15 years after surgery is unlikely to be successful and carries the risk of complications. Acromioplasty, posterior release, and removal of osteophytes do not address the pathology. Arthroscopic releases are favored for intra-articular procedures that have addressed the pathology of instability. Open releases are recommended for nonanatomic extra-articular repairs that include subscapularis tightening procedures. MacDonald PB, Hawkins RJ, Fowler PJ, et al: Release of the subscapularis for internal rotation contracture and pain after anterior repair for recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:734-737.

Question 1805

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 59-year-old man reports moderate shoulder pain and very restricted range of motion after undergoing humeral arthroplasty for osteoarthritis 1 year ago. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 32. Management should now consist of

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 20) - Figure 85

. an aggressive program of stretching exercises.
. soft-tissue release and subscapularis lengthening.
. exchange of the modular humeral head to a smaller size, with glenoid arthroplasty.
. revision of the humeral component, re-cutting of the humeral neck, soft-tissue releases, and glenoid arthroplasty.
. glenohumeral arthrodesis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision of the humeral component, re-cutting of the humeral neck, soft-tissue releases, and glenoid arthroplasty.


Explanation

The radiograph reveals that an insufficient amount of the proximal humerus was excised in the index procedure, resulting in malalignment of the humeral component, overstuffing of the glenohumeral joint, and glenoid arthritis. It is unlikely that physical therapy or soft-tissue releases alone will be adequate. Revision of the humeral component, recutting of the proximal humerus to allow a more anatomic alignment of the humeral component, appropriate soft-tissue releases, and glenoid arthroplasty will offer the best chance of improvement in this difficult situation. Neer CS II, Kirby RM: Revision of humeral head and total shoulder arthroplasties. Clin Orthop 1982;170:189-195.

Question 1806

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher reports pain over the posterior aspect of his shoulder that occurs only during throwing. He notes that the discomfort is greatest during the late cocking and early acceleration phases. Examination reveals localized tenderness with palpation over the external rotators and posterior glenoid. Radiographs are shown in Figures 38a through 38c. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Fracture of the posterior glenoid
. Triceps insertion avulsion
. Calcific tendinitis
. Posterior glenoid exostosis
. Loose body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior glenoid exostosis


Explanation

The radiographs show a posterior glenoid osteophyte, often termed a "thrower's exostosis." These exostoses are best visualized on the Stryker notch view and may be missed on other more standard radiographic views of the shoulder. CT and MRI scans may be used, but usually add little information to the radiographic findings. Arthroscopic examination of patients with this condition commonly reveals undersurface tearing of the rotator cuff and posterior labrum. Treatment of this condition remains somewhat controversial, with avocation of both nonsurgical and surgical techniques. Meister K, Andrews JR, Batts J, Wilk K, Baumgarten T, Baumgartner T: Symptomatic thrower's exostosis: Arthroscopic evaluation and treatment. Am J Sports Med 1999;27:133-136. Ferrari JD, Ferrari DA, Coumas J, Pappas AM: Posterior ossification of the shoulder: The Bennett lesion. Etiology, diagnosis, and treatment. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:171-176.

Question 1807

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Figure 51 shows the radiograph of a 42-year-old construction worker who has pain and limited motion in his dominant elbow. Management consisting of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and cortisone has failed to provide relief. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 16) - Figure 43

. Unlinked elbow arthroplasty
. Linked elbow arthroplasty
. Interposition arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic or open debridement
. Radial head excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic or open debridement


Explanation

The patient has symptomatic primary osteoarthritis of the elbow with multiple loose bodies. Given his age and occupation, an elbow arthroplasty is not an option. Arthroscopic debridement and removal of loose bodies has been shown to be effective for osteoarthritis of the elbow. Gramstad GD, Galatz LM: Management of elbow osteoarthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:421-430.

Question 1808

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In Figure 2, which of the following structures is the primary stabilizer in preventing valgus instability of the elbow?

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 14) - Figure 14

. A
. B
. C
. D
. E

Correct Answer & Explanation

. B


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is the prime stabilizer of the medial aspect of the elbow and is indicated by "B" in the figure. When intact, this anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is a restraint to valgus instability of the elbow. The posterior bundle is regarded as a secondary stabilizer of the medial elbow (C). The transverse bundle (D), annular ligament (A), and biceps tendon (E) do not play a role in valgus stability of the elbow. Jobe F, Elattrache N: Diagnosis and treatment of ulnar collateral ligament injuries in athletes, in Morrey B (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, p 566.

Question 1809

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

An 8-year-old girl injures her elbow playing soccer. After attempted reduction in the emergency department, radiographs of the elbow are shown in Figures 35a through 35c. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?

. Cast immobilization for 2 weeks followed by early motion
. Minimal treatment for this congenital radial head dislocation
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Annular ligament reconstruction
. Attempt a repeat closed reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

Ninety percent of injuries to the proximal radius in children are radial neck fractures, and 50% of these fractures are through the metaphyseal bone. The remaining 50% are Salter-Harris type I or II fractures. These radiographs show a fracture of the radial head and subluxation of the radius anteriorly. Most congenital radial head dislocations are posterior lateral. Nonsurgical treatment modalities are unlikely to be successful due to the wide displacement of the fracture fragments, as well as dislocation of the radial head. Leung AG, Peterson HA: Fractures of the proximal radial head and neck in children with emphasis on those that involve the articular cartilage. J Pediatr Orthop 2000;20:7-14. Hashemi-Nejad A, Goddard NJ: Radial head fractures. Br J Hosp Med 1994;51:223-226.

Question 1810

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 20-year-old man sustained an injury to his arm during a tug-of-war contest. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 18. What is the most likely diagnosis?

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 12) - Figure 18

. Lipoma
. Proximal biceps rupture
. Distal biceps rupture
. Biceps and brachialis rupture
. Biceps brachii transection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps brachii transection


Explanation

The MRI scan reveals a transection of the biceps muscle. The underlying brachialis is intact. This injury can occur as a result of a cord wrapped around the upper arm. Care should be taken to ensure that there is no concurrent vascular injury. A posterior subcutaneous lipoma appears as a well-encapsulated mass on T2-weighted images. Heckman JD, Levine MI: Traumatic closed transection of the biceps brachii in the military parachutist. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1978;60:369-372.

Question 1811

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Acute redislocation of the glenohumeral joint is a complication that occurs following a first-time dislocation. This is most often seen with

. subglenoid dislocation.
. subcoracoid dislocation.
. fracture of the greater tuberosity.
. fracture of the greater tuberosity and glenoid rim.
. pediatric-age patients.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. fracture of the greater tuberosity and glenoid rim.


Explanation

Redislocation following acute dislocation occurs in approximately 3% of patients. This redislocation tends to occur in middle-aged and elderly patients. A higher incidence of redislocation occurs when there are accompanying fractures of the glenoid rim and the greater tuberosity. Robinson CM, Kelly M, Wakefield AE: Redislocation of the shoulder during the first six weeks after a primary anterior dislocation: Risk factors and results of treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1552-1559.

Question 1812

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling on an outstretched hand. She is diagnosed with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Operative management is planned. According to standard biomechanical principles, which of the following represents the optimal surgical sequence of repair for this injury pattern?

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair, coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement
. Radial head fixation/replacement, coronoid fixation, LCL repair
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) repair, LCL repair, radial head fixation
. Coronoid fixation, LCL repair, MCL repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair


Explanation

A terrible triad injury of the elbow consists of a posterior elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture. The standard surgical sequence works from deep to superficial and inside-out. The widely accepted sequence is 1) fixation of the coronoid fracture or anterior capsule to restore anterior stability, 2) repair or replacement of the radial head, and 3) repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex. MCL repair or hinged external fixation is only added if the elbow remains unstable after these three steps.

Question 1813

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 35-year-old woman sustains a 'floating shoulder' injury, defined by ipsilateral displaced fractures of the clavicle and the scapular neck. Which of the following represents the primary biomechanical rationale for open reduction and internal fixation of the clavicle in this injury pattern?
. To restore glenohumeral abduction strength
. To prevent atrophic nonunion of the scapular neck
. To re-establish the stability of the superior shoulder suspensory complex (SSSC)
. To decompress the underlying brachial plexus
. To minimize the risk of post-traumatic adhesive capsulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To re-establish the stability of the superior shoulder suspensory complex (SSSC)


Explanation

A 'floating shoulder' results from double disruption of the superior shoulder suspensory complex (SSSC). Fixation of the clavicle restores the strut function of the SSSC, stabilizing the complex and indirectly aligning the scapular neck fracture. This reduces the risk of malunion, drooping shoulder, and subsequent functional deficits.

Question 1814

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a high-speed collision and presents with massive soft tissue swelling over the left shoulder and a flail, insensate left upper extremity. Radiographs reveal lateral displacement of the scapula with widening of the acromioclavicular joint. Which of the following nerve injuries is most strongly associated with this specific injury pattern?

. Isolated axillary nerve neurapraxia
. Musculocutaneous nerve laceration
. Complete brachial plexus avulsion
. Spinal accessory nerve palsy
. Isolated suprascapular nerve entrapment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete brachial plexus avulsion


Explanation

The clinical presentation and radiographic findings describe scapulothoracic dissociation, a highly traumatic, limb-threatening injury. It is defined by the disruption of the scapulothoracic articulation with lateral displacement of the scapula. This injury is notorious for massive neurovascular compromise. Complete brachial plexus avulsion occurs in over 80% of these cases, frequently resulting in a permanent flail limb and commonly requiring above-elbow amputation. Subclavian/axillary vascular injuries are also frequently present.

Question 1815

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Operative management is planned. According to standard principles of surgical reconstruction for this specific injury, what is the recommended sequence of repair?

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL), radial head, coronoid
. Coronoid (and/or anterior capsule), radial head, lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
. Radial head, coronoid, LUCL
. LUCL, coronoid, radial head
. Radial head, LUCL, coronoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid (and/or anterior capsule), radial head, lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)


Explanation

The standard surgical approach to a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial. The recommended sequence is stabilization of the coronoid (or anterior capsule), followed by radial head repair or replacement, and finally repair of the LUCL complex.

Question 1816

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 42-year-old male sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow. Which of the following represents the most widely accepted surgical sequence for restoring stability?

. Radial head fixation, coronoid fixation, LCL repair
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
. LCL repair, radial head fixation, coronoid fixation
. Coronoid fixation, MCL repair, radial head replacement
. Radial head replacement, LCL repair, coronoid fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair


Explanation

The standard sequence for a terrible triad injury is coronoid fixation, followed by radial head repair or replacement, and finally lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair. This inside-out approach restores the anterior buttress before reconstructing the lateral column.

Question 1817

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

When surgically managing a 'Terrible Triad' injury of the elbow, what is the recommended standard sequence of repair to restore stability?

. Lateral collateral ligament repair, radial head fixation, coronoid fixation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation or replacement, lateral collateral ligament repair
. Medial collateral ligament repair, coronoid fixation, radial head replacement
. Radial head fixation, lateral collateral ligament repair, medial collateral ligament repair
. Coronoid fixation, medial collateral ligament repair, radial head replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation or replacement, lateral collateral ligament repair


Explanation

The standard algorithm for a Terrible Triad injury works deep to superficial and inside out: fix the coronoid first, then fix or replace the radial head, and finally repair the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The medial collateral ligament is only repaired if the elbow remains unstable after these steps.

Question 1818

Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A coronal shear fracture of the distal humerus involving the capitellum and the majority of the trochlea is classified as which of the following?
. Hahn-Steinthal (Type I)
. Kocher-Lorenz (Type II)
. Broberg-Morrey (Type III)
. McKee modification (Type IV)
. Jupiter Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. McKee modification (Type IV)


Explanation

In the Bryan and Morrey classification of capitellum fractures, a Type IV (added by McKee) represents a coronal shear fracture that extends medially to include the capitellum and the majority of the trochlea. This pattern often requires an expansile surgical approach for adequate fixation.

Question 1819

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old man sustains an acute Essex-Lopresti injury with a highly comminuted, unsalvageable radial head. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Radial head excision and casting in supination
. Radial head replacement and pinning of the distal radioulnar joint
. Silicone radial head arthroplasty and early active motion
. Forearm both-bone plating with distal radioulnar joint excision
. Primary radial head excision and Darrach procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial head replacement and pinning of the distal radioulnar joint


Explanation

An Essex-Lopresti injury involves a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane tear, and DRUJ disruption. Radial head excision alone leads to proximal radial migration; therefore, a rigid metallic radial head arthroplasty and DRUJ stabilization are required to prevent longitudinal radioulnar dissociation.

Question 1820

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old male sustains a terrible triad injury to the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, what is the most appropriate sequence of repair to restore elbow stability?

. Repair MCL, then radial head, then LCL
. Fix or replace radial head, repair LCL, then repair coronoid
. Repair coronoid, fix or replace radial head, then repair LCL
. Repair LCL, repair coronoid, then fix radial head
. Fix radial head, repair MCL, then repair coronoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Repair coronoid, fix or replace radial head, then repair LCL


Explanation

The standard sequence for terrible triad reconstruction is 'inside-out': coronoid fixation, radial head fixation or replacement, followed by LCL repair. The MCL is typically only repaired if the elbow remains grossly unstable after the primary three structures are addressed.