This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1441
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old female presents with chronic shoulder pain and limited active elevation. Radiographs show an acromiohumeral distance (AHD) of 3 mm and characteristic 'acetabularization' of the acromion. There is no evidence of glenohumeral joint space narrowing. According to the Hamada classification for cuff tear arthropathy, what grade is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Grade 3
Explanation
The Hamada classification describes the radiographic progression of massive rotator cuff tears. Grade 1: AHD > 6 mm. Grade 2: AHD < 5 mm. Grade 3: AHD < 5 mm with 'acetabularization' of the acromion (concave remodeling). Grade 4: Glenohumeral arthritis (loss of articular cartilage). Grade 5: Humeral head collapse/osteonecrosis.
Question 1442
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 55-year-old female with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes presents with insidious onset of profound shoulder stiffness and pain. She is diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder). Histological and biochemical analysis of the capsule in this condition is most likely to show an upregulation of which of the following cytokines?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-b) and Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
Explanation
Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by chronic inflammation and severe fibrosis of the joint capsule. Histologically, it resembles Dupuytren's disease, showing dense fibroblastic proliferation. This fibrotic cascade is driven heavily by pro-fibrotic cytokines, particularly Transforming Growth Factor-beta (TGF-b) and Platelet-Derived Growth Factor (PDGF).
Question 1443
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 75-year-old female undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for a severely displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Compared to a hemiarthroplasty performed for the same indication, RTSA provides which primary functional advantage?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. More reliable active forward elevation independent of tuberosity healing
Explanation
In elderly patients with complex proximal humerus fractures, hemiarthroplasty outcomes are heavily dependent on tuberosity healing; failure of tuberosities to heal leads to pseudoparalysis. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) relies on the deltoid for forward elevation and is biomechanically independent of tuberosity healing, providing more predictable pain relief and active forward elevation, although tuberosity repair is still attempted to improve external rotation.
Question 1444
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old male presents with shoulder weakness and a dull ache following a severe blunt trauma to the base of his posterior neck during a wrestling match. Physical examination reveals a drooping shoulder and lateral winging of the scapula that worsens with shoulder abduction. The winged scapula is translated laterally and superiorly. Injury to which nerve is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal accessory nerve
Explanation
Lateral winging of the scapula, accompanied by a drooping shoulder, is the hallmark of trapezius muscle paralysis, which is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI). This contrasts with medial winging of the scapula, which is caused by serratus anterior paralysis (long thoracic nerve injury) and is classically accentuated by asking the patient to push against a wall.
Question 1445
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 25-year-old baseball pitcher undergoes shoulder arthroscopy for chronic shoulder pain. He is diagnosed with a Type II SLAP (superior labrum anterior to posterior) tear. What is the defining anatomical characteristic of a Type II SLAP lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Detachment of the superior labrum and the origin of the long head of the biceps tendon from the superior glenoid
Explanation
Snyder classification of SLAP tears: Type I is degenerative fraying with an intact biceps anchor. Type II is detachment of the superior labrum and the biceps anchor from the superior glenoid (most common, often requires repair or tenodesis). Type III is a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum with an intact biceps anchor. Type IV is a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum that extends into the long head of the biceps tendon.
Question 1446
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 70-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for cuff tear arthropathy. At her 2-year follow-up, radiographs show a Grade 2 scapular notching. Which of the following surgical design factors or techniques is most effective in minimizing the risk of scapular notching in rTSA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior tilt and placement of the glenosphere
Explanation
Scapular notching is a common complication of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the inferior scapular neck during arm adduction. Inferior placement of the baseplate with an inferior tilt, lateralization of the center of rotation, and using a larger glenosphere can help minimize this impingement.
Question 1447
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 30-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' in his anterior shoulder while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals a loss of the anterior axillary fold. When a pectoralis major rupture occurs, which of the following describes the most common pathoanatomic failure pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sternal head rupturing from its insertion, which lies proximal and deep to the clavicular head
Explanation
The pectoralis major tendon undergoes a 180-degree twist before inserting onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. The sternal head twists to insert proximal and deep to the clavicular head. During eccentric loading with the arm extended and externally rotated (e.g., bench press), the deep sternal head is under maximal tension and is typically the first or only part to rupture.
Question 1448
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher undergoes an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction. Which bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing, and is the primary structure reconstructed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow. It is subdivided into the anterior and posterior bands. The anterior band of the anterior bundle is taut in extension and up to 90 degrees of flexion, making it the primary stabilizer during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of pitching. It is the target for reconstruction.
Question 1449
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 13-year-old male baseball pitcher complains of lateral elbow pain. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent lesion with a sclerotic margin on the capitellum, and MRI demonstrates a detached osteochondral fragment. He has open physes. Which of the following most accurately differentiates osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum from Panner's disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Panner's disease typically occurs in children under 10 and affects the entire capitellum without loose body formation
Explanation
Panner's disease is a self-limiting osteochondrosis of the capitellum that affects younger children (typically ages 7-10), involves the entire ossific nucleus, and rarely produces loose bodies. Capitellar OCD affects older adolescents (typically ages 12-15) involved in repetitive overhead sports, creates focal osteochondral defects, frequently results in loose bodies, and often requires surgery if unstable.
Question 1450
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher undergoes evaluation for medial elbow pain and a positive moving valgus stress test. The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at what degrees of elbow flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30 to 120 degrees
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. Clinical testing is optimally performed at 30 degrees of flexion to unlock the olecranon from its fossa and isolate the anterior bundle.
Question 1451
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 36-year-old woman dislocated her elbow 6 months ago. The elbow was congruently reduced and rehabilitated. She continues to have a sense of painful clunking in her elbow when she pushes up from a chair with forearm supination, but not pronation. What structure did not heal properly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligamentThe patient is showing signs of posterolateral rotatory instability after elbow dislocation. The lateral ulnar collateral ligament is responsible for stabilizing the elbow against this type of instability. The posterior and anterior bands of the medial collateral ligament are primarily resistors of valgus load, with the anterior band being the most significant contributor. The radial collateral ligament does not control the posterolateral rotatory instability described.
Explanation
A 36-year-old right-hand dominant butcher presents with a 6-week history of medial elbow pain. On physical examination, she is tender to palpation over the anteroinferior aspect of the medial epicondyle. Pain is reproduced with combined elbow extension/resisted wrist flexion. Nonsurgical treatment of this pathology results in pain relief within one year in what percentage of individuals?A. 25% to 35%B. 45% to 55%C. 65% to 75%D. 85% to 95%The patient has medial epicondylitis. Nonsurgical treatment is the hallmark of treatment and has been shown to relieve pain in approximately 90% of cases within one year. Nonsurgical modalities include bracing, physical therapy, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications, activity modification, and injections.
Question 1452
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old man sustained a mid-shaft humerus fracture resulting in a high radial nerve palsy that has shown no clinical or electromyographic signs of recovery at 12 months. In a standard set of tendon transfers (such as the Jones transfer) designed to restore hand and wrist function, which donor tendon is classically transferred to restore wrist extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres (PT)
Explanation
In a patient with a permanent high radial nerve palsy, tendon transfers are required to restore wrist extension, finger extension, and thumb extension. The classic transfer to restore wrist extension is the transfer of the Pronator Teres (PT) to the Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB). ECRB is chosen over ECRL to avoid radial deviation with extension. Finger extension is typically restored using either the FCU or FCR transferred to the Extensor Digitorum Communis (EDC). Thumb extension is restored by transferring the Palmaris Longus (PL) to the Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL).
Question 1453
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In the standard flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon transfer utilized for a high radial nerve palsy, which muscle is typically transferred to the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) to restore thumb extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor carpi radialis
Explanation
In the classic FCR tendon transfer for radial nerve palsy, the pronator teres is transferred to the ECRB, the FCR is transferred to the EDC, and the palmaris longus is transferred to the EPL.
Question 1454
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient with an isolated, irreparable high radial nerve palsy requires tendon transfers to restore wrist extension, finger extension, and thumb extension. Which of the following is the most standard and reliable donor muscle to restore wrist extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres (PT)
Explanation
The pronator teres (PT) is the most reliable and universally used donor muscle for transfer to the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) to restore wrist extension in radial nerve palsy. It has excellent excursion and synergistic function.
Question 1455
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
During exploration of a brachial plexus injury 5 months post-trauma, a neuroma-in-continuity is identified at the upper trunk. Intraoperative nerve stimulation across the neuroma yields a reproducible nerve action potential (NAP). What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Epineurial neurolysis and observation
Explanation
A positive nerve action potential (NAP) across a neuroma-in-continuity indicates that functionally significant axonal regeneration is occurring. The correct management is careful neurolysis, leaving the nerve intact to allow continued recovery.
Question 1456
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
In brachial plexus reconstruction for a complete C5-C6 root avulsion, transferring the distal spinal accessory nerve to the suprascapular nerve is considered. Which of the following muscles must have confirmed, robust baseline function prior to sacrificing the distal spinal accessory nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Trapezius
Explanation
The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius. Before transferring it, the surgeon must verify that trapezius function is sufficient to prevent debilitating shoulder drop, though usually only the distal portion is transferred to spare upper trapezius fibers.
Question 1457
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In a patient with a chronic, irreversible radial nerve palsy, a standard tendon transfer procedure is planned to restore functional wrist and digit extension. To restore wrist extension, which of the following donor-recipient tendon transfers is most commonly utilized?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres to Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
Explanation
The standard set of tendon transfers for a high radial nerve palsy includes: 1) Pronator teres (PT) to Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) to restore wrist extension; 2) Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) or Flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) to Extensor digitorum communis (EDC) to restore finger extension; and 3) Palmaris longus (PL) to Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) to restore thumb extension. The ECRB is chosen over the ECRL for wrist extension because its central insertion at the base of the third metacarpal minimizes radial deviation during active wrist extension.
Question 1458
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A surgeon plans to use a 1,2 intercompartmental supraretinacular artery (1,2 ICSRA) vascularized bone graft for a scaphoid nonunion. During the dissection, the pedicle must be identified between the first and second dorsal extensor compartments. Which of the following pairs of tendons correctly defines the anatomic borders of these two compartments?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus
Explanation
The 1,2 ICSRA runs longitudinally along the dorsal retinaculum between the 1st and 2nd extensor compartments. The 1st compartment contains the Abductor Pollicis Longus (APL) and Extensor Pollicis Brevis (EPB). The 2nd compartment contains the Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus (ECRL) and Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB). Therefore, the interval is directly between the EPB (ulnar border of the 1st compartment) and ECRL (radial border of the 2nd compartment).
Question 1459
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient with a high radial nerve palsy requires tendon transfers to restore wrist, finger, and thumb extension. To restore wrist extension, the Pronator Teres (PT) is most commonly transferred to the Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB) rather than the Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus (ECRL). What is the primary biomechanical rationale for selecting the ECRB?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transfer to the ECRL produces excessive radial deviation during extension
Explanation
The Pronator Teres (PT) is the standard transfer to restore wrist extension in radial nerve palsy. It is transferred to the ECRB rather than the ECRL because the ECRB inserts more centrally at the base of the third metacarpal. Transferring to the ECRL (which inserts on the second metacarpal) would result in a functionally limiting supination and excessive radial deviation moment during wrist extension.
Question 1460
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, moving the center of rotation medially and distally compared to the native shoulder achieves which of the following biomechanical outcomes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increases the deltoid moment arm and decreases torque on the glenoid component
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty fundamentally alters shoulder biomechanics by medializing and distalizing the center of rotation. Medialization reduces torque and shear forces on the glenoid baseplate, minimizing the risk of aseptic loosening. Distalization of the humerus increases the resting tension and moment arm of the deltoid muscle, which is critical for restoring active elevation in the absence of a functional rotator cuff.
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