This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1381
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 72-year-old woman returns for a 3-year follow-up after a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Radiographs show a radiolucent area on the scapular neck that extends past the inferior screw of the baseplate but does not reach the central peg. Which Sirveaux grade of scapular notching does this represent, and what baseplate positioning strategy could have minimized this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Grade 3; Inferior overhang of the glenosphere
Explanation
Sirveaux Grade 3 notching extends beyond the inferior screw to the central peg. Grade 1 involves just the inferior pillar, Grade 2 reaches the inferior screw, and Grade 4 extends past the central peg. Scapular notching is caused by impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck. It can be minimized by inferior placement of the baseplate, allowing for inferior overhang of the glenosphere, and a neutral or inferior tilt.
Question 1382
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 68-year-old man with primary osteoarthritis is planned for an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Preoperative CT reveals a Walch B2 glenoid with 25 degrees of retroversion and posterior humeral head subluxation. What is the primary concern with performing a standard anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty with asymmetric anterior glenoid reaming to correct the version?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive removal of the subchondral bone leading to glenoid component subsidence and loosening
Explanation
A Walch B2 glenoid features biconcave wear with posterior subluxation and high retroversion. Attempting to correct retroversion >15 degrees by anterior eccentric reaming requires removing significant amounts of strong anterior subchondral bone, exposing weaker cancellous bone. This drastically increases the risk of glenoid component subsidence, 'rocking horse' loosening, and early failure. Augmented glenoids or RTSA are preferred.
Question 1383
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 52-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with insidious onset of progressive shoulder stiffness and pain. She is diagnosed with idiopathic adhesive capsulitis in the 'freezing' stage. Histopathologic and biochemical evaluation of her glenohumeral capsule is most likely to reveal which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proliferation of fibroblasts with elevated levels of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)
Explanation
Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by chronic inflammation and capsular fibrosis. Histologically, there is a dense proliferation of fibroblasts and type III collagen deposition in the joint capsule, particularly the coracohumeral ligament and rotator interval. This fibrotic process is driven by inflammatory cytokines, most notably elevated levels of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF).
Question 1384
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old male presents with chronic right shoulder pain, pseudoparalysis of elevation, and a positive Hornblower's sign. He has an absent active external rotation in adduction. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty with latissimus dorsi transfer
Explanation
A positive Hornblower's sign indicates advanced teres minor dysfunction. For patients with combined loss of active elevation and external rotation (CLEER) and an incompetent teres minor, a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty combined with a latissimus dorsi transfer is indicated to restore function.
Question 1385
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 35-year-old male complains of a prominent right shoulder blade after heavy weightlifting. Examination demonstrates lateral winging of the scapula that worsens with resisted active abduction. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal accessory nerve
Explanation
Lateral winging of the scapula is caused by trapezius muscle paralysis due to spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) injury. In contrast, injury to the long thoracic nerve causes medial winging due to serratus anterior paralysis.
Question 1386
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In a patient undergoing a primary reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) utilizing a classic Grammont-style prosthesis, how is the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint altered compared to its native anatomical position to improve the biomechanical advantage of the deltoid muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medialized and distalized
Explanation
The classic Grammont design for reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) operates by medializing and distalizing the center of rotation of the shoulder joint. This structural shift recruits more fibers of the deltoid (specifically the anterior and posterior heads) and significantly increases its moment arm, allowing the deltoid to effectively substitute for a deficient rotator cuff in elevating the arm.
Question 1387
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
By which primary biomechanical mechanism does a Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) restore active forward elevation in a patient with severe rotator cuff arthropathy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medializing the center of rotation and lengthening the deltoid moment arm
Explanation
The classic Grammont reverse total shoulder arthroplasty design functions by medializing and distalizing the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint. Medialization recruits more anterior and posterior deltoid fibers to assist in forward elevation, while distalization tensions the deltoid muscle, increasing its moment arm. This allows the deltoid to effectively compensate for the deficient rotator cuff.
Question 1388
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 76-year-old female sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Radiographs demonstrate a disrupted medial calcar hinge with 3 mm of medial metaphyseal extension on the head fragment. She has pre-existing advanced rotator cuff arthropathy. What is the treatment of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) is the treatment of choice for elderly patients with complex 4-part proximal humerus fractures, disrupted medial hinges (high risk of avascular necrosis), and pre-existing rotator cuff dysfunction. rTSA relies on the deltoid for function and provides reliable pain relief and forward elevation.
Question 1389
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In a 72-year-old patient with a 4-part proximal humerus fracture undergoing reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, the tuberosities are repaired around the prosthesis. Which factor is most critical for tuberosity healing and optimizing postoperative external rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anatomic restoration of humeral length and retrotorsion
Explanation
Anatomic restoration of humeral height and retrotorsion tension the rotator cuff properly. This prevents excessive stress on the repair, optimizing tuberosity healing and subsequent external rotation.
Question 1390
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
When preparing the glenoid for an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty, a surgeon notes a Walch B2 morphology. What defines a B2 glenoid, and what is the primary risk if it is not corrected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biconcave shape with posterior wear leading to posterior subluxation
Explanation
A Walch B2 glenoid features a biconcave surface and posterior bone loss with retroversion. Uncorrected B2 wear leads to eccentric edge-loading, posterior subluxation, and early glenoid component loosening.
Question 1391
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 55-year-old active laborer presents with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Physical examination reveals an inability to actively externally rotate the shoulder with the arm adducted and a positive Hornblower's sign. Radiographs show minimal glenohumeral arthritis. Which of the following tendon transfers is biomechanically superior for restoring active external rotation in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower trapezius transfer
Explanation
The lower trapezius transfer is biomechanically superior for restoring external rotation compared to the latissimus dorsi. The line of pull of the lower trapezius closely replicates that of the native infraspinatus. It is highly indicated for patients with profound external rotation deficits (positive Hornblower's sign or drop sign) and irreparable posterosuperior cuff tears without advanced arthropathy.
Question 1392
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During the surgical management of a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture), which of the following represents the generally recommended sequence of structural reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
Explanation
The standard surgical approach for a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial and typically from anterior/medial to lateral. The recommended sequence is first addressing the coronoid fracture (to restore the anterior buttress), followed by the radial head (fixation or arthroplasty to restore the lateral column), and finally repairing the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex to the lateral epicondyle to restore rotatory stability.
Question 1393
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction in an overhead throwing athlete, accurate tunnel placement is crucial to recreate the anterior bundle of the UCL. What are the correct anatomical landmarks for the origin and insertion of the anterior bundle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anteroinferior aspect of the medial epicondyle to the sublime tubercle
Explanation
The anterior bundle is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. It originates on the anteroinferior surface of the medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle, which is located on the medial aspect of the base of the coronoid process. Recreating these specific footprints is critical for isometric graft function during UCL reconstruction.
Question 1394
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 68-year-old male with massive rotator cuff tear arthropathy presents with an inability to actively elevate his arm and severe external rotation weakness. On physical examination, he has a positive Hornblower's sign and an external rotation lag sign. He is planned for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Which of the following is the most appropriate concurrent procedure to optimize his postoperative function?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi/teres major tendon transfer
Explanation
A positive Hornblower's sign indicates severe teres minor deficiency. In the setting of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for pseudoparalysis, an associated latissimus dorsi/teres major transfer (L'Episcopo) is indicated to restore active external rotation.
Question 1395
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 40-year-old male sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow following a fall on an outstretched hand. During operative intervention, what is the most widely accepted standard surgical sequence for reconstruction to restore elbow stability?
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial and medial to lateral: coronoid fixation first, followed by radial head repair or arthroplasty, and finally LCL complex repair. This sequence provides a logical progression to restore concentric stability of the elbow.
Question 1396
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old female presents with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Intraoperatively, the surgeon sequentially repairs the coronoid process, the radial head, and the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). Upon testing, the elbow remains persistently unstable in full extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repair of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) or application of a hinged external fixator
Explanation
In the terrible triad of the elbow, the standard surgical sequence is repair of the coronoid, radial head, and LUCL. If the elbow remains unstable in extension after these steps, the MCL should be repaired or a hinged external fixator applied.
Question 1397
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 75-year-old female with a complex 4-part proximal humerus fracture undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Which specific technical factor during glenoid component placement most significantly decreases the risk of postoperative scapular notching?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior placement of the baseplate with lateralization of the glenosphere
Explanation
Scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty can be minimized by inferior positioning of the baseplate and lateralization of the glenosphere. This improves the impingement-free range of motion during shoulder adduction.
Question 1398
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which of the following surgical techniques is most effective in minimizing the risk of scapular notching during a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere
Explanation
Scapular notching is a common complication in reverse shoulder arthroplasty caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere are the most reliable techniques to prevent this impingement.
Question 1399
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, after fixation of the coronoid and radial head arthroplasty, the elbow remains persistently unstable in extension. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) to the lateral epicondyle
Explanation
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury includes fixing the coronoid, restoring the radial head, and repairing the LUCL. If instability persists after addressing the anterior osseous structures, the LUCL must be repaired to the lateral epicondyle to restore lateral stability.
Question 1400
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 22-year-old collegiate pitcher is diagnosed with true neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS). In this condition, the compression typically involves a cervical rib or fibrous band compressing which specific component of the brachial plexus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower trunk
Explanation
True neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome is rare and usually involves compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8 and T1 roots) by a cervical rib or tight fibrous band, leading to intrinsic hand weakness and sensory symptoms.
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