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Question 1261

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis



In reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, placing the glenosphere with an inferior tilt rather than neutral or superior tilt achieves which of the following biomechanical advantages?

. Decreases the moment arm of the deltoid
. Increases the risk of scapular notching
. Decreases inferior shear forces on the baseplate
. Increases superior shear forces on the baseplate
. Reduces the impingement-free range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreases inferior shear forces on the baseplate


Explanation

Inferior tilt of the glenosphere in RTSA converts deleterious superior shear forces into compressive forces, improving baseplate fixation. It also helps decrease the rate of inferior scapular notching by providing better clearance.

Question 1262

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

What is the average version of the humeral head (with respect to the transepicondylar axis)? Review Topic

. 60 degrees retroversion
. 40 degrees retroversion
. 20 degrees retroversion
. 20 degrees anteversion
. 40 degrees anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 degrees retroversion


Explanation

Although there is considerable variability in humeral head retroversion among individuals, multiple anatomic studies have found mean humeral head retroversion to be approximately 20 degrees.One of the goals of primary anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) is recreation and reconstruction of proximal humeral anatomy. Modular prostheses have evolved to provide surgeons with better capability to recreate proximal humeral morphology based on humeral head inclination, retroversion, offset, height and size. In terms of size, humeral head thickness has been found in cadaver studies to be 70% of its radius of curvature. This can be helpful to avoid 'over-stuffing' the joint or leaving it too loose.Boileau and Walch took digitized measurements of 65 humeri in order to create a computer model for proximal humeral morphology. They found that retroversion varied from -6.7 to 47.5 degrees, with a mean of 17.9. They advocate for prosthetic adaptability to recreate proximal humeral anatomy in a way that earlier generations of more geometrically constrained TSA implants could not.Robertson et al. made 3D computed tomographic models of 60 humeri (30 pairs) to study proximal humeral morphology. They found mean retroversion to be 19 degrees, with a range of 9 to 31 degrees. They found that proximal canal version was similar to head version but that canal version in the middle and distal sections of the canal was variable.Illustration A shows key proximal humeral morphologic parameters found by Robertson et al. in comparison with earlier studies (including Boileau's).Incorrect Answers:

Question 1263

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old female presents after a fall on an outstretched hand. Imaging reveals a terrible triad injury of the elbow.

During surgical intervention, what is the most widely accepted sequence of repair to restore elbow stability?

. LCL repair, radial head fixation/replacement, coronoid fixation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
. Radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair, coronoid fixation
. MCL repair, coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement
. Coronoid fixation, LCL repair, radial head fixation/replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair


Explanation

The terrible triad of the elbow consists of an elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid fracture. The standard surgical sequence to restore stability from deep to superficial (inside-out) is: 1) Fixation or reconstruction of the coronoid (to restore the anterior buttress), 2) Fixation or replacement of the radial head (to restore the anterior and valgus buttress), and 3) Repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex to the lateral epicondyle. MCL repair is only considered if the elbow remains unstable after these steps and application of a hinged external fixator is not preferred.

Question 1264

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old male with severe rotator cuff tear arthropathy undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA). How does the rTSA implant alter the biomechanics of the shoulder joint compared to the native anatomy?

. Medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation
. Medializes and superiorizes the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and inferiorizes the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and superiorizes the center of rotation
. Maintains the anatomic center of rotation but increases the deltoid lever arm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (Grammont design) biomechanically alters the shoulder by medializing and inferiorizing the center of rotation. Medialization recruits more deltoid muscle fibers and decreases the torque on the glenoid component, while inferiorization tensions the deltoid and increases its moment arm, allowing the deltoid to compensate for the deficient rotator cuff to elevate the arm.

Question 1265

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old male suffers a distal biceps tendon rupture and undergoes surgical repair via a two-incision technique. Compared to the single anterior incision technique, the two-incision approach is associated with a higher risk of which of the following complications?

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve neuropraxia
. Posterior interosseous nerve injury
. Radioulnar synostosis
. Re-rupture of the biceps tendon
. Superficial radial nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radioulnar synostosis


Explanation

The two-incision technique for distal biceps repair was developed to avoid the radial nerve (PIN) injuries sometimes seen with the single-incision approach. However, the two-incision technique carries a significantly higher risk of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis due to muscle splitting and subperiosteal dissection near the ulna. Conversely, the single anterior incision approach has a higher risk of lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) neurapraxia.

Question 1266

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 27-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Clinical examination and MRI confirm an isolated tear of the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). Which band of the anterior bundle is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 30 to 120 degrees of elbow flexion?

. Anterior band
. Posterior band
. Transverse band
. Oblique band
. Central band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band


Explanation

The ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) anterior bundle is the primary restraint to valgus stress. It is subdivided into the anterior and posterior bands. The anterior band is taut in extension and up to 90-120 degrees of flexion, serving as the primary restraint throughout the typical functional arc. The posterior band becomes taut only in deeper flexion (greater than 90 degrees).

Question 1267

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand and sustains the injury shown in the radiograph.

During surgical reconstruction of this "terrible triad" of the elbow, the surgeon systematically addresses the structures. Following fixation of the coronoid process, management of the radial head, and repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex, the elbow remains unstable in extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Perform a radiocapitellar cross-pinning
. Apply a static external fixator in 90 degrees of flexion
. Repair the medial collateral ligament (MCL) complex
. Resect the radial head to decompress the joint
. Perform an olecranon osteotomy to assess articular congruity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perform a radiocapitellar cross-pinning


Explanation

The standard protocol for treating terrible triad injuries of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) involves a sequential approach: 1) Restore the anterior buttress via coronoid fixation or anterior capsular repair; 2) Restore the lateral column via radial head fixation or arthroplasty; 3) Repair the LCL complex to its isometric footprint on the lateral epicondyle. If the elbow remains unstable (subluxates or dislocates in extension) after these three steps are successfully completed, the next appropriate step is to repair the MCL complex. If instability persists even after MCL repair, a hinged external fixator is applied.

Question 1268

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 28-year-old professional weightlifter presents with a dull, aching pain in his right posterior shoulder and neck. On examination, there is pronounced lateral winging of the scapula, which is exacerbated during resisted external rotation and shoulder abduction. He recently had a minor lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of his neck. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause of his scapular winging?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Lateral winging of the scapula is caused by trapezius muscle dysfunction, which is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI). This nerve is highly vulnerable to iatrogenic injury during procedures in the posterior triangle of the neck (such as lymph node biopsy). Medial winging of the scapula is caused by serratus anterior dysfunction due to long thoracic nerve injury.

Question 1269

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 6-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after falling from monkey bars. Radiographs reveal a plastic deformation of the ulnar shaft and an anterior dislocation of the radial head. This corresponds to a Bado Type I Monteggia equivalent lesion.

What is the most appropriate initial management for this injury?

. Open reduction of the radial head followed by a long arm cast
. Rigid plate osteosynthesis of the ulna followed by observation of the radial head
. Closed reduction of the ulnar deformity, which typically reduces the radial head, followed by casting
. Annular ligament reconstruction using the palmaris longus
. Immediate radial head excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction of the ulnar deformity, which typically reduces the radial head, followed by casting


Explanation

A Monteggia fracture-dislocation in a pediatric patient (including equivalent lesions with ulnar plastic deformation) is fundamentally an injury driven by the ulnar deformity. The appropriate initial management is closed reduction to correct the ulnar bowing/angulation. Once the anatomic length and alignment of the ulna are restored, the radial head almost always reduces spontaneously into its anatomic position. Immobilization in a long arm cast (usually in supination for anterior/Type I lesions) is then performed. Open reduction or ulnar osteotomy is reserved for cases where closed reduction fails to restore ulnar alignment or reduce the radial head.

Question 1270

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 75-year-old female sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Given her poor bone quality and fracture complexity, she undergoes a Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA). During the procedure, the tuberosities are repaired to the shaft and the prosthesis. Healing of which of the following structures is most strongly associated with improved external rotation and higher overall patient-reported functional outcome scores?

. Lesser tuberosity
. Greater tuberosity
. Subscapularis tendon only
. Long head of the biceps
. Coracoacromial ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater tuberosity


Explanation

In the setting of a Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA) performed for a proximal humerus fracture, healing of the greater tuberosity is strongly correlated with significantly improved clinical outcomes, particularly active external rotation, forward elevation, and subjective functional scores. The infraspinatus and teres minor (attached to the greater tuberosity) provide the necessary external rotation capability in a reverse shoulder construct, which lacks an anatomic rotator cuff.

Question 1271

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old male complains of a painful "clunk" and giving way of his right elbow when he pushes himself out of a chair with his arms. A lateral pivot-shift test of the elbow reproduces his symptoms. This condition is primarily caused by insufficiency of a specific ligamentous structure. What is the normal anatomic origin and insertion of the deficient ligament?

. Originates on the lateral epicondyle; inserts onto the annular ligament only
. Originates on the lateral epicondyle; inserts onto the supinator crest of the ulna
. Originates on the medial epicondyle; inserts onto the sublime tubercle of the ulna
. Originates on the radial notch of the ulna; inserts onto the radial neck
. Originates on the lateral epicondyle; inserts onto the anteromedial facet of the coronoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Originates on the lateral epicondyle; inserts onto the supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

The patient is presenting with posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. PLRI is caused by insufficiency of the Lateral Ulnar Collateral Ligament (LUCL). The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, blends with the fibers of the annular ligament, and inserts onto the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. It acts as the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory subluxation of the radial head relative to the capitellum.

Question 1272

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 35-year-old weightlifter undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for a distal biceps tendon rupture repair using suture anchors. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness and tingling over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what structure does it pierce to become superficial?

. Posterior interosseous nerve; supinator muscle
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve; biceps brachii fascia
. Superficial radial nerve; brachioradialis fascia
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve; basilic vein
. Musculocutaneous nerve; coracobrachialis muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve; biceps brachii fascia


Explanation

Numbness over the lateral forearm indicates injury to the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN), which is the terminal sensory branch of the musculocutaneous nerve. It emerges lateral to the biceps tendon, piercing the deep fascia just proximal to the elbow crease, and is highly susceptible to traction or iatrogenic injury during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps.

Question 1273

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old woman falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow.

Which of the following describes the most universally accepted sequence of intraoperative repair for this injury?

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
. Radial head fixation/replacement, coronoid fixation, LCL repair
. LCL repair, radial head fixation/replacement, coronoid fixation
. MCL repair, coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
. Coronoid fixation, LCL repair, radial head fixation/replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair


Explanation

The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) typically proceeds from deep to superficial: 1. Fixation of the coronoid fracture (or anterior capsule repair). 2. Fixation or replacement of the radial head. 3. Repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex to the lateral epicondyle. If the elbow remains unstable after these steps, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) may be repaired or an external fixator applied.

Question 1274

Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and sustains a shear fracture of the distal humerus articular surface. Radiographs reveal a fracture involving the capitellum and the lateral half of the trochlea, with a large piece of subchondral bone attached. According to the Bryan and Morrey classification, what type of fracture is this?
. Type I (Hahn-Steinthal)
. Type II (Kocher-Lorenz)
. Type III (Broberg-Morrey)
. Type IV (McKee)
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type IV (McKee)


Explanation

The Bryan and Morrey classification describes capitellum fractures. Type I (Hahn-Steinthal): involves a large fragment of osseous capitellum. Type II (Kocher-Lorenz): an articular cartilage fracture with very little subchondral bone attached. Type III (Broberg-Morrey): severely comminuted capitellum fracture. Type IV (added by McKee): involves the capitellum and the lateral half of the trochlea. The presence of the trochlear extension is critical to recognize as it requires more extensive fixation.

Question 1275

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Which of the following biomechanical changes is most directly responsible for restoring active elevation in a patient with rotator cuff arthropathy undergoing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Medialization and distalization of the center of rotation
. Lateralization of the center of rotation, which increases the tension on the remaining rotator cuff
. Superior translation of the humerus, restoring the natural joint line
. Decreasing the deltoid wrapping angle around the greater tuberosity
. Restoration of the force couple between the subscapularis and infraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialization and distalization of the center of rotation


Explanation

A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) medializes and distalizes the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint. Medialization increases the moment arm of the deltoid muscle, and distalization increases the resting tension (and thus the contractile force) of the deltoid. Together, these biomechanical alterations allow the deltoid to effectively substitute for the deficient rotator cuff and initiate arm elevation.

Question 1276

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 32-year-old carpenter presents with right shoulder weakness and a dull ache in the shoulder blade. On physical examination, when the patient pushes against a wall with arms extended forward, the medial border of the right scapula becomes prominent. Injury to which nerve is the most likely cause of this finding?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by weakness or paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. This is accentuated by asking the patient to push against a wall. In contrast, lateral winging of the scapula is caused by weakness of the trapezius muscle, innervated by the spinal accessory nerve, and is accentuated by resisted abduction.

Question 1277

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a high-speed collision and presents with severe swelling of the left shoulder and complete loss of motor and sensory function in the left upper extremity. An AP chest radiograph shows lateral displacement of the left scapula compared to the right, and an intact clavicle. Which associated injury has the highest immediate mortality risk in this condition?

. Brachial plexus avulsion
. Subclavian or axillary artery disruption
. Flail chest
. Pneumothorax
. Traumatic brain injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subclavian or axillary artery disruption


Explanation

The clinical picture and radiograph (lateralization of the scapula with massive swelling) describe a scapulothoracic dissociation. This is a severe, high-energy injury characterized by disruption of the scapulothoracic articulation. It is highly associated with brachial plexus injuries (often complete avulsion) and major vascular injuries (subclavian or axillary artery/vein disruption). The vascular injury is limb- and life-threatening, making it the most critical immediate concern.

Question 1278

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

In reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA), which of the following glenosphere configurations is most effective at minimizing the risk of inferior scapular notching?

. Superior placement and superior tilt
. Superior placement and neutral tilt
. Inferior placement and inferior tilt
. Medialization and superior tilt
. Medialization and neutral tilt

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior placement and inferior tilt


Explanation

Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere help lateralize the humerus slightly and clear the inferior scapular neck, significantly reducing the mechanical impingement that causes scapular notching. Superior or medial placement increases impingement risk.

Question 1279

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 65-year-old male with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and a positive Hornblower's sign undergoes a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. During the harvest of the tendon, which neurovascular bundle is at greatest risk and must be carefully protected?

. Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery
. Thoracodorsal nerve and artery
. Long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery
. Suprascapular nerve and artery
. Spinal accessory nerve and transverse cervical artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracodorsal nerve and artery


Explanation

The latissimus dorsi is innervated and supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve and artery. This pedicle runs on the deep surface of the muscle and must be carefully identified and protected during tendon harvest and mobilization to ensure the viability and function of the transfer.

Question 1280

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 42-year-old female presents with persistent shoulder pain and weakness 4 weeks after undergoing a lymph node biopsy in the posterior cervical triangle. On physical exam, she demonstrates lateral winging of the scapula and an inability to actively abduct the shoulder past 90 degrees. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Lateral scapular winging combined with a history of posterior triangle neck surgery is classic for an iatrogenic spinal accessory nerve injury, leading to trapezius palsy. Medial winging is associated with long thoracic nerve palsy (serratus anterior).