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Question 1181

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An 18-month-old boy with obstetric brachial plexus palsy is being evaluated for limited right shoulder motion. Physical therapy for the past 6 months has failed to result in improvement of the contracture. Which of the following studies is necessary prior to any shoulder reconstruction?
. Electromyography
. MRI of the shoulder joint
. MRI of the brain
. Radiograph of the elbow
. Aspiration of the right shoulder

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the shoulder joint


Explanation

The child sustained a brachial plexus injury at birth, and internal rotation/adduction contractures frequently develop at the shoulder. Initial treatment should consist of physical therapy to increase the range of motion. If this fails, as in this patient, MRI is used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint. Commonly, there is joint deformity with increased retroversion of the glenoid and even posterior shoulder subluxation. If the deformity is mild, an anterior release, coupled with teres major and latissimus transfers, is very effective. If the deformity is severe and the shoulder is unreconstructable, then humeral derotation osteotomy is the procedure of choice. MRI of the brain, a radiograph of the elbow, and aspiration of the shoulder would not be helpful. References: Waters PM: Update on management of pediatric brachial plexus palsy. J Pediatr Orthop B 2005;14:233-244. Waters PM, Bae DS: Effect of tendon transfers and extra-articular soft-tissue balancing on glenohumeral development in brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:320-325. Moukoko D, Ezaki M, Wilkes D, et al: Posterior shoulder dislocation in infants with neonatal brachial plexus palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:787-793.

Question 1182

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 57-year-old man involved in a motor vehicle accident sustains an injury to his right shoulder. A spot AP radiograph is shown in Figure 34. What is the next most appropriate step in the orthopaedic management of this patient?
. Axillary view
. CT of the shoulder
. Closed reduction
. Sling and close follow-up
. Functional brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary view


Explanation

The next step in the management of this injury is completion of the shoulder trauma series. An axillary radiograph, which can be quickly performed in the emergency department, must be obtained to accurately assess the humeral head relationship to the glenoid. If difficulty is encountered, a “Velpeau” axillary may be substituted. If that fails to elucidate the status of the glenohumeral joint, a CT scan should be obtained. Reference: Simon JA, Puopolo SM, Capla EL, et al: Accuracy of the axillary projection to determine fracture angulation of the proximal humerus. Orthopedics 2004;27:205-207.

Question 1183

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 53-year-old man complains of recurrent lateral elbow pain. He was surgically treated approximately one year ago with some improvement in his direct lateral elbow pain. He now reports new-onset discomfort at the posterolateral elbow, as well as difficulty when pushing himself up from a chair. On examination, he has a well-healed 6-cm incision over the lateral epicondyle with full active and passive range of motion. He has pain with palpation along the posterior lateral elbow and a positive posterior drawer test. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the best next step?
. Platelet-rich plasma
. Physical therapy
. Lateral epicondyle debridement
. Lateral collateral ligament reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament reconstruction


Explanation

Lateral elbow tendinopathy remains a frequently encountered pathology of the elbow. Open or arthroscopic lateral epicondyle debridement can be considered for patients with refractory symptoms. With either technique, the lateral collateral ligament complex of the elbow is at risk for compromise, with excessive debridement distal and posterior to the center of rotation of the capitellum. When injured, patients often complain of pain around the posterior lateral elbow, which is commonly misdiagnosed as recurrent lateral epicondylitis. The push-up test (apprehension using the supinated forearm to push up from a chair) is a typical examination finding, along with a positive posterior drawer test. Patients may also develop posterolateral instability of the elbow, for which the recommended treatment is lateral collateral ligament reconstruction.

Question 1184

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 38-year-old woman has persistent elbow pain but is unable to recall a specific traumatic event. Examination reveals that the patient exhibits apprehension when the elbow is placed in valgus with forearm supination and axial loading. Because of chronicity and failure to respond to nonsurgical management, what is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic

. Continued bracing
. Direct ligamentous repair
. Arthroscopic electrothermal capsular and ligamentous shrinkage
. Isolated plication of the capsule and ligaments
. Free tendon graft reconstruction with capsuloligamentous plication

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Free tendon graft reconstruction with capsuloligamentous plication


Explanation

The maneuver described is the lateral pivot-shift test, where valgus and axial loads are applied to the extended and supinated forearm while the elbow is gradually flexed. The presence of apprehension in an awake patient suggests posterolateral rotatory instability, indicating insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament. Treatment for chronic cases involves reconstruction using a palmaris longus tendon graft combined with plication of the lateral capsuloligamentous structures. Direct ligament repair and isolated plication are less reliable. The long-term effects of thermal shrinkage are still unclear. Because of the failure to respond to nonsurgical management, continued bracing is unlikely to resolve the patient's symptoms.

Question 1185

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A healthy 64-year-old man just underwent an uncomplicated shoulder arthroplasty for severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Intraoperatively, 60 degrees of external rotation was obtained. Postoperatively, he starts on a range-of-motion program. What limitations are recommended?
. No external rotation stretching for the first 6 weeks.
. No external rotation stretching for the first 3 weeks.
. Limit external rotation to the side to 60 degrees for the first 6 weeks.
. Limit external rotation to the side to 60 degrees for the first 3 weeks.
. No restrictions on external rotation stretching.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Limit external rotation to the side to 60 degrees for the first 3 weeks.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient needs restrictions on his external rotation to allow healing of the subscapularis tendon repair. Limitation to 60 degrees is common if the tendon repair is robust and shows no evidence of tension on range-of-motion testing during the surgery. Restriction from external rotation stretching for even 3 weeks would compromise his ultimate functional recovery.

Question 1186

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old woman who recently underwent biopsy of a lymph node in the right posterior cervical triangle now finds it difficult to hold objects overhead and has diffuse aching in the right shoulder region. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Rotator cuff tear
. Rhomboid paralysis
. Deltoid paralysis
. Triceps paralysis
. Trapezius paralysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trapezius paralysis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The trapezius is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve. The nerve is superficial in the area of the posterior cervical triangle and is prone to injury during dissection. Paralysis of the trapezius causes loss of scapular stability when forward flexion or abduction of the shoulder is attempted.

Question 1187

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty combined with latissimus dorsi transfer would be most appropriate for which of the following patients? Review Topic

. year-old male with post-traumatic shoulder arthritis after a four-part proximal humerus fracture with no motor dysfunction
. year-old male with grade 4 shoulder arthritis with severe deltoid muscle dysfunction secondary to a stroke
. year-old female with significant rotator cuff arthropathy, a negative Hornblower sign and less than 5 degrees of external rotation lag
. year-old female with pseudoparesis of anterior elevation and external rotation, narrowing of gleno-humeral joint and acetabularization of the acromion
. year-old male with grade 4 shoulder arthritis and an isolated supraspinatus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. year-old female with pseudoparesis of anterior elevation and external rotation, narrowing of gleno-humeral joint and acetabularization of the acromion


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty combined with latissimus dorsi transfer would be most appropriate in a patient with pseudoparesis of anterior elevation and external rotation, in the setting of shoulder arthritis (narrowing of glenohumeral joint and acetabularization of the acromion).Combining a latissimus dorsi tendon transfers with reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (R-TSA) helps to restore control of active external rotation. Dysfunction with external rotation can be determined clinically with external rotation lag sign, a positive Hornblower's sign, and radiographically with fatty degeneration of the teres minor classified as stage 2 or greater according to the system of Goutallier et al. or Fuchs et al.Gerber et al. found that R-TSA with combined lat dorsi transfer yielded minimal improvements in external rotation ROM (13 deg to 19 deg) compared to increases in shoulder ROM in flexion (94 deg to 137 deg) and abduction (87 deg to 145 deg), with this procedure.Boileau et al. examined 17 consecutive patients treated with reverse shoulder arthroplasty and latissimus dorsi and teres major transfer (L'Episcopo). They foundthat external rotation increased from -21 degrees to 13 degrees (+34 degrees ). They recommend transferring both the LD and TM, rather than the LD alone as it results in better active external rotation.Illustration A is a radiograph showing a right reverse total shoulder replacement. Illustration B shows a cadaveric image of the positioning of the latissimus dorsi tendon transfer prior to implantation of the reverse total shoulder components.Incorrect Answers

Question 1188

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Figure 43 shows an arthroscopic view of a right shoulder through a lateral portal in the beach chair position. The arrow is pointing to what structure?
. Biceps tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tendon


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This view from the lateral portal shows a full-thickness rotator cuff tear. The glenohumeral joint can be visualized through this tear. The glenoid, labrum, and biceps tendon attaching to the superior aspect of the glenoid are easily viewed from this portal, and the arrow is pointing to the biceps tendon. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair can be performed while visualizing from this portal and using anterior and posterior working portals. REFERENCES: Mazzocca AD, Noerdlinger M, Cole B, et al: Arthroscopy of the shoulder: Indications and general principles of techniques, in McGinty JB (ed): Operative Arthroscopy, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 412-427. Burkhart, SS: Arthroscopic management of rotator cuff tears, in McGinty JB (ed): Operative Arthroscopy, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 508-546.

Question 1189

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 32-year-old man who works as a laborer has had left trapezius wasting and lateral scapular winging after injuring his shoulder when a cargo box fell onto his neck 8 months ago. He now reports posterior shoulder pain and fatigue, and he has difficulty shrugging his shoulder. Examination reveals marked scapular winging, impingement signs, and an asymmetrical appearance when the patient attempts a shoulder shrug. Primary scapular-trapezius winging is the result of damage to the
. spinal accessory nerve, causing shoulder depression with the scapula translated laterally and the inferior angle rotated laterally.
. spinal accessory nerve, causing shoulder elevation with the scapula translated medially and the inferior angle rotated medially.
. long thoracic nerve, causing shoulder elevation with the scapula translated medially and the inferior angle rotated medially.
. long thoracic nerve, causing shoulder depression with the scapula translated laterally and the inferior angle rotated laterally.
. thoracodorsal nerve, causing shoulder depression with the scapula translated laterally and the inferior angle rotated laterally.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. spinal accessory nerve, causing shoulder depression with the scapula translated laterally and the inferior angle rotated laterally.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has primary scapular-trapezius winging. This condition can be caused by blunt trauma to the relatively superficial spinal accessory nerve that is located in the floor of the posterior cervical triangle in the subcutaneous tissue. Other causes of injury include penetrating trauma, traction, or surgical injury. With trapezius winging, the shoulder appears depressed and laterally translated because of an unopposed serratus anterior. This contrasts with primary serratus anterior winging, which is caused by injury to the long thoracic nerve. In this condition, the scapula assumes a position of superior elevation and medial translation, and the inferior angle is rotated medially. The thoracodorsal nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi and is not involved in primary scapular winging. REFERENCES: Kuhn JE, Plancher KD, Hawkins RJ: Scapular winging. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:319-325. Wright TA: Accessory spinal nerve injury. Clin Orthop 1975;108:15-18.

Question 1190

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A superior labrum anterior and posterior (SLAP) lesion doubles the strain in which of the following stabilizing structures?
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Posterior inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A superior labrum, when intact, stabilizes the shoulder by increasing its ability to withstand excessive external rotational forces by an additional 32%. The presence of a SLAP lesion decreases this restraint and increases the strain in the superior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament by over 100%. REFERENCES: Rodosky MW, Harner CD, Fu FH: The role of the long head of the biceps muscle and superior glenoid labrum in anterior stability of the shoulder. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:121-130. Itoi E, Kuelchle DK, Newman SR, Morrey BF, An KN: Stabilizing function of the biceps in stable and unstable shoulders. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:546-550.

Question 1191

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

What is the most common complication following reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Scapula spine/acromial fracture
. Dislocation/instability
. Implant loosening
. Periprosthetic fractureComplications encountered following reverse total shoulder arthroplasty include dislocation, infection, hardware failure, hematoma, neurologic injury, periprosthetic fracture, scapular notching, and acromial/scapular spine fractures. The incidence and risks of these complications are related to the indication for the procedure. Dislocation is the most common complication, with an incidence of 1.5% to 31%. Risk factors associated with postoperative dislocation include male sex, previous shoulder surgery, proximal humeral bone loss, axillary nerve injury, and subscapularis deficiency. Commonly used methods to prevent instability include lateralization of the glenosphere and/or baseplate, eccentric baseplate placement, humeral lateralization or distalization, use of large glenosphere, and increased socket constraint.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scapula spine/acromial fracture


Explanation

A 75-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis and a long history of oral corticosteroid use sustains a comminuted intra-articular distal humerus fracture. What is the best surgical option?A. Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) with parallel platesB. ORIF with orthogonal plates and iliac crest bone graftingC. Total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)D. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinningTEA is the best surgical option. McKee and associates published a multicenter randomized controlled trial comparing ORIF with TEA in elderly patients. TEA resulted in better 2-year clinical functional scores and more predictable outcomes compared with ORIF. TEA was also likely to result in a lower reoperation rate; one-quarter of patients with fractures randomized to ORIF could not achieve stable fixation. Further, Frankle and associates reported a comparative study of TEA versus ORIF in 24 elderly women. TEA outcomes were again superior to ORIF at a minimum of 2 years of follow-up. TEA was especially useful in patients with comorbidities that compromise bone stock, including osteoporosis and oral corticosteroid use. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning studies have not been published on the adult population. Correct answer : C

Question 1192

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The best candidate for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is a patient with rotator cuff tear arthropathy with
. anterior superior escape.
. rheumatoid arthritis.
. an acromial stress fracture.
. a centered head and an external rotation lag sign of 50 degrees.
. active forward elevation of 130 degrees.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. anterior superior escape.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is relatively contraindicated in patients with acromial stress fractures and rheumatoid arthritis. A patient with active forward elevation to 130 degrees is better treated with a hemiarthroplasty because the motion already exceeds the average forward elevation attained in most studies using the reverse prosthesis. A centered case of rotator cuff tear arthropathy is also better treated with a hemiarthroplasty, especially in patients with a large external rotation lag sign because the reverse prosthesis has been shown to decrease active external rotation. However, hemiarthroplasties have not performed well in patients with anterior superior escape and in this group of patients, the reverse prosthesis is best. REFERENCES: Rittmeister M, Kerschbaumer M: Grammont reverse total shoulder arthroplasty in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and nonreconstructible rotator cuff lesions. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:17-22. Visotosky JL, Basamania C, Seebauer L, et al: Cuff tear arthropathy: Pathogenesis, classification, and algorithm for treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:35-40. Werner CM, Steinmann PA, Gilbart M: Treatment of painful pseudoparesis due to irreparable rotator cuff dysfunction with the Delta III reverse-ball-and-socket total shoulder prosthesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1476-1486.

Question 1193

Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 56-year-old woman who underwent axillary node dissection 4 months ago now reports shoulder pain, weakness of forward elevation, and obvious winging of the scapula. What structure has been injured?
. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve
. Lower trunk of the brachial plexus
. Posterior cord of the brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior, is prone to injury because of its superficial location along the chest wall. The long thoracic nerve is derived from the roots of C5, C6, and C7. The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius, and the thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi. The posterior cord of the brachial plexus provides the axillary and the radial nerves. REFERENCES: Hollinshead WH: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, pp 259-340. Marmor L, Bechtal CO: Paralysis of the serratus anterior due to electric shock relieved by transplantation of the pectoralis major muscle: A case report. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;45:156-160.

Question 1194

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Figure 30 shows the radiograph of an 82-year-old woman who reports a 1-month history of shoulder pain. She is able to actively elevate her arm to 150 degrees but is experiencing discomfort. Her sleep is disrupted because of the shoulder pain. What is the most appropriate management? Review Topic

. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic shoulder debridement
. Trial of anti-inflammatory medication or cortisone injection and/or deltoid strengthening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

The patient is experiencing rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Given that this is the first medical treatment she has sought, a nonsurgical treatment plan of anti-inflammatory medication or a corticosteroid injection is warranted. Proceeding to the operating room without a trial of nonsurgical management is not indicated in this patient population. Surgical procedures may be necessary in the future if nonsurgical measures fail.

Question 1195

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 25-year-old woman returns for her first postoperative visit after arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy for recurrent multidirectional instability. Examination reveals that the portals are healed, there is no swelling, and passive range of motion is within the normal range. However, she is unable to actively raise her arm. Shoulder radiographs are normal. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
. Adhesive capsulitis
. Sling immobilization
. Thermal chondrolysis
. Subacromial impingement
. Axillary nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve injury


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Treatment of shoulder instability with thermal devices has led to numerous complications including recurrent instability, chondrolysis, stiffness, and capsular necrosis. This patient’s findings are consistent with a heat-induced axillary nerve injury. Normal radiographs exclude extensive chondrolysis.

Question 1196

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

While performing a total shoulder arthroplasty, excessive retraction is placed on the "strap muscles" (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis). Neurovascular examination would reveal weakness of which of the following? Review Topic

. Shoulder abduction
. Shoulder external rotation
. Shoulder internal rotation
. Elbow extension
. Forearm supination

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shoulder abduction


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve can be as close as 3 cm to the coracoid process; therefore, this relationship is important to keep in mind when performing surgery inthis area. Excessive traction on the musculocutaneous nerve could lead to a neurapraxia with resultant weakness of elbow flexion and forearm supinaton because of the loss of biceps function.

Question 1197

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

What is the most common cause for poor outcomes in patients who undergo total shoulder arthroplasty? Review Topic

. Loosening of the humeral component
. Loosening of the glenoid component
. Infection
. Brachial plexus injury
. Rotator cuff tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loosening of the humeral component


Explanation

In an article in the Journal of Shoulder and Elbow, 431 total shoulder arthroplasties were performed with a cemented all-polyethylene glenoid component between 1990 and 2000. Follow-up averaged 4.2 years. In total, 53 surgical complications occurred in 53 patients (12%). Of these, 32 were major complications (7.4%), with 17 of these requiring reoperation. Index complications in order of frequency included rotator cuff tearing, postoperative glenohumeral instability, and periprosthetic humeral fracture. Notably, glenoid and humeral component loosening requiring reoperation occurred in only one shoulder. Data from the contemporary patient group suggest that there are fewer complications of shoulder arthroplasty and less need for reoperation. Especially striking is the near absence of component revision because of loosening or other mechanical factors. Complications involving the brachial plexus have been reported following total shoulder arthroplasty but are not as common of a cause for failure.

Question 1198

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During an anterior approach to the shoulder, excessive traction on the conjoined tendon is most likely to result in loss of
. elbow flexion.
. shoulder flexion.
. shoulder internal rotation.
. shoulder abduction.
. forearm pronation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. elbow flexion.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The musculocutaneous nerve travels through the conjoined tendon approximately 8 cm distal to the tip of the acromion. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps muscle and the brachialis muscle, both of which are responsible for elbow flexion. Shoulder flexion is facilitated by the anterior fibers of the deltoid muscle (axillary nerve) and the supraspinatus muscle (suprascapular nerve). The subscapularis muscle facilitates internal rotation of the shoulder (upper and lower subscapular nerves). Shoulder abduction is performed by the deltoid muscle (axillary nerve), and forearm pronation is facilitated by the pronator teres (median nerve).

Question 1199

Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 54-year-old woman sustained an elbow injury 3 months ago that was treated with open reduction and internal fixation. She now reports pain and limited elbow motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 10a and 10b. Treatment should now consist of
. occupational therapy.
. open reduction of the radial head and annular ligament reconstruction.
. excision of the radial head.
. ulnar osteotomy and closed reduction of the radial head.
. ulnar osteotomy and open reduction of the radial head.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ulnar osteotomy and open reduction of the radial head.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Radiographs reveal malunion of a Monteggia fracture-dislocation. Dislocation of the posterior radial head is caused by the malunited ulnar fracture. The deformity includes shortening with an apex posterior angulation. In the acute setting, open reduction of the radial head rarely is necessary; however, in chronic dislocations, open reduction is required. Without ulnar osteotomy, recurrent radial head dislocation is likely.

Question 1200

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus who underwent a total shoulder arthroplasty for degenerative arthritis 5 years ago now reports the sudden onset of shoulder pain following recent hospitalization for pneumonia. Laboratory values show a WBC count of 11,400/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 52mm/h. What is the most appropriate action? Review Topic

. Begin a stretching program.
. Obtain shoulder radiographs and aspirate the shoulder joint.
. Obtain an MRI scan to evaluate for a rotator cuff tear.
. Schedule for irrigation and debridement.
. Schedule for revision shoulder arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain shoulder radiographs and aspirate the shoulder joint.


Explanation

The patient has the preliminary diagnosis of an infected shoulder arthroplasty; therefore, shoulder radiographs and joint aspiration for organism identification should be the first steps in the work-up. The patient is at risk for hematogenous spread given the recent history of pneumonia and her history of diabetes mellitus. Although she has stiffness, a stretching program is not indicated with the possibility of infection. Scheduling for revision arthroplasty, or irrigation and debridement will depend on multiple factors including identification of the infecting organism, the organism’ssusceptibility to antibiotics, and implant stability. An MRI scan to evaluate for a rotator cuff tear is not indicated at this time.