This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1061
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old man falls from a skateboard and dislocates his elbow. After a closed reduction in the emergency department, his elbow is carefully examined. He has positive valgus stress, moving valgus stress, and milking maneuver tests. His elbow appears stable to varus stress and lateral pivot shift tests. What is the most appropriate manner of immobilizing the elbow for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sling for 3 days, with early active range of motion
Explanation
Varus posteromedial rotatory instability occurs following a fall onto an outstretched hand with axial loading and a varus stress to the elbow. This injury can result in a rupture of the posterior band of the medial collateral ligament (MCL), fracture of the anteromedial facet of the coronoid, and avulsion of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). Based on the examination findings, this patient has an acute MCL rupture. Furthermore, the LUCL appears intact, as evidence by the stability with varus stress. To protect the reduction in the acute setting, posterior splinting is recommended, but placing the forearm in full supination tightens the structures medially where the MCL is deficient. Splinting in neutral is indicated for valgus posterolateral rotatory instability, where both the LUCL and MCL are ruptured. Splinting in full pronation is indicated for isolated LUCL ruptures. Early active range of motion is not recommended for adults immediately after an acute elbow dislocation, as ligamentous injury or fracture nearly always accompanies the dislocation. In this case, theforearm should be splinted in full supination.
Question 1062
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient has a noncomminuted displaced fracture of the radial head with a distal radioulnar dissociation. What is the most appropriate treatment for the radial head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Allograft Replacement
Explanation
This is a rare injury, and it is important to recognize both the proximal and distal concurrent injuries. In the past, the radial head excision has been the primary form of treatment, but this has shown poor long-term results; silicone replacement has been fraught with reactive synovitis. Radial ulnar synostosis is a complication, not a planned course of treatment.
Question 1063
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old man feels a pop in the anterior aspect of his elbow while lifting furniture. He denies any antecedent pain or injury. Which examination method is best for diagnosing a distal biceps rupture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The examiner brings a finger from lateral to medial across the antecubital fossa, feeling for a cord-like structure.
Explanation
The hook test is the most reliable physical examination maneuver for diagnosing a distal biceps tendon rupture. The examiner hooks their finger under the biceps tendon from the lateral side to the medial side. If the tendon is intact, the examiner's finger will be blocked by the cord-like structure of the tendon.
Question 1064
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 12-year-old gymnast has had elbow pain for 4 weeks. She denies any specific trauma to the elbow. Examination reveals lateral pain and no instability on testing. Range of motion is as follows: 15 degrees, loss of elbow extension, normal flexion, and normal pronation and supination. Radiographs reveal a 3- x 7-mm radiolucency of the capitellum. A T1-weighted MRI scan reveals a single solitary lesion, and T2-weighted images show no signal around the lesion. There are no intra-articular loose bodies. Appropriate management should include which of the following? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic debridement of the elbow
Explanation
This is a typical presentation for an osteochondral lesion of the capitellum. This patient is young and has, by definition, a stable lesion and has excellent potential to heal this lesion with nonsurgical management. However, the patient should stop her activities (gymnastics) to prevent further damage and the possible development of an unstable lesion that might then necessitate surgery. Surgical procedures are generally not necessary for the treatment of these lesions.
Question 1065
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 53-year-old man has had a long history of multiple joint symptoms, and he notes that the worst pain is from his left shoulder. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 13a and 13b. Prior to surgical treatment of the shoulder, what is the most appropriate work-up?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cervical spine radiographs, including flexion and extension views
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Rheumatoid arthritis is sometimes associated with radiographic evidence of instability of the cervical spine. In a study by Grauer and associates, radiographs of the cervical spine of patients with rheumatoid arthritis who had undergone total joint arthroplasty over a 5-year period were retrospectively reviewed. Nearly one half of the patients had radiographic evidence of cervical instability on the basis of traditional measurements. While radiographic evidence of cervical instability was not infrequent in this population of patients who underwent total joint arthroplasty for rheumatoid arthritis, radiographic predictors of paralysis were much less common. MRI prior to surgery may also be a consideration if the radiographic appearance of the rotator cuff alters the consideration of surgical treatment. In a series of patients undergoing prosthetic arthroplasty for a variety of shoulder disorders, the presence of a rotator cuff tear has been shown to be associated with a less favorable outcome. Most often, the presence of a rotator cuff tear was associated with a diagnosis of rheumatoid or other inflammatory arthritis and the tears were large and generally irreparable. Some case series demonstrated a higher prevalence of loosening of the glenoid component in patients with a large rotator cuff tear associated with superior migration of the humeral head. However, obtaining an MRI scan of the shoulder is not considered the best response since failure to determine cervical instability may result in anesthetic death.
Question 1066
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old woman sustained an injury to her dominant right arm after falling off her porch. Examination reveals a deformity at the elbow. She is neurovascularly intact. Figures 46a and 46b show the radiographs obtained before closed reduction, and postreduction radiographs are shown in Figure 46c and 46d. What is the most likely early complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recurrent dislocation
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has a complex fracture-dislocation of the elbow. The radial head is fractured, and there is a displaced coronoid fracture. These associated fractures indicate that the elbow is at high risk for recurrent instability after initial treatment. To prevent this complication, surgical treatment will most likely be required and will consist of some or all of the following: radial head open reduction and internal fixation or replacement, coronoid open reduction and internal fixation, medial and lateral ligament repairs, and even articulated external fixation. This patient was treated with open reduction and internal fixation of the radial head, and the elbow redislocated postoperatively.
Question 1067
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
What neurovascular structure is in closest proximity to the probe in the arthroscopic view of the elbow shown in Figure 50?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The image shows a view of the radiocapitellar joint from an anterior medial portal. The radial nerve lies on the elbow capsule at the midportion of the capitellum. It is at risk for injury when capsular excision is performed in this region.
Question 1068
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 12-year-old Little League pitcher reports lateral elbow pain and “catching.” Examination reveals painful pronation and supination and tenderness over the lateral elbow. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. Initial management should consist of Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. rest and repeat examination and radiographs until complete healing occurs.
Explanation
Osteochondritis of the capitellum is a common problem in young throwing athletes and gymnasts. The mechanism of injury involves lateral compression and axial loading of the capitellum. Repetitive trauma causes ischemia with resultant osteochondral necrosis and sometimes eventual separation. Initial management includes rest for a minimum of 6 weeks; occasionally bracing is used. At long-term follow-up, there is typically an observed radiographic abnormality indicating incomplete healing even in asymptomatic patients. Arthroscopy with in situ drilling is reserved for symptomatic lesions that have an intact articular surface. Lesions with partial separation often require fixation. Lateral column osteotomy is a new investigational procedure designed to relieve lateral compression forces and may be used in salvage cases.
Question 1069
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 58-year-old reports pain and stiffness in his left shoulder following a seizure episode. Diagnosis at the time of the seizure is a frozen shoulder, and management consists of an aggressive physical therapy program of stretching exercises. Four months later he continues to have shoulder pain and has not gained any additional range of motion. A CT scan is shown in Figure 50. Management should now consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. humeral arthroplasty.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Humeral arthroplasty is indicated for chronic posterior dislocations when the impression defect in the humeral head is greater than 45% to 50%. If the condition remains undiagnosed for more than 9 to 12 months, secondary degenerative changes on the glenoid may occur, necessitating total shoulder arthroplasty. Open reduction and transfer of the subscapularis and lesser tuberosity are used for impression defects that consist of 20% to 40% of the humeral articular surface. Closed reduction and immobilization with the arm in slight extension and external rotation is useful when the posterior dislocation is diagnosed within the first 6 weeks and the articular defect is less than 20%.
Question 1070
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male auto mechanic presents to your office with left lateral elbow pain for 6 weeks. On physical exam he has tenderness to palpation over the lateral epicondyle and pain with resisted wrist extension. An MRI is shown in figures A and B. After failing non-surgical treatment modalities, he undergoes arthroscopic surgical management. At 3 months post-operatively, the patient reports persistent left elbow pain and an audible clicking since surgery which occurs when he lifts heavy objects and when he pushes himself up out of a chair. What is the best surgical treatment option? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision elbow arthroscopy with debridement of the extensor carpi radials brevis
Explanation
The patient presents with lateral epicondylitis and develops posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow due to excessive arthroscopic debridement. The correct answer is reconstruction of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament using palmaris longus or gracilis allograft.PLRI is the result of an incompetent lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL), a component of the elbow lateral collateral ligament complex. The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts upon the supinator crest of the ulna. When deficient from acute trauma or from repetitive microtrauma, the elbow becomes rotationally unstable with elbow extension, supination, and an applied valgus force. In this case, the patient has had iatrogenic damage to the LUCL from an arthroscopic release of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) for treatment of lateral epicondylitis. This patient exhibits an important manifestation of this: a positive chair pushup test. This test is positive when pushing off of a chair with a supinated forearm causes pain and instability. Due to the chronicity of the injury (3 months) and his persistent symptoms of instability (pain and clicking) the patient would benefit from surgical reconstruction of the damaged LUCL using either palmaris longus or gracilis allograft.Kelly et. al. reviewed the known major and minor complications of elbow arthroscopy among 473 consecutive cases at their institution from 1980-1998. The most common complications were transient nerve palsies in 10 patients. Among them, the majornerves involved included the anterior interosseous nerve, posterior interosseous nerve, ulnar nerve, superficial radial nerve, and medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve. The risk of iatrogenic nerve injury was increased among patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The most frequent complication was prolonged drainage from the portal sites.Calfee et. al. reviewed the management of lateral epicondylitis. The authors suggest open or arthroscopic surgical debridement of the common extensor origin after failure of rest, orthoses, nonsteroidal drugs, physical therapy, cortisone and platelet-rich plasma injections. They do acknowledge that excessive debridement may compromise lateral elbow stability and cause PLRI.O'Brien et. al. described the surgical techniques for managing PLRI, including an open technique for chronic injuries or revision treatment. In this setting, the authors suggest use of palmaris or gracilis allograft for reconstruction.Figures A and B are an axial and coronal T2 weighted MRI of an elbow demonstrating signal intensity in the origin of the ECRB, consistent with lateral epicondylitis.Incorrect Answers:
Question 1071
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 24-year-old baseball pitcher reports pain over the posterior aspect of his shoulder that occurs only during throwing. He notes that the discomfort is greatest during the late cocking and early acceleration phases. Examination reveals localized tenderness with palpation over the external rotators and posterior glenoid. Radiographs are shown in Figures 38a through 38c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior glenoid exostosis
Explanation
The radiographs show a posterior glenoid osteophyte, often termed a “thrower’s exostosis.” These exostoses are best visualized on the Stryker notch view and may be missed on other more standard radiographic views of the shoulder. CT and MRI scans may be used, but usually add little information to the radiographic findings. Arthroscopic examination of patients with this condition commonly reveals undersurface tearing of the rotator cuff and posterior labrum. Treatment of this condition remains somewhat controversial, with advocacy of both nonsurgical and surgical techniques.
Question 1072
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An injury to the axillary nerve would result in deltoid muscle weakness. 5 . An injury to the thoracodorsal nerve would result in latissimus dorsi weakness and would not cause scapular winging.
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A 31-year-old right handed pitcher felt a pop in his throwing elbow during a game. He is diagnosed with a rupture to the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex of the elbow. During which phase of the overhead throwing cycle did this pitcher most likely sustain his injury?Wind-up
Explanation
The medial ulnar collateral ligament is subjected to the greatest tensile stress during the late cocking/early acceleration phase of throwing.The medial ulnar collateral ligament, or medial collateral ligament of the elbow, is composed of three bundles: an anterior bundle, a posterior bundle, and a variabletransverse oblique bundle. During late cocking and early acceleration phases of the overhead throw, the medial UCL is subjected to the greatest amount of valgus stress to the elbow. During this phase, the forearm lags behind the upper arm and generates valgus stress while the elbow is primarily dependent on the anterior band of the UCL for stability. This puts the ligament at greatest risk of injury during this phase.Fleisig et al. examined the kinetics of baseball pitching and the implications on injury mechanisms. They showed that the UCL contributes to 54% of the varus torque that is generated during the early acceleration of throwing. The position of greatest load occurred when the arm was flexed to 95 +/14 degrees with an applied valgus load.Illustration A shows a diagram of the medial ulnar collateral ligament ligament bundles. Incorrect Answers:A 14-year-old elite basketball player develops acute medial elbow pain after a fall. Physical examination reveals medial elbow tenderness over the submlime tubercle, but full range of motion. The provocative tests seen in Figure A exacerbate his elbow pain. Radiographs of the elbow are normal. What would be the next best step in treatment?Supervised elbow stretching program Therapeutic elbow arthroscopyStatic elbow external fixation for 3 to 6 weeks, then MR arthrography if pain continues Activity avoidance for 6 weeksSerial inflammatory markers and rheumatology referralFigure A shows a moving valgus stress, which is a provocative test for ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury and elbow valgus instability. The initial treatment would be a short period of immobilization, rest and flexor pronator strengthening in this patient population.Adolescent UCL injuries can be effectively treated with a short period of rest and NSAIDs to control pain. As the acute inflammation resolves, the patient can be started on a supervised therapy program. This should target flexor pronator muscles, as they are important secondary dynamic stabilizers of valgus stress. Once symptoms have improved and the athlete has regained full range of motion and strength, a mediated throwing program may be initiated. Throwing athletes should be educated to avoid provocative activities during this period.Chen et al. wrote a JAAOS article on shoulder and elbow injuries in the skeletally immature athlete. They state that surgery is reserved for older athletes with persistent valgus instability despite > 6 months of non-surgical management.Murthi et al. reviewed recurrent elbow instability. They state the anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex is the primary valgus stabilizer of the elbow. The anterior band is taut for the first 60° of elbow flexion, and the posterior band is taut from 60° to 120° of flexion. The secondary valgus stabilizers of the elbow joint include the radial head, the anterior and posterior aspects of the capsule, and the muscular forces around the joint.Figure A is showing a moving valgus stress. Illustration A shows provocative tests for valgus instability of the elbow. The image on the left shows a valgus stress test. This assesses the anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex by flexing the elbow to 25-30 degrees and applying a valgus load across the elbow. The image on the right shows milking maneuver. This assesses the posterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex by pulling on thebeyond 90°. Incorrect Answers:A young, healthy male undergoes a distal biceps repair and sustains an iatrogenic nerve injury during the procedure. Which of the following clinical findings are most likely to be seen in this circumstance?Inability to extend the thumbLateral volar forearm numbness Inability to flex the middle finger Medial volar forearm numbness Dorsal thumb numbnessThe most commonly injured nerve during a distal biceps repair is the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN). Injury to this nerve would result in lateral volar forearm numbness.Distal biceps avulsions can be partial or complete. Indications for surgical management include young, healthy patients who do not wish to sacrifice function, as well as partial biceps avulsions that do not respond to conservative management. Repair of a distal biceps avulsion can be approached through either an anterior one-incision technique or a two-incision technique (BoydAnderson). The one-incision technique uses the interval between the brachioradialis (radial nerve) and pronator teres (median nerve), while the two-incision technique uses this same interval in addition to a second posterolateral elbow incision. The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the most common nerve injured during either approach.Kelly et al. retrospectively reviewed 74 distal biceps tendon repairs, and found five sensory nerve paresthesias. The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve was most commonly injured, followed by the superficial radial nerve.Cain et al. retrospectively reviewed 198 distal biceps tendon repairs, and found a 36% complication rate. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve paresthesias were found in 26%, while radial sensory nerve paresthesias were found in 6%, and posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) injury in 4%.Illustration A shows the close relationship between the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) and the distal biceps. Illustration B shows the sensory nerves of the upper extremity and their respective areas of innervation.Incorrect Answers:A 33-year-old female presents with left shoulder weakness. Two weeks prior to presentation, the patient experienced sudden-onset, left shoulder pain, which occurred a few days after receiving the influenza vaccine. The pain subsided over the next day, followed by gradual weakness of her shoulder and eventual general disuse of her left upper extremity. An initial visit to her primary care provider resulted in the recommendation of observation. On physical exam, there is weakness and gross atrophy of the shoulder girdle. Figures A & exhibit T2-weighted MRI images of her left shoulder. To further confirm her suspected diagnosis, she is sent for electromyography.What is the expected result?Normal resultsFibrillation potentials consistent with compression at the spinoglenoid notch 3 . Sharp waves and fibrillations potentials associated with the deltoid and bicepsAcute denervation of both peripheral nerve and nerve root distribution with sharp waves and fibrillation potentialsEarly reinnervation with polyphasic motor unit potentialsThis patient has Parsonage-Turner Syndrome, which, when tested on EMG during the first 3 weeks, exhibits acute denervation of both peripheral nerve and nerve root distributions with positive sharp waves and fibrillation potentials.Parsonage-Turner Syndrome is an idiopathic disorder with an etiology that is still unknown. Typical antecedent events can involve a viral illness, recent immunization, or elective surgery. Clinical presentation is usually initiated by acute onset shoulder pain, which quickly subsides and is followed by gradual weakness. Early MRI exhibits edema in the effected muscles, and fatty infiltration in later stages. Treatment is typically non-operative, and resolution can be seen as early as 6 weeks from onset.Tjoumakaris et al. provide a thorough review of the diagnosis and management of ParsonageTurner Syndrome. The authors report the usefulness of MRI, which exhibits early edema and later fatty infiltration in the affected muscles, and urge the use of EMG as a confirmatory diagnostic measure as well as a monitoring tool to track resolution. Early identification and diagnosis may be treated with a short course of steroids, which may help shorten symptoms.Stutz et al. concisely summarize Parsonage-Turner Syndrome and provide typical presentation, diagnosis and management principles. The authors note the common association with viral illness and/or recent immunization along with the importance of obtaining a baseline chest radiograph to rule out a compressive Pancoast tumor. Management is typically supportive with eventual resolution.Figures A, B, and C are T2-weighted coronal, sagittal, and axial cuts of the shoulder girdle with associated edema in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus typically seen in Parsonage-Turner Syndrome.Incorrect answers:A total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) would be the most appropriate treatment in which of the following arthritic patients?
Question 1073
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Outcome measures should have established psychometric properties of reliability, validity, and responsiveness. Reliability refers to which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The reproducibility of the measurements either between repeated tests or between observers
Explanation
Reliability is a measure of how reproducible a test is. This can be interobserver reliability (i.e., reliability between people), or intraobserver reliability (i.e., reliability for the same person doing the outcome measure at different occasions).
Question 1074
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Rupture of the distal biceps tendon is predictably identified by the hook test, which is performed by bringing a finger from lateral to medial across the antecubital fossa of a flexed elbow, feeling for a cord-like structure on which the examiner can "hook" a finger. Bringing the finger from medial to lateral can cause a false-negative result, hooking the lacertus fibrosus, which can remain intact even with a ruptured distal biceps tendon. The Yergason test (option 3) and the Speed test (option 4) are used to assist in diagnosing proximal, not distal, biceps and labral pathology. Even if the distal biceps tendon is ruptured, the supinator remains intact. Although supination weakness may be present, an inability to supinate should not be observed. When treating a closed long finger central slip tendon rupture conservatively, what is the most appropriate plan of care?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Splint the PIP joint in extension with early motion of the DIP joint
Explanation
Closed central slip injuries treated nonsurgically require extension splinting of the PIP joint. DIP joint active range of motion is allowed during this time period. This allows the connections between the lateral bands and the central slip to pull the central slip distally with DIP joint active motion, minimizing the gap across the central tendon injury and keeping the DIP joint from getting stiff as well.
Question 1075
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In patients who have undergone nonsurgical management for idiopathic adhesive capsulitis, long-term follow-up studies have shown which of the following results?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased range of motion compared with the contralateral shoulder
Explanation
Results have been satisfactory in many patients; however, at long-term follow-up, examination of the affected shoulder often shows some decrease in range of motion compared with the contralateral side. Although range of motion often improves over time, it does not return to normal in 60% of patients. Pain improves but is often increased compared with the contralateral side.
Question 1076
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 76-year-old woman has longstanding right shoulder pain affecting overhead function. Figures A and B are her original radiographs. She undergoes reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) with iliac crest bone grafting behind the baseplate and is discharged from the hospital the following day. She returns for follow-up at 2 weeks. The incisions have healed and she has minimal pain, which is improving. What is the most accurate description for the cause of failure? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central peg error
Explanation
The metaglen (glenoid baseplate) failed because the central peg of the baseplate was not implanted in the glenoid, and the metaglen did not have a long enough central peg. This was the technical error during baseplate implantation.Glenoid complications are the primary concern of rTSA. Historically, rTSA fail at the glenoid interface because of inadequate fixation. The Grammont-style prosthesis has a medialized center of rotation to circumvent this, but this lead to inferior scapular notching. Newer prosthesis include locking peripheral screws and 15° inferior tilt of the base plate. Further, changing the neck-shaft angle from 155 deg to 143 deg or 135 deg has reduced notching and instability, and reduced the need to for subscapularis repair.Boileau et al. examined revision surgery for rTSA. They found that the most common cause for revision was prosthetic instability (48%). Humeral complications (loosening/derotation/fracture) were 2nd most common and infection was 3rd most common. Underestimation of humeral shortening and excessive medialization were common causes of recurrent prosthetic instability. Proximal humeral bone loss was found to be a cause for humeral loosening or derotation.Holcomb et al. reviewed failure of the rTSA glenoid baseplate in 14 patients, which was defined as shift of the baseplate with or without screw breakage. Strategies for success include: (1) Incorporating increased inferior baseplate tilt in post-revision prosthesis-scapular neck angle (PSNA) compared to pre-failure PSNA because inferior tilt maximizes compressive force across the baseplate-glenoid interface. (2) Locking peripheral 5.0mm screws (rather than non-locking 3.5mm screws). (3) Using larger glenospheres to tighten the patulous soft tissue envelope and secure the glenoid allograft. Four patients required structural allograft (2 iliac crest, 2 femoral head).Figures A shows Hamada 4A cuff tear arthropathy. Figure B shows severe static posterior instability of the humeral head and posterior Walch B2 erosion of the glenoid. Figure C shows the same patient treated with rTSA and iliac crest bone graft. Because of technical error, the central peg was not implanted in the native glenoid. Illustration A shows catastrophic failure of the glenoid baseplate. Illustration B shows the PSNA, with increase in the PSNA from initial rTSA to revision rTSA. Illustration C shows baseplate-glenosphere dissociation. Illustration D shows correction of technical error/too short peg with exchange to a baseplate with a longer peg. Illustration E shows and algorithm for treating unstable rTSA.Incorrect Answers:
Question 1077
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old woman who is right hand-dominant has severe pain in the right shoulder that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. She reports night pain and significant disability. Examination reveals 30 degrees of active forward elevation. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 27. Which of the following treatment options will provide the best functional improvement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
The patient has end-stage rotator cuff tear arthropathy. The radiograph shows complete proximal humeral migration (acromiohumeral interval of 0 mm), severe glenohumeral arthritis, and acetabularization of the acromion. In addition, she has "pseudoparalysis" with active elevation of only 30 degrees. Reverse shoulder arthroplasty affords her the best opportunity for pain relief and functional improvement. The other procedures have mixed results but typically are better for pain relief than they are for functional gains.
Question 1078
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
-Figures a and b are the plain radiographs of a 26-year-old man with an elbow contracture. He denies any specific elbow trauma but reports a history of a closed-head injury sustained in a motor vehicle collision. Examination reveals the elbow lacked 55 degrees of extension and has flexion of 85 degrees.Supination and pronation are well preserved. Release of which structure is essential to restore elbow flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head
Explanation
Question 1079
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 55-year-old woman develops posttraumatic arthritis in the elbow following a distal humerus fracture. What is the most likely mid-term (5- 10 years after surgery) complication following semiconstrained total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bushing wear
Explanation
A 51-year-old man presents with persistent right shoulder pain several weeks after falling off a roof. On examination, he has pain with palpation over the greater tuberosity, active forward shoulder flexion of60°, and passive forward shoulder flexion of 160°. He has 2/5 forward flexion and external rotation strength. Initial plain radiographs are unremarkable. A coronal MRI scan of his shoulder is shown in Figure 1. After a thorough discussion, the patient elects to proceed with surgical intervention. During intraoperative assessment, the surgeon contemplates performing a single versus a dual row repair. Currently, what is the consistent difference between the two repair techniques?A. Dual row repairs result in superior objective clinical outcomesB. Dual row repairs provide a larger footprint coverage.C. Single row repairs have a reported higher complete retear rate.D. Single row repairs have fewer points of tendon fixation.
Question 1080
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with anterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals scapular malposition, inferior medial border prominence, coracoid pain, and dyskinesis (SICK scapula syndrome). What is the primary physical therapy focus for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stretching of the serratus anterior
Explanation
SICK scapula syndrome typically involves a tight pectoralis minor and weak scapular stabilizers, namely the serratus anterior and lower trapezius. Rehabilitation focuses on stretching the pectoralis minor (to reduce anterior tilt) and strengthening the serratus anterior and lower trapezius to restore proper scapular kinematics.
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