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Question 1001

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old baseball pitcher who reports increasing pain in his right shoulder over the past 3 weeks states that the pain increases the more he pitches. Radiographs of both shoulders are shown in Figures 35a and 35b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Increased pitching activity in conjunction with aggressive physical therapy
. Biopsy of the lesion in the proximal humerus
. Complete rest with no activity
. Immobilization in a shoulder spica cast in the salute position
. Cessation of pitching and a vigorous program of muscle strengthening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cessation of pitching and a vigorous program of muscle strengthening


Explanation

The patient has a rotational stress fracture of the proximal humeral physis (Little Leaguer’s shoulder). The symptoms of increasing pain with activity and relief with rest are typical of a stress injury. Treatment should consist of cessation of throwing activity but rehabilitation of the shoulder girdle muscles. The pitching technique should be evaluated as well.

Question 1002

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Complications following a reverse shoulder prosthesis occur most frequently when performed for what diagnosis? Review Topic

. Rotator cuff tear arthropathy with superior escape
. Massive rotator cuff tear with osteoarthritis
. Fracture-dislocation of the glenohumeral joint
. Four-part proximal humeral fractures
. Failed shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotator cuff tear arthropathy with superior escape


Explanation

Revision following failed shoulder arthroplasty is associated with the highest complication rates, including dislocation, loosening, and decreased function. However, when performed for rotator cuff tear arthropathy or failed rotator cuff repairs, the complication rate is reasonably low. The complication rate is unknown when the reverse total shoulder is used for fracture-dislocation or acute four-part fractures of the proximal humerus.

Question 1003

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old accountant and recreational softball player, who is seen at the end of his baseball season, reports a several month history of pain along the medial side of his dominant elbow. He cannot identify a specific injury and notes it only hurts when he throws the ball in from the outfield. Besides the pain, he remarks that his speed and distance while throwing have diminished considerably. Examination reveals tenderness along the medial elbow but no weakness or gross instability is found. Radiographs are normal. Based on the history, what is the most likely diagnosis? Review Topic

. Ulnar neuritis
. Pronator syndrome
. Medial epicondylitis
. Medial collateral ligament sprain
. Varus extension overload

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar neuritis


Explanation

Throwing athletes frequently develop medial collateral ligament sprain related to the repeated valgus stress that occurs on the medial elbow during the acceleration phase of throwing. This has the effect of not only causing pain, but also resulting in loss of velocity and distance during the throwing activity. The injury is generally well tolerated in most activities of daily living and only becomes problematic during the vigorous, stressful act of throwing. Absence of neurologic signs or symptoms makes ulnar nerve pathology unlikely. Pronator syndrome causes pain on the volar aspect ofthe forearm during resisted forearm pronation and is not associated with the throwing motion in particular. Valgus extension overload may mimic medial collateral ligament injury, not varus extension injuries. Medial epicondylitis may be confused with ligament insufficiency but the examination and a history of pain only while throwing make this an unlikely diagnosis.

Question 1004

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus who underwent a total shoulder arthroplasty for degenerative arthritis 5 years ago now reports the sudden onset of shoulder pain following recent hospitalization for pneumonia. Laboratory values show a WBC count of 11,400/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 52mm/h. What is the most appropriate action?
. Begin a stretching program.
. Obtain shoulder radiographs and aspirate the shoulder joint.
. Obtain an MRI scan to evaluate for a rotator cuff tear.
. Schedule for irrigation and debridement.
. Schedule for revision shoulder arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain shoulder radiographs and aspirate the shoulder joint.


Explanation

The patient has the preliminary diagnosis of an infected shoulder arthroplasty; therefore, shoulder radiographs and joint aspiration for organism identification should be the first steps in the work-up. The patient is at risk for hematogenous spread given the recent history of pneumonia and her history of diabetes mellitus. Although she has stiffness, a stretching program is not indicated with the possibility of infection. Scheduling for revision arthroplasty, or irrigation and debridement will depend on multiple factors including identification of the infecting organism, the organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics, and implant stability.

Question 1005

Topic: Shoulder Pathology
The clinical photograph shows a palsy of what nerve/associated muscle?
. Long thoracic/rhomboid
. Long thoracic/serratus anterior
. Long thoracic/supraspinatus
. Dorsal scapular/trapezius
. Spinal accessory/trapezius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic/serratus anterior


Explanation

The clinical picture reveals medial scapular winging, which involves the serratus anterior muscle, potentially due to an injury to the long thoracic nerve that innervates this muscle. Injury to the long thoracic nerve is usually due to closed trauma, direct compression, traction or stretching injury, a direct blow, or, very rarely, viral infection such as Parsonage-Turner syndrome. The nerve is easily injured in surgical dissection of the axilla, and is predisposed to injury due to its relatively long course, it is small in diameter, and it has little surrounding connective tissue.

Question 1006

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
When performing a Green transfer for cerebral palsy—flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)—in addition to improving wrist extension, what other motion may be improved if the FCU is routed around the ulna instead of through the interosseous membrane?
. Thumb extension
. Forearm supination
. Finger extension
. Forearm pronation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Forearm supination


Explanation

The typical upper extremity deformity in spastic hemiplegic cerebral palsy consists of shoulder internal rotation, elbow flexion, forearm pronation and wrist flexion, and ulnar deviation. The pronation position of the forearm can make bimanual activities more challenging for the child. The wrist flexion and ulnar deviation deformity interferes with finger function and therefore with grasp and release patterns. By transferring the FCU tendon to the ECRB, the deforming force is released, and central wrist extension is augmented. This transfer can lead to a supination moment when it is routed around the ulna to the ECRB insertion on the dorsum of the wrist. Thumb and finger extension are not affected by an FCU-to-ECRB tendon transfer. Forearm supination, not pronation, is potentially improved with this tendon transfer.

Question 1007

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Ulnohumeral distraction interposition arthroplasty is considered the most appropriate treatment for which of the following patients?
. A 41-year-old man with painful posttraumatic arthritis of the elbow
. A 45-year-old laborer with painful primary osteoarthritis
. A 51-year-old patient with polyarticular rheumatoid arthritis and multiple joint involvement
. A 71-year-old woman with stage IV rheumatoid arthritis of the elbow
. A 71-year-old patient with painful radiocapitellar arthritis from rheumatoid arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 41-year-old man with painful posttraumatic arthritis of the elbow


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Distraction interposition arthroplasty is indicated for the treatment of both rheumatoid and posttraumatic arthritis and is reserved for younger patients who are not suitable candidates for total elbow arthroplasty. Although less reliable than prosthetic replacement, distraction interposition arthroplasty is a useful option in the treatment of young, high-demand patients with elbow arthritis. It is rarely indicated in the presence of polyarticular inflammatory arthritis but may be of value in those patients in whom the disease is limited primarily to the elbow. Isolated radiocapitellar arthritis can be successfully treated with radial head resection, although caution should be exercised if there is evidence of instability. Osteoarthritis is best treated with ulnohumeral arthroplasty.

Question 1008

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Figure 11 shows the radiograph of a 3-year-old girl who sustained a proximal radius injury. Appropriate initial management should include:
. open reduction.
. closed reduction and transarticular pinning.
. closed reduction.
. a sling and early range of motion.
. radial head excision.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. closed reduction.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a displaced radial neck fracture. Displaced radial neck fractures with angulation of more than 30° to 45° require reduction. Methods of attempted closed reduction include wrapping the arm with an Esmarch’s bandage and applying direct pressure over the maximum deformity of the radial head. More aggressive methods include a Kirschner wire used as a joystick or intramedullary reduction as described by the Metaizeau technique. Open reduction should be avoided because of complications such as stiffness or osteonecrosis. Indications for open reduction are irreducible displacement of more than 45° with severe restriction of forearm rotation.

Question 1009

Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 20-year-old man sustained a scapular fracture after attempting to grab a beam as he fell through a ceiling at a job site 3 months ago. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 36. He now reports pain in the anterior shoulder and difficulty with overhead activities. What nerve roots make up the involved peripheral nerve?
. C3-T1
. C4-C5
. C5-C7
. C6-C8
. C8-T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5-C7


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient sustained an injury to the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior. Branches of C5 and C6 enter the scalenus medius, unite in the muscle, and emerge as a single trunk and pass down the axilla. On the surface of the serratus anterior, the long thoracic nerve is joined by the branch from C7 and descends in front of the serratus anterior, providing segmental innervation to the serratus anterior.

Question 1010

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The relocation test is most reliable for diagnosing anterior subluxation of the glenohumeral joint when
. posterior pressure placed on the humeral head results in increased pain.
. external rotation with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction produces apprehension that is relieved by posterior pressure on the humeral head.
. external rotation with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction produces pain that is relieved by posterior pressure on the humeral head.
. external rotation with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction produces no symptoms, but posterior pressure on the humeral head produces pain and apprehension.
. external rotation with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction produces no symptoms, but posterior pressure on the humeral head produces apprehension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. external rotation with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction produces apprehension that is relieved by posterior pressure on the humeral head.


Explanation

The relocation test is most accurate when true apprehension is produced with the arm in combined abduction and external rotation and then relieved when posterior pressure is placed on the humeral head. Pain with this test is a less specific response and may occur with other shoulder disorders such as impingement.

Question 1011

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The incidence of ipsilateral phrenic nerve blockade after an interscalene block approaches
. 15%.
. 25%.
. 50%.
. 75%.
. 100%.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 100%.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common side effect of an interscalene block is ipsilateral phrenic nerve blockade. The phrenic nerve arises chiefly from the fourth cervical ramus (with contributions from the third and fifth) and is the sole motor supply to the diaphragm. Phrenic nerve palsy usually is well tolerated in healthy patients but should be avoided in patients with limited pulmonary function (severe restrictive or obstructive lung disease, myasthenia gravis, or contralateral hemidiaphragmatic dysfunction). The incidence of ipsilateral phrenic nerve blockade after interscalene block approaches 100%. REFERENCES: Long T, Wass C, Burkle C: Perioperative interscalene blockade: An overview of its history and current clinical use. J Clin Anesthesia 2002;14;546-556. Norris T (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Shoulder and Elbow 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 433-442.

Question 1012

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 68-year-old man had a 3-year history of shoulder pain that failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Examination reveals forward elevation to 120 degrees and external rotation to 30 degrees. True AP and axillary radiographs and an axial CT scan are shown in Figures 1a through 1c. What management option would lead to the best long-term results?
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic debridement
. Glenoid osteotomy and interposition arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs and CT scan reveal osteoarthritis with posterior subluxation and posterior bone loss. Total shoulder arthroplasty with reaming of the high side to neutralize the glenoid surface has been shown to yield better results than hemiarthroplasty. The amount of bone loss in this patient does not require posterior glenoid augmentation. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated for rotator cuff tear arthropathy; therefore, it is not applicable. Arthroscopic debridement has yielded poor results with advanced osteoarthritis and posterior subluxation. Results from glenoid osteotomy have been variable and glenoid osteotomy is not indicated with associated osteoarthritis. REFERENCES: Iannotti JP, Norris TR: Influence of preoperative factors on outcome of shoulder arthroplasty for glenohumeral osteoarthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:251-258. Rodosky MW, Bigliani LU: Indications for glenoid resurfacing in shoulder arthroplasty. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:231-248.

Question 1013

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 30-year-old right hand-dominant woman is seen in the trauma unit after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. She sustained a right shoulder anterior dislocation that is gently reduced under sedation. A CT scan is shown in Figure 3. If left untreated, the patient is at greatest risk for
. axillary neuropathy.
. recurrent instability.
. shoulder girdle weakness.
. luxatio erecta.
. biceps tendinitis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. recurrent instability.


Explanation

Discussion: Large, displaced anterior inferior glenoid rim fractures predispose patients to recurrent anterior instability due to loss of the normal concavity compression effect of the glenoid. These defects require open reduction and internal fixation to reestablish shoulder stability. Although intra-articular fractures may lead to arthrosis, recurrent instability is more common.

Question 1014

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using a modified Jobe technique

. Paresthesias in the fourth and fifth digits
. Numbness on the lateral side of the forearm
. Heterotopic ossification
. Posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous neuroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Paresthesias in the fourth and fifth digits


Explanation

DISCUSSIONCertain complications are more strongly associated with the approach and surgical procedure for elbow pathology. With a 2-incision distal biceps repair, heterotopic ossificationwith a radial-ulnar synostosis is a concern. This complication can be minimized through irrigation of bone debris and care to avoid dissection between the radius and ulna. With a single-incision distal biceps repair, the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is retracted during the procedure. Numbness on the lateral side of the forearm is common, although often temporary. During arthroscopic debridement for lateral epicondylitis, injury to the radial UCL can occur, leading to posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow. The modified Jobe technique for UCL reconstruction typically involves an ulnar nerve transposition during the procedure. Numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth digits are concerns when this procedure is performed.

Question 1015

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
When conducted at near physiologic strain rates, tensile studies of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) have shown that the
. anterior band of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness and the glenoid insertion site shows greater strain than the ligament midsubstance.
. anterior band of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness and the ligament midsubstance shows greater strain than the glenoid insertion site.
. axillary pouch of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness and the glenoid insertion site shows greater strain than the ligament midsubstance.
. axillary pouch of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness and the ligament midsubstance shows greater strain than the glenoid insertion site.
. posterior portion of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness and the glenoid insertion site shows greater strain than the ligament midsubstance.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. anterior band of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness and the glenoid insertion site shows greater strain than the ligament midsubstance.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Tensile testing of the inferior glenohumeral ligament at near physiologic strain rates has shown that the anterior band of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness of the three ligament regions and the glenoid insertion site shows greater strain than the ligament midsubstance. REFERENCES: Bigliani LU, Pollock RG, Soslowsky LJ, Flatow EL, Pawluk RJ, Mow VC: Tensile properties of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. J Orthop Res 1992;10:187-197. Ticker JB, Bigliani LU, Soslowsky LJ, Pawluk RJ, Flatow EL, Mow VC: Inferior glenohumeral ligament: Geometric and strain-rate dependent properties. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:269-279.

Question 1016

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The superior glenohumeral ligament primarily restrains
. posterior translation of the humeral head with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction.
. inferior translation of the humeral head with the arm in adduction.
. anterior translation of the humeral head in 90 degrees of abduction.
. anterior translation of the humeral head with the arm in 45 degrees of abduction.
. anterior translation of the humeral head with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction and external rotation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. inferior translation of the humeral head with the arm in adduction.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Several cutting studies have evaluated the primary static restraints and the role of the glenohumeral ligaments in providing static stability. With the arm at the side in adduction, the superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament are the primary restraints to inferior translation. The middle glenohumeral ligament functions with the arm in 45 degrees of abduction and resists anterior translation. The inferior glenohumeral ligament is the primary restraint to anterior translation at 90 degrees of abduction. REFERENCES: Warner JJ, Deng XH, Warren RF, et al: Static capsuloligamentous restraints to superior-inferior translation of the glenohumeral joint. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:675-685. Griffin LY (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 165-177.

Question 1017

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A patient has had a locked posterior dislocation of the shoulder for the past 6 months. After undergoing total shoulder arthroplasty that includes adequate anterior releases and posterior capsulorrhaphy, the patient still exhibits posterior instability intraoperatively. The postoperative rehabilitation regimen should include:
. use of a sling with no range-of-motion exercises until the condition is stable.
. use of a sling and passive range-of-motion exercises within the limits of the repair.
. no sling and supine passive range-of-motion exercises.
. an internal rotation brace holding the arm at the side.
. an external rotation brace holding the arm at the side.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. an external rotation brace holding the arm at the side.


Explanation

Achieving stability in chronic locked posterior dislocations of the shoulder remains a difficult challenge. Intraoperative measures include decreased humeral retroversion, anterior releases, and posterior capsular tightening. Postoperative rehabilitation is of equal importance. Immobilization in an external rotation brace (10 degrees to 15 degrees) with the arm at the side for 4 to 6 weeks is recommended to decrease tension in the posterior capsule. When passive range-of-motion exercises are instituted, they should be performed in the plane of the scapula to avoid stress posteriorly. Internal rotation and supine elevation should be avoided for similar reasons.

Question 1018

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Figure 37 shows the clinical photograph of a 1-day-old infant who weighed 10.25 lb at birth. Examination reveals an absent right Moro reflex and limited active motion of the right shoulder, elbow, and wrist, but flexion of the fingers. Passive range of motion of the shoulder and elbow is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Pseudoparalysis secondary to fracture of the proximal humerus
. Cervical myelomeningocele
. Erb palsy
. Arthrogryposis
. Cerebral palsy and spastic hemiplegia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erb palsy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient’s right upper extremity is held in the “head waiter’s” posture with the shoulder internally rotated, the elbow extended, and the wrist in flexion. The Erb type of obstetrical brachial plexus palsy involves the C5 and C6 nerve root, and occasionally, as in this child, the C7 nerve root. Obstetrical palsy is a traction injury, and is associated with a high birth weight, shoulder dystocia, cephalopelvic disproportion, or the use of forceps. Erb palsy is four times more common than injury to the entire plexus or injury to the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It results from the shoulder being depressed while the head and neck are laterally rotated, extended, and tilted in the opposite direction. Most patients recover wrist extension and elbow flexion. Patients with residual weakness of shoulder external rotation and abduction will benefit from release of the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, with transfer of the latissimus dorsi and the teres major to the posterosuperior aspect of the rotator cuff. Recent studies using arthrograms and CT scans have shown a higher incidence of posterior glenoid deficiency and posterior subluxation than that observed with plain radiographs. The posterior subluxation or dislocation can be effectively reduced by tendon release and transfer procedures. REFERENCES: Hoffer MM, Phipps GJ: Closed reduction and tendon transfer for treatment of dislocation of the glenohumeral joint secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:997-1001. Pearl ML, Edgerton BW: Glenoid deformity secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:659-667. Waters PM, Smith GR, Jaramillo D: Glenohumeral deformity secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:668-677.

Question 1019

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 35-year-old woman presents with an elbow injury which includes a coronoid fracture involving more than 50%, a comminuted radial head fracture, and an elbow dislocation. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Closed reduction and early range of motion
. Radial head resection and lateral collateral ligament reconstruction
. Radial head resection and coronoid open reduction internal fixation
. Radial head arthroplasty and coronoid open reduction internal fixation
. Radial head arthroplasty, coronoid open reduction internal fixation, and lateral collateral ligament repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial head arthroplasty, coronoid open reduction internal fixation, and lateral collateral ligament repair


Explanation

A terrible triad of the elbow includes dislocation of the elbow with associated fractures of the radial head and the coronoid process. Ring et al. stressed that these injuries are prone to complications and advised against resection of the radial head due to instability, and instead recommended a radial head replacement if too comminuted for ORIF. Coronoid fractures compromise elbow stability as well and require open reduction and internal fixation as with the lateral collateral ligament. McKee et al. showed stable elbows in 34/36 with mean Mayo elbow score of 88 when the standard protocol of coronoid ORIF, radial head repair/replacement, and LCL repair were employed.

Question 1020

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Closure of the rotator cuff interval results in elimination of which direction of shoulder instability?
. Posterosuperior
. Posteroinferior
. Anterosuperior
. Anteroinferior
. Multidirectional

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteroinferior


Explanation

The rotator cuff interval consists of the superior glenohumeral and coracohumeral ligaments. Injury to this ligament complex leads to posteroinferior shoulder instability. Tightening of these tissues through surgical means has been shown to result in a significant reduction in posteroinferior translation of the humerus in relation to the glenoid.