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Question 81

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

In a patient with posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow, what is the key deficient structure causing this pathology?

. Medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Interosseous membrane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

PLRI of the elbow is primarily caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). This leads to abnormal rotatory subluxation of the ulna relative to the trochlea.

Question 82

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 19-year-old football lineman presents with a stinger (burner) after a direct impact to the neck and shoulder. Symptoms typically resolve within minutes. Which nerve roots are most commonly involved in this traction injury?

. C3 and C4
. C5 and C6
. C7 and C8
. C8 and T1
. T1 and T2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 and C6


Explanation

A "stinger" or "burner" is typically a traction injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, primarily affecting the C5 and C6 nerve roots. It results in transient unilateral arm pain, numbness, and weakness.

Question 83

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A collegiate baseball pitcher presents with chronic medial elbow pain and a decline in pitching velocity. A moving valgus stress test is positive. Which specific ligamentous bundle is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion?

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Annular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. It is the most commonly injured structure in overhead throwing athletes presenting with medial elbow pain.

Question 84

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old male feels a sudden pop in his anterior elbow while lifting a heavy box. On examination, what is the most sensitive and specific clinical test for diagnosing a complete distal biceps tendon rupture?

. Positive Speed's test
. Positive Yergason's test
. Absent hook test
. Positive Ludington's test
. Weakness in elbow extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Absent hook test


Explanation

The hook test is highly sensitive and specific for detecting distal biceps tendon ruptures. An intact tendon allows the examiner to hook their index finger under its lateral edge, which is absent in complete ruptures.

Question 85

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A fourteen-year-old little league pitcher has lateral elbow pain that is worsened by throwing. Plain radiographs demonstrate fragmentation of the capitellum with no evidence of a loose body. A presumptive diagnosis of osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum has been made. He has undergone rest, followed by physical therapy over the past three months. Now range of motion is from 30 to 120, and pain is present when attempting to throw. The next appropriate step is:

. Extension Dyna-Splint at night time
. Aggressive range of motion with physical therapy and iontophoresis
. Rest until skeletal maturity is reached, and further re-evaluation
. Arthroscopy of the elbow with debridement of defect
. Open reduction and internal fixation of capitellar fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopy of the elbow with debridement of defect


Explanation

This patient has osteochondritits dissecans of the capitellum from pitching. OC D of the capitellum differs from Panner's disease, which is a osteochondrosis of the capitellum which occurs at a younger age (7-12) and is less symptomatic. Initial treatment of osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum is rest and occasional splinting. Arthroscopy is indicated for both detached lesions and those who have failed conservative therapy. The entire joint should be a assessed, loose fragments removed and the subchondral bone of the defect is debrieded to a healthy vascular bed.

Question 86

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

The primary stabilizer of the elbow to valgus stress is:

. The posterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. The transverse bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. The inferior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. The superior bundle of the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The medial collateral ligament complex of the elbow consists of three parts: the anterior, posterior, and transverse segments or bundles. The anterior bundle is the most distinct portion. The posterior bundle/segment is a thickening of the capsule and notable only at 90 degrees of flexion. The transverse component or ligament of C ooper appears to contribute little to elbow stability. There are no inferior or superior bundles.

Question 87

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

If a distal biceps tendon avulsion is not repaired or reconstructed, what is the likely result:

. Loss of 90% of flexion an 20 % of supination strength
. No loss of flexion strength and 40% loss of supination strength
. 20% loss of flexion strength and no loss of supination strength
. No significant clinical deficit will occur
. 20% loss of flexion and 40% loss of supination strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20% loss of flexion and 40% loss of supination strength


Explanation

Untreated distal biceps rupture results in a loss of about 20% flexion and 40% supination strength.

Question 88

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Fibrinous degradation in which muscle insertion most commonly characterizes lateral epicondylitis or tennis elbow:

. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
. Extensor carpi radialis longus
. Extensor carpi ulnaris
. Brachioradialis
. Extensor digitourm longus complex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor carpi radialis brevis


Explanation

Degeneration at the extensor muscle group insertion to the lateral epicondyle, primarily the extensor carpi radialis brevis, can be a result of overuse or poor technique in racket sports. Tenderness to palpation at the insertion of the extensor carpi radialis brevis and pain with resisted wrist extension are common findings.

Question 89

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A collegiate tennis player has undergone surgery for recalcitrant tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis). He now complains of clicking, catching, and "slipping out of joint" of the elbow. Examination reveals a positive "pivot shift" test of the elbow with normal motion. Radiograph examination is normal. The primary stabilizer of the elbow that is damaged in this patient giving rise to his symptoms of posterolateral rotatory instability is:

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament
. Medial collateral
. Posterior capsule of the elbow
. Common extensor muscle attachment to the lateral epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

This patient has incompetence of the lateral ligamentous constraint to the elbow. The most common causes for this injury are previous dislocations and iatrogenic approaches to the lateral elbow. Up to 25% of cases of failed tennis elbow surgery are associated with lateral ligamentous insufficiency. The lateral ulnar collateral ligament has been shown to be the primary restraint to posterolateral instability of the elbow.

Question 90

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 56-year-old competitive triathelete fell off his bicycle and sustained a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. The dislocation was reduced in the emergency room. No associated fractures were noted. A magnetic resonance image examination would be judicious in this patient to:

. Assess the capsuloligamentous integrity of the shoulder
. Assess for glenoid labrum tears
. Assess the integrity of the articular cartilage
. Assess the integrity of the rotator cuff
. Evaluate the bone for occult fractures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Assess the integrity of the rotator cuff


Explanation

Rotator cuff tears may accompany anterior and inferior glenohumeral dislocations. The frequency of this complication increases with age. In patients older than 40 years incidence exceeds 30%; in patients older than 60 years, the incidence exceeds 80%. Shoulder ultrasound, arthrography or MRI is indicated in patients over 40 years of age, with a shoulder dislocation. Prompt repair of these lesions is usually indicated.

Question 91

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During a diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy, the surgeon notes an absent anterosuperior labrum and a thick, cord-like middle glenohumeral ligament. This anatomic variant, which should not be surgically repaired to the glenoid, is known as:

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. Buford complex
. GLAD lesion
. SLAP lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Buford complex


Explanation

The Buford complex is a normal anatomic variant seen in a small percentage of shoulders. It consists of a cord-like middle glenohumeral ligament and an absent anterosuperior labrum, and erroneously "repairing" it to the glenoid will severely restrict external rotation.

Question 92

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

In the design and biomechanics of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA), moving the center of rotation medially and inferiorly achieves which of the following?

. Decreases the moment arm of the deltoid muscle
. Increases shear forces at the glenoid bone-implant interface
. Increases the tension and mechanical advantage of the deltoid muscle
. Restores normal anatomical version of the glenoid
. Allows the rotator cuff to become the primary elevator of the arm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the tension and mechanical advantage of the deltoid muscle


Explanation

RTSA medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, which increases the deltoid muscle's moment arm and tension. This allows the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm in the absence of a functioning rotator cuff.

Question 93

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During the late cocking phase of the throwing motion in an elite baseball pitcher, which structure is subjected to the highest tensile forces?

. Posterior band of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Anterior band of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Annular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. It experiences the highest tensile forces during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing.

Question 94

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old bodybuilder undergoes a two-incision surgical repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture. Compared to the single-incision anterior approach, the two-incision approach is historically associated with a higher risk of which of the following complications?

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve palsy
. Posterior interosseous nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis
. Median nerve entrapment
. Recurrent tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis


Explanation

The two-incision technique avoids anterior structures, lowering LACN and PIN injury rates, but carries a higher risk of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis due to subperiosteal dissection of the ulna.

Question 95

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with shoulder pain and a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to his non-throwing shoulder. This deficit is most commonly attributed to contracture of which anatomical structure?

. Anterior inferior capsule
. Posterior inferior capsule
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Pectoralis minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior capsule


Explanation

GIRD in overhead throwers is primarily caused by repetitive microtrauma leading to contracture and thickening of the posterior inferior glenohumeral capsule.

Question 96

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Osteochondritis dissecans of the elbow most commonly occurs at this location:

. Trochlea
. Olecranon
. Capitellum
. Radial head
. Coronoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Capitellum


Explanation

Osteochondritis dissecans of the elbow is most common in adolescent and pre-adolescent individuals who participate in sports that place an excessive amount of load on the radiocapitellar joint (e.g., baseball pitching, gymnastics). Factors involved in the development of this entity include repetitive microtrauma and a tenuous capitellar blood supply. Treatment may involve arthroscopic removal of loose bodies.

Question 97

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

When examining an individual for suspected posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint, a posteriorly directed force is applied with the arm in this position:

. Abduction, external rotation
. Abduction, internal rotation
. Adduction, internal rotation
. Forward flexion, internal rotation
. Forward flexion, external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Forward flexion, internal rotation


Explanation

The appropriate position for testing posterior stability of the glenohumeral joint is 90° of forward flexion and internal rotation.

Question 98

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

All of the following are reported complications following the surgical treatment of medial epicondylitis except:

. Ulnar neuritis
. Injury to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Permanent flexor mass weakness
. Injury to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
. Injury to the ulnar collateral ligament (UC L)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Injury to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)


Explanation

The potential complications associated with the surgical treatment of medial tendon injuries primarily involve the structures surrounding the medial epicondyle. The most frequent complications involve the ulnar nerve. Careful dissection through the subcutaneous tissues must be performed so that the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve can be isolated and protected. Extensive release of the flexor-pronator mass can lead to permanent flexor weakness, as well as detachment of the UC L from the medial epicondyle. The PIN is located on the lateral side of the elbow and its injury is not a reported complication associated with medial epicondylar debridement.

Question 99

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year old female collegiate swimmer has suffered from pain in her right shoulder and inability to compete for the last 9 months. She has been diagnosed with multidirectional instability. Physical therapy for 7 months has failed, and she wishes to swim competitively again. Assuming the diagnosis is correct, the next step should be:

. Bankhart capsulolabral repair
. Posterior capsular shift
. Bristow procedure (coracoid process transfer)
. Inferior capsular shift
. Superior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior capsular shift


Explanation

Initial treatment of multidirectional instability is with rehabilitation. These patients, who have loose capsules, often rely on dynamic stabilizing mechanisms rather than tight ligamentous constraint. If surgery is to be performed, the procedure of choice is the inferior capsular shift, originally described by Neer. It reduces the volume of the glenohumeral joint inferiorly, anteriorly, and posteriorly by equalizing capsular tightness on all three sides.

Question 100

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with vague shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals 25 degrees of internal rotation loss and 5 degrees of external rotation gain compared to the non-throwing shoulder. Which of the following anatomic adaptations is most likely responsible for this Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD)?

. Anterior capsular contracture
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament contracture
. Increased humeral retroversion
. Coracohumeral ligament contracture
. Superior labral tearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament contracture


Explanation

Pathologic GIRD is primarily caused by contracture and thickening of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) and posterior capsule. This contracture shifts the glenohumeral contact point posterosuperiorly during the throwing motion.