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Question 801

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old competitive weightlifter presents with insidious onset of right shoulder pain, exacerbated by the bench press and cross-body adduction. Radiographs show subchondral cysts, osteopenia, and microfractures of the distal clavicle. What is the initial treatment of choice for this condition?

. Distal clavicle excision
. Corticosteroid injection into the glenohumeral joint
. Activity modification and NSAIDs
. Acromioplasty
. CC ligament reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activity modification and NSAIDs


Explanation

The patient has osteolysis of the distal clavicle ('weightlifter\'s shoulder'). Initial management is always nonoperative, consisting of rest, activity modification (avoiding bench press/dips), and NSAIDs.

Question 802

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 25-year-old office worker sustains a Rockwood Type III acromioclavicular joint separation. Compared to acute operative repair, nonoperative management of this injury is most consistently associated with which of the following outcomes?
. Higher rates of chronic pain
. Equivalent long-term functional scores
. Decreased range of motion
. Higher rates of adhesive capsulitis
. Markedly reduced shoulder strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Equivalent long-term functional scores


Explanation

Multiple studies comparing operative and nonoperative management of acute Type III AC joint injuries demonstrate equivalent long-term functional scores. Operative management generally carries a higher risk of complications and reoperation.

Question 803

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

When obtaining a Zanca view to radiographically evaluate an acute acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury, what is the proper positioning of the X-ray beam?

. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad tilt with 50% of the standard shoulder X-ray penetrance.
. 10 to 15 degrees caudad tilt with 100% of the standard shoulder X-ray penetrance.
. 30 to 45 degrees cephalad tilt with 50% of the standard shoulder X-ray penetrance.
. Parallel to the scapular spine with reduced penetrance.
. Orthogonal to the clavicular shaft with increased penetrance.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad tilt with 50% of the standard shoulder X-ray penetrance.


Explanation

The Zanca view requires the X-ray beam to be directed 10 to 15 degrees cephalad. Penetrance is reduced to approximately 50% of a standard AP shoulder view to avoid over-penetrating the AC joint.

Question 804

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A patient with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes an MR arthrogram. The radiologist notes a "U-shaped" dependent pouch of the axillary recess and extravasation of contrast into the soft tissues inferior to the glenohumeral joint. Which lesion does this specific finding describe?

. Perthes lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. HAGL lesion
. GLAD lesion
. SLAP tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. HAGL lesion


Explanation

A HAGL (Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament) lesion involves tearing of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral insertion. On MR arthrogram, this disrupts the normal "J-shape" of the axillary recess, turning it into a "U-shape" with contrast extravasation inferiorly.

Question 805

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

An 18-year-old male sustains a shoulder dislocation and subsequent recurrent instability. An MR arthrogram demonstrates extravasation of contrast into the axilla with a normal-appearing anterior labrum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. SLAP tear
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. HAGL lesion


Explanation

Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) presents with an intact labrum but an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humeral neck. The classic MRI finding is a 'J-sign' with contrast extravasation into the axillary pouch.

Question 806

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 31-year-old male is treated for an acute, first-time posterior shoulder dislocation. Following closed reduction, which immobilization position is most biomechanically favorable to promote healing of the posterior capsulolabral structures?

. Internal rotation and adduction
. External rotation and slight abduction
. Neutral rotation and full abduction
. Internal rotation and full forward flexion
. Neutral rotation and maximal extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation and slight abduction


Explanation

Immobilization in slight external rotation and abduction reduces stress on the posterior capsule. This position promotes optimal coaptation of the posterior labrum to the glenoid, improving the chance of anatomic healing.

Question 807

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During physical examination of a 20-year-old female gymnast with multidirectional shoulder instability (MDI), a 'sulcus sign' is elicited in neutral rotation and adduction. Which primary capsuloligamentous structures are being evaluated with this specific test?

. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Transverse humeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The sulcus sign tests inferior instability. In adduction and neutral rotation, the primary restraints to inferior translation are the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), also known as the rotator interval structures.

Question 808

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 23-year-old rugby player has recurrent shoulder instability. Magnetic Resonance Imaging reveals a torn anterior glenohumeral ligament that has avulsed directly from the humeral neck, with an associated loss of the normal U-shaped axillary pouch. What is the proper acronym for this lesion?

. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. SLAP lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. HAGL lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion occurs when the capsule and inferior glenohumeral ligament complex tear off the humeral neck. This manifests on MRI as a 'J-sign', representing the conversion of the normal U-shaped axillary pouch into a J-shape.

Question 809

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 29-year-old female presents with chronic shoulder pain, swelling, and mechanical catching. MRI demonstrates a lobulated intra-articular mass with a 'blooming' artifact. Which of the following MRI sequences best highlights this specific artifact?

. T1-weighted fast spin echo
. T2-weighted with fat suppression
. Short tau inversion recovery (STIR)
. Gradient recalled echo (GRE)
. Proton density without fat suppression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gradient recalled echo (GRE)


Explanation

The 'blooming' artifact is characteristic of pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS/TGCT) due to hemosiderin deposition. Gradient recalled echo (GRE) sequences are highly sensitive to magnetic susceptibility effects, making hemosiderin appear larger and darker.

Question 810

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old male sustains a severe shoulder dislocation. MRI arthrogram demonstrates extravasation of contrast into the axillary pouch with an intact anterior labrum. A 'J-sign' is noted on the coronal sequences.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

. GLAD lesion
. Superior labrum anterior-posterior (SLAP) tear
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)
. Perthes lesion
. Kim lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) is indicated by the 'J-sign' on a coronal MRI arthrogram, where contrast extends inferiorly due to the loss of the normal U-shape of the inferior capsular pouch when it avulses from the humerus.

Question 811

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 19-year-old gymnast is diagnosed with multidirectional instability (MDI) of the shoulder. She has failed 6 months of targeted physical therapy.

If surgical intervention is pursued, an arthroscopic capsular shift is performed. Closure of the rotator interval during this procedure primarily limits which motion?

. Internal rotation at 0 degrees of abduction
. External rotation and inferior translation
. Forward elevation
. Horizontal adduction
. Superior migration of the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation and inferior translation


Explanation

Closure of the rotator interval limits external rotation and inferior translation of the humeral head. It is a critical step in addressing the patulous capsule often seen in patients with MDI.

Question 812

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 55-year-old male sustains an acute anterior shoulder dislocation. Following closed reduction, he has profound weakness in external rotation and a positive Hornblower's sign, but imaging shows no rotator cuff tear. Which of the following concomitant injuries most likely explains these specific physical exam findings?

. Musculocutaneous nerve injury
. Spinal accessory nerve injury
. Axillary nerve injury affecting the teres minor
. Suprascapular nerve injury affecting the infraspinatus
. Long thoracic nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve injury affecting the teres minor


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during anterior shoulder dislocation. It innervates the deltoid and the teres minor. Injury isolated to the axillary nerve can lead to external rotation weakness and a positive Hornblower's sign due to teres minor denervation.

Question 813

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 9-year-old patient presents with a displaced lateral condyle fracture. During open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF), the surgeon is meticulously clearing the fracture hematoma and preparing for reduction. Which of the following surgical maneuvers carries the highest risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the capitellum?

. Utilizing a direct lateral incision exploiting the internervous plane between the anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris.
. Gently manipulating the metaphyseal fragment with a dental pick to achieve anatomic reduction.
. Aggressively stripping soft tissue attachments from the posterior aspect of the lateral condyle to improve visualization.
. Fixing the fracture with two divergent smooth Kirschner wires (K-wires) achieving bicortical purchase.
. Repairing the joint capsule and extensor aponeurosis meticulously with absorbable sutures after fixation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aggressively stripping soft tissue attachments from the posterior aspect of the lateral condyle to improve visualization.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe teaching case explicitly highlights the critical vascular anatomy of the lateral condyle: 'The capitellum receives its primary blood supply from posterior end-arteries that enter the non-articular posterior aspect of the lateral condyle. There is no significant collateral circulation. Consequently, aggressive posterior soft tissue dissection during open reduction risks devascularizing the fragment, leading to avascular necrosis (AVN) of the capitellum.' Therefore, aggressively stripping soft tissue attachments from the posterior aspect of the lateral condyle is the maneuver with the highest risk of AVN.Option A is incorrect:The direct lateral incision utilizing the internervous plane between the anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris (Kocher interval) is the standard and safe approach for lateral condyle fractures.Option B is incorrect:Gentle manipulation of the metaphyseal fragment with instruments like a dental pick or skin hook is a standard technique for achieving reduction and does not inherently risk AVN if performed carefully.Option D is incorrect:Fixation with two divergent smooth K-wires achieving bicortical purchase is the recommended and biomechanically stable method of internal fixation, not a cause of AVN.Option E is incorrect:Meticulous repair of the joint capsule and extensor aponeurosis is a crucial step to prevent late soft tissue prominence and does not contribute to AVN.

Question 814

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 5-year-old child sustains a lateral condyle fracture. The fracture fragment, which is largely cartilaginous at this age, includes the lateral metaphysis and the entire capitellum. Which of the following statements accurately describes the anatomical and biomechanical considerations relevant to this injury?

. The capitellum is the last ossification center to appear in the distal humerus, making it prone to physeal injury.
. The 'pull-off' theory suggests an axial load through the radius drives the radial head into the capitellum.
. Standard radiographs consistently overestimate the true size of the fractured segment due to the cartilaginous nature of the fragment.
. The fracture fragment invariably includes the lateral metaphysis, the entire capitellum, and a variable portion of the lateral trochlear ridge.
. The primary blood supply to the capitellum is from anterior collateral arteries, making posterior dissection safe.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The fracture fragment invariably includes the lateral metaphysis, the entire capitellum, and a variable portion of the lateral trochlear ridge.


Explanation

Correct Answer: DThe teaching case states: 'At the typical age of injury (6 to 10 years), the lateral condyle is largely cartilaginous. The fracture fragment invariably includes the lateral metaphysis, the entire capitellum, and a variable portion of the lateral trochlear ridge.' This accurately describes the anatomical components of the fracture fragment.Option A is incorrect:The capitellum is thefirstossification center to appear (1-2 years), not the last. The external (lateral) epicondyle is the last (10-12 years).Option B is incorrect:The 'pull-off' theory suggests a varus force applied to an extended elbow causes avulsion by the lateral collateral ligament complex and common extensor origin. The 'push-off' theory describes the axial load through the radius.Option C is incorrect:Standard radiographs consistentlyunderestimatethe true size of the fractured segment because the majority of the fragment is radiolucent cartilage.Option E is incorrect:The primary blood supply to the capitellum is fromposteriorend-arteries, and aggressiveposteriorsoft tissue dissection risks devascularization, not anterior collateral arteries.

Question 815

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 7-year-old patient undergoes successful open reduction and internal fixation of a lateral condyle fracture. During the follow-up period, the patient develops a 'fishtail' deformity of the capitellum on radiographs. Which of the following complications is most consistent with this radiographic finding?

. Lateral spurring (overgrowth)
. Delayed union
. Cubitus valgus
. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
. Pin tract infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis (AVN)


Explanation

Correct Answer: DThe teaching case specifically describes avascular necrosis (AVN) of the capitellum as 'often manifesting radiographically as a "fishtail" deformity.' This complication is typically caused by iatrogenic disruption of the posterior vascular supply during open reduction, leading to central capitellar collapse.Option A is incorrect:Lateral spurring (overgrowth) is common but usually asymptomatic and does not present as a 'fishtail' deformity.Option B is incorrect:Delayed union refers to slow healing of the fracture, not a specific deformity of the capitellum.Option C is incorrect:Cubitus valgus is an angular deformity of the elbow (increased carrying angle) often secondary to nonunion or premature physeal closure, but it is not described as a 'fishtail' deformity of the capitellum itself.Option E is incorrect:Pin tract infection is a localized infection around the K-wires and does not cause a 'fishtail' deformity of the capitellum.

Question 816

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

An 11-year-old gymnast sustains an acute elbow dislocation. Following a successful closed reduction in the emergency department, post-reduction radiographs reveal that the medial epicondyle is fractured and incarcerated within the ulnohumeral joint. What is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Immobilization in a long arm cast for 4 weeks
. Closed reduction with percutaneous pinning
. Observation and early range of motion
. Excision of the medial epicondyle fragment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

Incarceration of the medial epicondyle within the joint after reduction of an elbow dislocation is an absolute indication for operative intervention (ORIF) to extract the fragment and restore joint congruity.

Question 817

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

An 8-year-old girl falls onto an outstretched hand and presents with lateral elbow pain. Radiographs reveal a radial neck fracture with 45 degrees of angulation. The radial head is not displaced from the capitellum. What is the initial step in management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Closed reduction with a percutaneous pin joystick (Metaizeau technique)
. Manual closed reduction under sedation
. Radial head excision
. Immobilization in a long arm cast without reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Manual closed reduction under sedation


Explanation

For pediatric radial neck fractures with >30 degrees of angulation, manual closed reduction is the initial treatment of choice. Percutaneous or open techniques are reserved for cases where closed reduction fails to achieve acceptable alignment (<30 degrees).

Question 818

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department after a fall. The clinician reviews the elbow radiographs to rule out a fracture. According to normal pediatric development, which ossification center of the elbow is expected to be visible on radiographs at this age?
. Capitellum
. Radial head
. Medial epicondyle
. Trochlea
. Olecranon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Capitellum


Explanation

The ossification centers of the pediatric elbow appear in a predictable sequence (CRITOE): Capitellum (1 yr), Radial head (3 yrs), Internal (Medial) epicondyle (5 yrs), Trochlea (7 yrs), Olecranon (9 yrs), External (Lateral) epicondyle (11 yrs).

Question 819

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 4-year-old child falls on an outstretched hand. A radiograph similar to

demonstrates a lateral condyle fracture. If this fracture is left untreated and goes on to nonunion, which of the following is the most classic long-term complication?

. Cubitus varus leading to radial nerve palsy
. Cubitus valgus leading to tardy ulnar nerve palsy
. Myositis ossificans of the brachialis
. Avascular necrosis of the capitellum
. Anterior interosseous nerve entrapment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubitus valgus leading to tardy ulnar nerve palsy


Explanation

Nonunion of a pediatric lateral condyle fracture typically results in progressive cubitus valgus deformity. Over time, this valgus stretching can lead to a tardy ulnar nerve palsy.

Question 820

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 7-year-old falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation (anterior dislocation of the radial head with a proximal ulna fracture). What is the critical first step in the management of this injury?

. Open reduction of the radial head
. Closed reduction of the ulnar fracture
. Annular ligament reconstruction
. Radial head excision
. Immediate plate fixation of the ulna prior to any manipulation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction of the ulnar fracture


Explanation

In pediatric Monteggia fractures, closed reduction of the ulnar fracture typically results in spontaneous reduction of the radial head. If the radial head remains dislocated after anatomic ulnar reduction, soft tissue interposition should be suspected.