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Question 641

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 60-year-old man hears a pop in his anterior arm while lifting a heavy box. He presents with a visible bulge in the distal anterior arm ('Popeye' deformity). If this injury is treated nonoperatively, what is the most significant functional deficit the patient can expect?

. 10-20% loss of elbow flexion strength
. 10-20% loss of forearm supination strength
. 30-40% loss of shoulder forward elevation strength
. High likelihood of developing adhesive capsulitis
. Severe chronic resting arm pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10-20% loss of forearm supination strength


Explanation

Proximal long head of the biceps ruptures are generally treated nonoperatively in older or less active patients. While elbow flexion strength is largely preserved by the brachialis and short head of the biceps, patients typically experience a 10-20% decrease in forearm supination strength.

Question 642

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 25-year-old male is struck on the anterior shoulder during a rugby match. He presents to the ER with shortness of breath, mild stridor, and dysphagia. Examination shows an obvious deformity at the base of the neck. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

. Immediate blind traction on the arm to reduce the deformity
. Stat MRI of the brachial plexus
. CT scan of the chest and sternoclavicular joints with IV contrast
. Discharge with a figure-of-eight brace and outpatient follow-up
. Application of a halo vest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan of the chest and sternoclavicular joints with IV contrast


Explanation

The patient has a posterior sternoclavicular (SC) joint dislocation causing mediastinal compression (stridor, dysphagia). A CT scan with IV contrast is critical to evaluate the position of the medial clavicle relative to the great vessels and trachea before urgent reduction with thoracic surgery backup.

Question 643

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

What is the most common cause of scapular notching following a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Superior positioning of the glenoid baseplate
. Excessive glenosphere retroversion
. Humeral component anteversion
. Oversized glenosphere component
. Undersized humeral tray

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior positioning of the glenoid baseplate


Explanation

Scapular notching is a frequent complication of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, most commonly caused by placing the glenoid baseplate too superiorly. Placing the baseplate low on the glenoid with a slight inferior tilt reduces the risk of inferior impingement during adduction.

Question 644

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 32-year-old weightlifter feels a "pop" in his anterior shoulder during a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness with internal rotation. Which portion of the pectoralis major is most commonly injured in this scenario?

. Sternal head at its musculotendinous junction
. Clavicular head at its insertion
. Sternal head at its humeral insertion
. Clavicular head at the muscle belly
. Sternal head at its sternal origin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sternal head at its humeral insertion


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur during weightlifting (e.g., bench press) and typically involve the sternal head at or near its humeral insertion. The sternal head fibers insert deep and proximal to the clavicular head on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove.

Question 645

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 16-year-old male presents with dyspnea and dysphagia after a wrestling match. Physical examination shows a palpable defect at the medial end of the clavicle. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate closed reduction in the emergency department
. CT scan of the chest and referral to cardiothoracic surgery for backup during reduction
. Figure-of-eight brace application
. MRI of the shoulder without contrast
. Open reduction and internal fixation with K-wires

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan of the chest and referral to cardiothoracic surgery for backup during reduction


Explanation

Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations can compress critical mediastinal structures, causing respiratory or vascular compromise. CT imaging is diagnostic, and closed reduction should be performed in the OR with cardiothoracic surgery available due to the risk of life-threatening hemorrhage.

Question 646

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

By what primary biomechanical mechanism does a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) restore active forward elevation in patients with rotator cuff tear arthropathy?

. Lateralization and superior translation of the center of rotation
. Medialization and inferior translation of the center of rotation
. Medialization and superior translation of the center of rotation
. Lateralization and inferior translation of the center of rotation
. Anterior translation of the center of rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialization and inferior translation of the center of rotation


Explanation

RTSA shifts the center of rotation medially and inferiorly. This increases the deltoid lever arm and recruits more anterior and posterior deltoid fibers, allowing the deltoid to effectively compensate for the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 647

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which of the following cytokines is most strongly implicated in driving the fibroblastic proliferation and capsular fibrosis seen in idiopathic adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder?
. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)


Explanation

Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β) is a profibrotic cytokine that plays a critical role in the pathogenesis of adhesive capsulitis. It drives the proliferation of fibroblasts and their differentiation into myofibroblasts, leading to excessive type III collagen deposition.

Question 648

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

When performing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA), optimal positioning of the glenoid baseplate is critical to prevent scapular notching. Which of the following baseplate configurations is most effective in minimizing this complication?

. Superior tilt and neutral version
. Inferior tilt and neutral version
. Neutral tilt and 15 degrees of anteversion
. Superior tilt and 10 degrees of retroversion
. Neutral tilt and 20 degrees of retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior tilt and neutral version


Explanation

Placing the glenoid baseplate with an inferior tilt and neutral version minimizes inferior scapular notching in RTSA. It reduces the mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck during adduction.

Question 649

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Six weeks after an uncomplicated anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty via a deltopectoral approach, a 68-year-old male presents with new-onset anterior shoulder pain, increased passive external rotation compared to his 2-week visit, and marked weakness in internal rotation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Glenoid component loosening
. Axillary nerve palsy
. Subscapularis failure
. Rotator interval contracture
. Periprosthetic joint infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis failure


Explanation

Subscapularis failure following TSA via a deltopectoral approach presents with increased passive external rotation, anterior shoulder pain, and weak internal rotation/positive belly-press test. It typically occurs within the first 6-8 weeks postoperatively.

Question 650

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder is characterized by dense fibrosis and contracture of the glenohumeral capsule. Which of the following cytokines is most strongly implicated in the fibroblastic proliferation seen in this condition?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)
. Interferon-gamma
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)


Explanation

Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) is the primary cytokine responsible for driving the robust fibroblastic proliferation and collagen deposition characteristic of adhesive capsulitis. It is a key mediator in capsular fibrosis.

Question 651

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 75-year-old female presents with severe pseudoparalysis and severe glenohumeral arthritis secondary to massive rotator cuff arthropathy. Radiographs reveal the 'snowcap' sign. Which of the following findings is an absolute contraindication to performing a shoulder hemiarthroplasty in this patient?

. Intact subscapularis tendon
. Coracoacromial arch insufficiency
. Acromiohumeral interval of 4 mm
. Erosion of the superior glenoid
. Age greater than 70 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoacromial arch insufficiency


Explanation

Coracoacromial (CA) arch insufficiency is an absolute contraindication to hemiarthroplasty in rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Without the CA arch, a hemiarthroplasty will lead to uncontained anterosuperior escape of the humeral head, necessitating a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty.

Question 652

Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 6-year-old boy sustains a Bado Type III Monteggia equivalent lesion. Which of the following defines this injury pattern and its most common associated neurological complication?
. Anterior radial head dislocation with median nerve palsy
. Posterior radial head dislocation with ulnar nerve palsy
. Lateral radial head dislocation with posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy
. Anterior radial head dislocation with anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) palsy
. Posterior radial head dislocation with musculocutaneous nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral radial head dislocation with posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy


Explanation

A Bado Type III Monteggia fracture involves a lateral dislocation of the radial head with an ulnar metaphyseal/diaphyseal fracture. It is predominantly seen in children and has the highest association with posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy.

Question 653

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 34-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand, sustaining a comminuted radial head fracture and severe wrist pain. Clinical exam reveals distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) instability. What surgical intervention is absolutely contraindicated in the management of this specific injury pattern?

. Closed reduction and long arm casting
. Radial head excision without replacement
. Radial head arthroplasty
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the radial head
. Percutaneous pinning of the DRUJ

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial head arthroplasty


Explanation

This patient has an Essex-Lopresti injury (longitudinal radioulnar dissociation). Radial head excision is absolutely contraindicated as it removes the proximal stabilizer, leading to catastrophic proximal migration of the radius and chronic wrist pain.

Question 654

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 6-year-old boy presents with an anteriorly displaced radial head dislocation and a midshaft ulnar fracture. Following closed reduction of the ulna, the radial head remains irreducible. What is the most likely anatomic structure blocking reduction?

. Biceps tendon
. Brachialis muscle
. Annular ligament
. Quadrate ligament
. Interosseous membrane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Annular ligament


Explanation

In pediatric Monteggia fractures, the radial head usually reduces once the ulna is out to length. If it remains irreducible, the annular ligament or joint capsule is the most common interposing structure requiring open extraction.

Question 655

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old male falls from a ladder, sustaining a highly comminuted radial head fracture, proximal radius shaft migration, and acute wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) widening. The radial head is deemed unreconstructible. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Radial head excision and immediate active range of motion
. Radial head excision and DRUJ percutaneous pinning
. Radial head arthroplasty and DRUJ stabilization
. Silastic radial head replacement and long arm casting
. Radial head excision and open TFCC repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial head arthroplasty and DRUJ stabilization


Explanation

This patient has an Essex-Lopresti injury, characterized by a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane disruption, and DRUJ dislocation. Radial head excision alone is strictly contraindicated as it leads to proximal radial migration; a rigid radial head arthroplasty is required to restore length and stability.

Question 656

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old male falls from a height, sustaining a comminuted radial head fracture, wrist pain, and positive ulnar variance on wrist radiographs. Diagnosis of an Essex-Lopresti injury is made. What is the most appropriate surgical management for the proximal radioulnar injury?

. Radial head excision alone
. Radial head excision with concurrent DRUJ pinning
. Radial head arthroplasty
. Annular ligament reconstruction
. Radial head replacement with proximal row carpectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial head arthroplasty


Explanation

Essex-Lopresti injuries involve a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane tear, and DRUJ disruption. Radial head arthroplasty is essential to restore longitudinal forearm stability; excision alone is contraindicated as it leads to proximal radial migration.

Question 657

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 78-year-old active female presents with a complex, comminuted four-part proximal humerus fracture with significant displacement and severe osteopenia. She has a pre-existing rotator cuff tear that was symptomatic prior to her fall. She is physiologically fit for surgery and desires the best possible functional outcome. Considering the patient's age, fracture pattern, bone quality, and pre-existing rotator cuff pathology, which surgical option is most likely to provide predictable pain relief and functional improvement?

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with a locking plate and suture augmentation.
. Hemiarthroplasty with tuberosity repair.
. Non-operative management with sling immobilization.
. Intramedullary nailing.
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA).

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA).


Explanation

Correct Answer: EThe case content, particularly the 'Summary of Key Literature / Guidelines' section, strongly supports RTSA in this scenario: 'Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA) has gained significant traction, especially in elderly patients with complex PHFs, pre-existing rotator cuff dysfunction, or severe osteopenia. Multiple studies demonstrate more predictable pain relief and functional outcomes with RTSA compared to hemiarthroplasty or ORIF in this specific demographic, as it bypasses the need for tuberosity healing and relies on the deltoid for elevation.' This patient fits all these criteria: elderly, complex four-part fracture, severe osteopenia, and pre-existing rotator cuff tear.Option A (ORIF with a locking plate and suture augmentation):While LPO is the gold standard for many complex PHFs, severe osteopenia and a pre-existing rotator cuff tear significantly increase the risk of fixation failure (screw cutout, nonunion of tuberosities) and poor functional outcomes, as the rotator cuff is essential for ORIF success.Option B (Hemiarthroplasty with tuberosity repair):Hemiarthroplasty has historically been an option for complex four-part fractures in older patients. However, outcomes can be variable and are often limited by tuberosity healing and rotator cuff function. Given the pre-existing rotator cuff tear, tuberosity healing and function would be severely compromised, making RTSA a superior choice.Option C (Non-operative management with sling immobilization):For a complex, comminuted four-part fracture with significant displacement in an active patient, non-operative management would likely lead to severe malunion, pain, and very poor function.Option D (Intramedullary nailing):Intramedullary nailing is less common for complex PHFs and is typically used for select two-part surgical neck fractures. It would be inadequate for a comminuted four-part fracture, especially with tuberosity involvement and osteopenia.

Question 658

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

An 82-year-old female sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. She lives independently and is medically optimized for surgery. When comparing hemiarthroplasty to reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for this patient, which of the following is the most significant advantage of RTSA?

. Decreased surgical time and blood loss
. Lower incidence of post-operative scapular notching
. More predictable functional outcomes regardless of tuberosity healing
. Higher rate of anatomic tuberosity union
. Reduced risk of axillary nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. More predictable functional outcomes regardless of tuberosity healing


Explanation

RTSA provides more reliable functional outcomes in elderly patients with 4-part proximal humerus fractures compared to hemiarthroplasty. Unlike hemiarthroplasty, the success of RTSA is not strictly dependent on the anatomic healing of the tuberosities.

Question 659

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

When performing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for a comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture, meticulous repair of the greater tuberosity is attempted. If the greater tuberosity successfully heals to the shaft and implant, which clinical outcome is most significantly improved compared to when it resorbs?

. Forward elevation
. External rotation
. Internal rotation
. Implant survivorship
. Prevention of axillary nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation


Explanation

In the setting of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for fracture, healing of the greater tuberosity is strongly correlated with improved active external rotation. Forward elevation is primarily restored by the deltoid muscle acting on the reverse biomechanical construct.

Question 660

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 75-year-old female undergoes reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for an unreconstructible 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Regarding the management of the tuberosities in this setting, which of the following statements is true?

. Tuberosity excision is preferred to reduce the risk of postoperative impingement.
. Healing of the greater tuberosity does not affect external rotation strength in rTSA.
. Anatomic tuberosity repair and healing improves shoulder stability and functional rotation.
. The tuberosities should be routinely excised as the deltoid alone controls all rotational stability.
. Tuberosity malunion leads to superior functional outcomes compared to anatomic union.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anatomic tuberosity repair and healing improves shoulder stability and functional rotation.


Explanation

In rTSA for fracture, successful healing of the tuberosities correlates with significantly improved active external rotation and overall joint stability. Failure of tuberosity healing can lead to poor external rotation strength and an increased risk of prosthesis dislocation.