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Question 3781

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

The Grammont design principles for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) revolutionized the treatment of cuff tear arthropathy. Which of the following statements best describes the primary biomechanical changes achieved by this design compared to normal shoulder anatomy?

. It lateralizes the center of rotation and shifts the humerus proximally to increase tension on the rotator cuff.
. It medializes the center of rotation and shifts the humerus distally to optimize the tension and moment arm of the deltoid.
. It shifts the center of rotation superiorly and maintains humeral length to preserve subscapularis function.
. It perfectly recreates the native anatomical center of rotation to restore normal joint kinematics.
. It lateralizes both the center of rotation and the humerus to increase the lever arm of the supraspinatus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It medializes the center of rotation and shifts the humerus distally to optimize the tension and moment arm of the deltoid.


Explanation

The Grammont reverse shoulder arthroplasty design is based on two key biomechanical principles: 1) Medializing the center of rotation, which recruits more deltoid fibers and significantly increases the deltoid moment arm (making it more efficient as an elevator). 2) Distalizing (lowering) the humerus, which increases tension on the deltoid muscle, optimizing its length-tension curve to compensate for the absent superior rotator cuff.

Question 3782

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old male complains of severe right shoulder pain and an inability to lift his arm above his waist. Examination reveals pseudoparalysis of the shoulder with active forward flexion to 45 degrees, but intact active internal rotation. MRI reveals a massive, fully retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear with grade 4 Goutallier fatty infiltration. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact. Glenohumeral arthritis is absent. What is the most reliable definitive surgical treatment for this patient?

. Arthroscopic partial rotator cuff repair and subacromial decompression.
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer.
. Superior capsular reconstruction with dermal allograft.
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty.
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty.


Explanation

The patient has an irreparable massive rotator cuff tear (Grade 4 fatty infiltration) presenting with pseudoparalysis (inability to actively elevate above 90 degrees). In an elderly patient with an intact deltoid and pseudoparalysis, Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA) is the treatment of choice. It reliably restores active elevation by utilizing the deltoid muscle. SCR and tendon transfers are less reliable for restoring overhead motion in the setting of true pseudoparalysis in an older individual.

Question 3783

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 5-year-old girl presents with a high-riding left scapula and restricted shoulder abduction. Imaging reveals an omovertebral bone bridging the cervical spine and the scapula. If a Woodward procedure is planned, which of the following structures is most at risk during the release of the superior medial angle of the scapula?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

During a Woodward procedure for Sprengel deformity, the spinal accessory nerve is at risk when detaching the trapezius from the scapula, especially at the superomedial angle where the omovertebral bone typically attaches.

Question 3784

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old male presents with a persistent radial nerve palsy following a humerus fracture sustained 12 months ago. He has failed conservative management and is scheduled for tendon transfer surgery. Which of the following describes the most appropriate standard set of tendon transfers to restore wrist, finger, and thumb extension?

. Pronator teres to ECRB, FCU to EDC, Palmaris longus to EPL
. Pronator teres to ECRL, FCR to EDC, Palmaris longus to EPL
. Pronator teres to ECRB, FCR to EDC, Palmaris longus to EPL
. FCR to ECRB, FCU to EDC, Pronator teres to EPL
. FCU to ECRB, FCR to EDC, Palmaris longus to EPL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres to ECRB, FCR to EDC, Palmaris longus to EPL


Explanation

The classic set of transfers for radial nerve palsy is the Pronator Teres (PT) to Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB) for wrist extension, Flexor Carpi Radialis (FCR) to Extensor Digitorum Communis (EDC) for finger extension, and Palmaris Longus (PL) to Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) for thumb extension. Transferring PT to ECRB rather than ECRL is preferred to prevent a radial deviation moment with wrist extension. FCR is often preferred over FCU for finger extension as preserving the FCU provides better ulnar-sided wrist stability, especially in power grip.

Question 3785

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

In a patient undergoing tendon transfer for a high radial nerve palsy (e.g., standard Jones or Brand transfer), which muscle-tendon unit is universally utilized to restore functional wrist extension?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris
. Flexor carpi radialis
. Pronator teres
. Palmaris longus
. Flexor digitorum superficialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres


Explanation

The pronator teres (PT) is universally utilized to restore wrist extension in radial nerve palsy. It is transferred to the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) because the ECRB is centrally located and provides balanced wrist extension without severe radial or ulnar deviation. The other muscles mentioned are typically utilized to restore finger extension or thumb extension.

Question 3786

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 50-year-old male with an irreversible high radial nerve palsy is undergoing tendon transfers. The surgeon elects to perform a Boyes transfer rather than the standard set of tendon transfers. Which of the following specific tendon transfers is a defining feature of the Boyes technique for restoring finger extension?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) to Extensor digitorum communis (EDC)
. Pronator teres (PT) to Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
. Flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) of the long finger to the EDC
. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) to the EDC
. Palmaris longus (PL) to the Extensor pollicis longus (EPL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) of the long finger to the EDC


Explanation

In the treatment of high radial nerve palsy, standard tendon transfers (e.g., Jones or modified standard) often use the FCR or FCU for finger extension. The Boyes transfer is uniquely characterized by utilizing the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis (FDS) of the long finger transferred through the interosseous membrane to the EDC to restore finger extension. PT to ECRB is common to almost all methods to restore wrist extension.

Question 3787

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. Diagnosis of the condition is:
. Brachial plexus neuropraxia
. Erb's palsy
. Brachial plexus neuritis
. C5, C6 disk herniations
. Klumpke's palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachial plexus neuritis


Explanation

The involved muscles have C5, C6 root innervations. Positive Tinel's sign, functioning rhomboids and serratus anterior, and the absence of Horner's syndrome rule out a preganglionic lesion. The EMG finding confirms the clinical finding. Subclinical involvement of any other muscle is not shown. Neuropraxia usually recovers in 6 weeks and EMG shows fibrillation, which is inconsistent with neuropraxia. Brachial plexus neuritis, Parsonage-Turner syndrome, has an acute presentation following a painful episode involving the whole arm. There is significant history of a fall in this case.

Question 3788

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3-cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The level of lesion is:
. Postganglionic C5, C6
. Preganglionic C5, C6
. Posterior cord injury
. Middle trunk
. Spinal accessory paralysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Postganglionic C5, C6


Explanation

The involved muscles have C5, C6 root innervations. Positive Tinel's sign, functioning rhomboids and serratus anterior, and the absence of Horner's syndrome rule out a preganglionic lesion. The EMG finding confirms the clinical finding. Subclinical involvement of any other muscle is not shown. Neuropraxia usually recovers in 6 weeks and EMG shows fibrillation, which is inconsistent with neuropraxia. Brachial plexus neuritis, Parsonage-Turner syndrome, has an acute presentation following a painful episode involving the whole arm. There is significant history of a fall in this case.

Question 3789

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The plan of management in this patient 5 months postinjury with no clinical improvement should be:
. Neurotization
. Exploration and nerve grafting
. Continued observation
. Tendon transfers
. Shoulder arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Exploration and nerve grafting


Explanation

Neurotization is appropriate in preganglionic lesions. If at 6 months a patient shows no evidence of recovery, it is time for plexus exploration. Further observation will not change the picture. Tendon transfers are reconstructive procedures, which are done at a later stage.

Question 3790

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle eight weeks prior. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3-cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The most important function that needs to be restored in this patient is:
. Shoulder abduction
. Shoulder elevation
. Elbow flexion
. Wrist extension
. Elbow extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elbow flexion


Explanation

Elbow flexion is central to management of brachial plexus management because it serves the most important function of feeding.

Question 3791

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 70-year-old female presents with chronic, severe right shoulder pain and the inability to actively elevate her arm above 60 degrees. Passive range of motion is normal. Radiographs reveal superior migration of the humeral head with articulation against the acromion, and severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis. MRI confirms a massive, retracted, irreparable rotator cuff tear. What is the most reliable surgical treatment for restoring active elevation and relieving pain?

. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression and debridement
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction using dermal allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

This patient has classic rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty alters the center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm independent of the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 3792

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 28-year-old athlete presents with shoulder weakness. Physical examination reveals prominent medial winging of the scapula when the patient pushes against a wall. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. Lateral winging is caused by trapezius dysfunction, innervated by the spinal accessory nerve.

Question 3793

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A patient presents with a chronic high radial nerve palsy following a humerus fracture and elects to undergo tendon transfer surgery to restore wrist and finger extension. Which of the following is the most widely accepted standard tendon transfer to restore wrist extension in this scenario?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) to extensor digitorum communis (EDC)
. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) to extensor digitorum communis (EDC)
. Pronator teres (PT) to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
. Pronator teres (PT) to extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)
. Palmaris longus (PL) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres (PT) to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)


Explanation

In the standard set of tendon transfers for a high radial nerve palsy, the pronator teres (PT) is transferred to the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) to restore wrist extension. The ECRB is preferred over the ECRL because it inserts centrally at the base of the third metacarpal, providing pure wrist extension without the radial deviation seen when transferring to the ECRL.

Question 3794

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 70-year-old female presents with chronic pseudoparalysis of the right shoulder due to massive rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head with acetabularization of the acromion. She is scheduled for a Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA). The success of RTSA is most critically dependent on the function of which of the following nerves?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

An intact axillary nerve (which innervates the deltoid) is a strict prerequisite for Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty. RTSA shifts the center of rotation medially and inferiorly, increasing the moment arm and resting tension of the deltoid. This allows the deltoid to effectively abduct and elevate the arm, compensating for the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 3795

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 25-year-old man sustains a stab wound to the lateral aspect of his chest wall. He subsequently demonstrates winging of the scapula, especially when pushing against a wall. Which of the following muscles is paralyzed?

. Trapezius
. Rhomboid major
. Serratus anterior
. Latissimus dorsi
. Levator scapulae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serratus anterior


Explanation

Winging of the scapula, particularly prominent with forward pushing, is the classic sign of paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve (C5, C6, C7), which courses superficially along the lateral chest wall, making it vulnerable to penetrating trauma or surgical injury.

Question 3796

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old motorcyclist sustains a traction injury to his brachial plexus. He exhibits complete loss of shoulder abduction and external rotation, and significant weakness in elbow flexion. Which nerve roots are most likely involved?

. C5 and C6
. C6 and C7
. C7 and C8
. C8 and T1
. C5 to T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 and C6


Explanation

This classic presentation represents Erb's palsy, involving the upper trunk (C5, C6 nerve roots). It compromises the suprascapular, axillary, and musculocutaneous nerves, resulting in a "waiter's tip" clinical posture.

Question 3797

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He complains of right shoulder pain and an inability to rotate the arm outward. An AP radiograph of the shoulder shows the humeral head overlapping the glenoid with a "lightbulb" sign. What is the next best step in management?

. Immediate closed reduction under conscious sedation
. Obtain an axillary lateral or scapular Y view X-ray
. Perform an emergent MRI of the shoulder
. Apply a shoulder immobilizer and arrange outpatient physical therapy
. Schedule for diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain an axillary lateral or scapular Y view X-ray


Explanation

The patient has a classic posterior shoulder dislocation, commonly associated with seizures and identified by the "lightbulb" sign on the AP view. Orthogonal imaging, specifically an axillary lateral or scapular Y view, is essential to confirm the diagnosis and assess for associated injuries like a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion before reduction.

Question 3798

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In a patient with a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear and resultant cuff tear arthropathy, the Hamada classification is used to grade the radiographic severity. What radiographic finding characterizes Hamada Grade 3?

. Acromiohumeral interval > 6 mm
. Acromiohumeral interval < 5 mm with no bony changes
. Acetabularization of the acromion and femoralization of the humeral head
. Glenohumeral joint space narrowing (arthritis)
. Humeral head collapse or osteonecrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabularization of the acromion and femoralization of the humeral head


Explanation

The Hamada classification grades rotator cuff arthropathy: Grade 1 (AHI >6mm), Grade 2 (AHI <5mm), Grade 3 (Acetabularization of the acromion), Grade 4 (Glenohumeral arthritis), Grade 5 (Humeral head collapse). Grade 3 marks the structural erosion of the acromion by the superiorly migrated humeral head.

Question 3799

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 60-year-old female presents with chronic shoulder pain and inability to actively elevate her arm above 60 degrees. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head and an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm. Which surgical intervention provides the most reliable restoration of active forward elevation in this patient?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

This patient has rotator cuff arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) alters the center of rotation, recruiting the deltoid to effectively restore active forward elevation.

Question 3800

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old male sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture). During surgical reconstruction, after fixation of the coronoid and replacement of the comminuted radial head, the elbow remains unstable in extension and supination. What is the next most appropriate step in the surgical sequence?

. Application of an articulated dynamic external fixator
. Repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) to the lateral epicondyle
. Repair of the anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Transarticular pinning of the ulnohumeral joint
. Excise the coronoid fragment to remove the mechanical block

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) to the lateral epicondyle


Explanation

The standard algorithm for a terrible triad injury works from deep to superficial and typically involves restoring the anterior buttress (coronoid), restoring the radiocapitellar contact (radial head fix/replace), and then restoring the lateral stabilizing structures by repairing the LUCL to the lateral epicondyle. If the elbow remains unstable after LUCL repair, MCL repair or a hinged external fixator is considered.