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Question 3241

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old golfer fails 6 months of conservative treatment for medial epicondylitis. During open surgical debridement, the surgeon must identify and excise the primary degenerative tissue. Which structure is the primary source of the pathology?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
. Palmaris longus
. Flexor digitorum superficialis
. Brachioradialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor carpi ulnaris


Explanation

Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) primarily involves angiofibroblastic degeneration of the common flexor origin. The most frequently involved structures are the pronator teres and the flexor carpi radialis.

Question 3242

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

Scapular notching is a recognized complication of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA), most commonly occurring at the inferior scapular neck. Which surgical technical modification reduces the incidence of inferior scapular notching?

. Superior placement of the glenosphere
. Superior tilt of the baseplate
. Medialization of the glenosphere
. Inferior overhanging of the glenosphere
. Increasing the neck-shaft angle of the humeral stem to 155 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior placement of the glenosphere


Explanation

Inferior overhang of the glenosphere (placing it flush or slightly overhanging the inferior glenoid rim) avoids mechanical impingement of the humeral polyethylene cup against the scapular neck during adduction, thus reducing scapular notching.

Question 3243

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old female is 3 years post-operative from a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) utilizing a Grammont-style prosthesis. Radiographs reveal bone loss on the scapular neck extending beyond the inferior screw of the baseplate. According to the Sirveaux classification, what grade is this scapular notching?

. Grade 1
. Grade 2
. Grade 3
. Grade 4
. Grade 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade 1


Explanation

In the Sirveaux classification for scapular notching in RTSA, Grade 3 describes a notch that extends beyond the inferior screw of the glenoid baseplate. Grade 4 indicates extension up to the central peg.

Question 3244

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old male sustains an elbow injury. Radiographs show an anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid. Which specific ligament is most likely injured in this pattern, leading to varus posteromedial rotatory instability?

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
. Anterior band of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (AMCL)
. Posterior band of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (PMCL)
. Annular ligament
. Interosseous membrane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)


Explanation

Varus posteromedial rotatory instability (VPMRI) of the elbow occurs due to an anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid combined with disruption of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). This pattern results from a varus and posteromedial rotational force.

Question 3245

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 26-year-old female presents with shoulder weakness 4 months after a cervical lymph node biopsy. On exam, her scapula is laterally translated and wings when she attempts to abduct the arm against resistance. The medial border is depressed. Which nerve was most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Lateral scapular winging with an inability to actively abduct the arm beyond 90 degrees is a hallmark of trapezius paralysis due to spinal accessory nerve injury. Procedures in the posterior cervical triangle, such as lymph node biopsies, carry a high risk for this complication.

Question 3246

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 38-year-old female complains of a "clunking" sensation in her elbow when pushing up from a chair. A lateral pivot-shift test is performed to evaluate for posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI). What is the specific mechanical subluxation that occurs during the provocation phase of this test?

. The radius and ulna subluxate posterolaterally away from the humerus
. The radius subluxates anteriorly from the capitellum
. The ulna subluxates posteromedially from the trochlea
. The radial head subluxates directly laterally
. The coronoid subluxates inferiorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The radius and ulna subluxate posterolaterally away from the humerus


Explanation

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is due to lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) insufficiency. During the pivot-shift test, applying an axial load, valgus stress, and supination causes the radius and ulna to subluxate as a single unit posterolaterally off the humerus.

Question 3247

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In planning a Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA) for severe rotator cuff tear arthropathy, how does the prosthesis biomechanically alter the shoulder joint to improve active elevation?

. Medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and superiorizes the center of rotation
. Medializes and superiorizes the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and inferiorizes the center of rotation
. Maintains the anatomic center of rotation but increases conformity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation


Explanation

RTSA medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint. This significantly increases the deltoid moment arm and tension, allowing the deltoid to effectively compensate for the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 3248

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 45-year-old female undergoes a cervical lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of her neck. Postoperatively, she reports a dull ache in her shoulder and difficulty with overhead activities. Examination reveals a laterally displaced and rotated scapula. Which nerve and corresponding muscle were most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve; serratus anterior
. Dorsal scapular nerve; rhomboids
. Spinal accessory nerve; trapezius
. Suprascapular nerve; supraspinatus
. Axillary nerve; deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve; serratus anterior


Explanation

Injury to the spinal accessory nerve during posterior triangle procedures denervates the trapezius muscle. This leads to lateral winging of the scapula, unlike a long thoracic nerve injury which classically causes medial winging.

Question 3249

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

Which ligamentous complex is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow, frequently injured following a fall on an outstretched hand resulting in axial loading, valgus, and supination forces?

. Anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
. Radial collateral ligament
. Annular ligament
. Accessory collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow. Reconstruction or repair of this specific structure is critical to restoring stability.

Question 3250

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 38-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains a complex elbow injury. Clinical and radiographic evaluation demonstrates varus posteromedial rotatory instability. Which specific osseous structure is typically fractured in this exact injury pattern?

. Radial head
. Olecranon process
. Coronoid anteromedial facet
. Coronoid tip
. Lateral epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial head


Explanation

Varus posteromedial rotatory instability of the elbow is classically associated with an anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid and avulsion or rupture of the lateral collateral ligament complex.

Question 3251

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old male sustains a severely comminuted radial head fracture and a concomitant distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) disruption (Essex-Lopresti injury). If the radial head is completely excised without prosthetic replacement, what is the most likely late mechanical complication?

. Heterotopic ossification of the interosseous membrane
. Proximal migration of the radius causing ulnocarpal impingement
. Severe cubitus varus deformity
. Isolated elbow extension deficit
. Posterolateral rotatory instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heterotopic ossification of the interosseous membrane


Explanation

In an Essex-Lopresti injury, the interosseous membrane is disrupted. Excision of the radial head removes the proximal longitudinal restraint, leading to proximal radial migration and painful ulnocarpal impingement.

Question 3252

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A newborn is diagnosed with radial longitudinal deficiency (radial clubhand). The right thumb is completely absent. You are counseling the parents on the management plan. Prior to any reconstructive orthopedic surgical intervention such as centralization of the carpus on the ulna, which of the following is an absolute prerequisite regarding the affected upper extremity?

. Normal grip strength must be demonstrated
. The elbow must have adequate passive flexion
. The child must be able to perform a pincer grasp
. A functional thumb must be reconstructed (pollicization) first
. Biceps tendon lengthening must be performed

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normal grip strength must be demonstrated


Explanation

In radial longitudinal deficiency, centralization of the carpus on the distal ulna is often performed to improve alignment and function. However, adequate passive elbow flexion is an absolute prerequisite. If the elbow is stiff in extension (which can occur in these patients), centralizing the wrist will leave the child completely unable to reach their mouth for feeding. The radial deviation of the hand actually helps them reach their face if the elbow cannot flex.

Question 3253

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 6-year-old boy presents with a displaced lateral condyle fracture of the humerus. Which of the following is the most common long-term complication if this fracture goes on to nonunion?

. Cubitus varus
. Anterior interosseous nerve palsy
. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy
. Avascular necrosis of the capitellum
. Premature closure of the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubitus varus


Explanation

Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture typically results in a progressive cubitus valgus deformity. This valgus angulation stretches the ulnar nerve over time, leading to tardy ulnar nerve palsy.

Question 3254

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 6-year-old boy sustained a supracondylar humerus fracture treated with closed reduction and percutaneous pinning. Several years later, he presents with a noticeable cosmetic deformity of his elbow, though his range of motion is full and painless. What is the most likely deformity, and how does it affect elbow function?

. Cubitus valgus, carrying a high risk of tardy ulnar nerve palsy
. Cubitus varus, primarily a cosmetic issue with a low risk of functional impairment
. Cubitus varus, carrying a high risk of median nerve entrapment
. Recurvatum, leading to significant weakness in elbow extension
. Cubitus valgus, leading to chronic posterolateral rotatory instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubitus valgus, carrying a high risk of tardy ulnar nerve palsy


Explanation

Malunion of a supracondylar humerus fracture most commonly results in cubitus varus (gunstock deformity). This is typically a cosmetic deformity that does not significantly restrict range of motion or daily function.

Question 3255

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A newborn infant presents with a right upper extremity held rigidly in adduction and internal rotation, with the elbow extended, forearm pronated, and wrist flexed. The infant's grasp reflex remains fully intact. This classic presentation is due to an injury to which of the following neural structures?

. C5 and C6 nerve roots
. C7 and C8 nerve roots
. C8 and T1 nerve roots
. Posterior cord of the brachial plexus
. Medial cord of the brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 and C6 nerve roots


Explanation

Erb-Duchenne palsy (Erb's palsy) is the most common obstetric brachial plexus palsy and involves the upper trunk, primarily affecting the C5 and C6 nerve roots. The classic 'waiter's tip' posture results from loss of shoulder abductors and external rotators, elbow flexors, and forearm supinators. Hand function (grasp reflex) is preserved because the lower roots (C8, T1) are spared.

Question 3256

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Which of the following best describes the fundamental biomechanical advantage of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty in a patient suffering from rotator cuff tear arthropathy?

. It medializes and elevates the center of rotation
. It lateralizes and elevates the center of rotation
. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation
. It lateralizes and distalizes the center of rotation
. It maintains the native anatomic center of rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It medializes and elevates the center of rotation


Explanation

The Grammont design of the reverse total shoulder arthroplasty inherently medializes and distalizes the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint. Medialization recruits more deltoid muscle fibers for elevation, and distalization tensions the deltoid, increasing its resting length and moment arm. This compensates for the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 3257

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A newborn infant presents in the delivery room with the right upper extremity internally rotated, adducted at the shoulder, extended at the elbow, and pronated at the forearm. The grasp reflex is fully intact. Which specific nerve roots of the brachial plexus are most likely injured?

. C5, C6
. C7, C8, T1
. C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
. C8, T1
. C7 only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5, C6


Explanation

The clinical presentation described is classic for Erb's palsy (waiter's tip posture), which is caused by an upper trunk brachial plexus injury involving the C5 and C6 nerve roots. The intact grasp reflex indicates that the lower roots (C8, T1) responsible for hand function are spared.

Question 3258

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes a Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL) reconstruction utilizing a palmaris longus autograft (Tommy John surgery). Which bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing, and must be reconstructed?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse bundle
. Anterior bundle
. Radiocollateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary static restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 20 to 120 degrees of flexion. It is the specific bundle that is reconstructed during Tommy John surgery. The posterior bundle is a secondary restraint, and the transverse bundle (Cooper's ligament) provides no significant stability.

Question 3259

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 21-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using the docking technique with a palmaris longus autograft.

What is the most common postoperative complication associated with this procedure?

. Heterotopic ossification
. Infection
. Ulnar neuropathy
. Graft rupture
. Medial epicondyle fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heterotopic ossification


Explanation

Ulnar neuropathy is the most common complication following UCL reconstruction, reported in 5% to 20% of cases, though it is usually transient. Meticulous care to protect or properly transpose the ulnar nerve is critical during the approach and tunnel drilling.

Question 3260

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a sudden tearing sensation in his anterior shoulder/chest while performing the eccentric (downward) phase of a heavy bench press. On examination, he has weakness in internal rotation and an asymmetric axillary fold.

Which portion of the pectoralis major tendon is most susceptible to injury in this scenario?

. Clavicular head at the myotendinous junction
. Sternal head at its humeral insertion
. Clavicular head at its humeral insertion
. Sternal head at the sternocostal origin
. Abdominal head at the myotendinous junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clavicular head at the myotendinous junction


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur in young, active males during the eccentric phase of a bench press. The sternal head at the humeral insertion is the most frequently torn segment. The sternal head tendon twists 180 degrees before inserting on the humerus, placing it under maximal tension when the arm is extended and externally rotated.