This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3081
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An 18-year-old male rugby player is brought to the emergency department after falling on his shoulder during a tackle. He complains of severe pain at the base of his neck, difficulty swallowing, and a feeling of shortness of breath. On examination, the medial end of his right clavicle is not palpable, and there is a visible depression at the sternoclavicular joint. He is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Computed tomography (CT) of the chest with intravenous contrast
Explanation
This patient presents with a posterior sternoclavicular (SC) joint dislocation, which is a life-threatening injury due to the proximity of the great vessels, trachea, and esophagus. Because he is hemodynamically stable but symptomatic (dysphagia, dyspnea indicating mediastinal compression), a CT of the chest with IV contrast (or CT angiogram) is the most critical next step. It accurately defines the displacement and evaluates for occult vascular or visceral injuries. Closed reduction should only be attempted after advanced imaging, ideally in the operating room with a cardiothoracic surgeon on standby.
Question 3082
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old female presents after falling on an outstretched hand. Radiographs reveal a posterolateral elbow dislocation, a displaced radial head fracture, and a Type II coronoid fracture. Operative intervention is planned. To optimize biomechanical stability, what is the generally accepted surgical sequence for repairing the 'terrible triad' of the elbow?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, followed by radial head fixation or replacement, and lastly lateral collateral ligament repair
Explanation
The 'terrible triad' of the elbow consists of an elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid process fracture. The standard surgical sequence works deep to superficial and anterior to posterior/lateral: (1) Fixation of the coronoid process to restore anterior stability, (2) Fixation or replacement of the radial head to restore the anterior radiocapitellar buttress, and (3) Repair of the lateral collateral ligament (specifically the lateral ulnar collateral ligament) complex. The MCL is typically only explored if the elbow remains unstable after the first three steps.
Question 3083
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old female presents after falling from a height. She sustains a comminuted, unsalvageable radial head fracture, a longitudinal tear of the interosseous membrane, and dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the proximal radius in this specific clinical entity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate radial head arthroplasty
Explanation
This patient has an Essex-Lopresti fracture-dislocation (radial head fracture, interosseous membrane disruption, and DRUJ dislocation). Because the interosseous membrane is torn, the radiocapitellar joint becomes the primary restraint to proximal migration of the radius. Therefore, excision of the radial head is absolutely contraindicated, as it will lead to rapid proximal migration of the radius and ulnocarpal impaction. Immediate radial head arthroplasty is essential to restore longitudinal stability to the forearm.
Question 3084
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture). The coronoid fracture is a Type II according to Regan and Morrey, and the radial head is comminuted. When proceeding with operative management, what is the classic and most biomechanically sound sequence of reconstruction?
The classic sequence for reconstructing a terrible triad injury of the elbow proceeds from deep to superficial and medial to lateral: 1) Fixation of the coronoid process, 2) Repair or replacement of the radial head, and 3) Repair of the lateral collateral ligament complex (LUCL). The medial collateral ligament is only repaired if the elbow remains unstable after the primary triad of structures is restored.
Question 3085
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 6-year-old boy presents with a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation (anterior dislocation of the radial head with fracture of the ulnar diaphysis). In the operating room, an anatomic closed reduction of the ulnar shaft is achieved and confirmed under fluoroscopy; however, the radial head remains persistently dislocated. What is the most likely cause of this persistent radial head dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Annular ligament interposition
Explanation
The most common overall cause of persistent radial head dislocation in a Monteggia injury is failure to achieve an anatomic reduction of the ulna (ulnar malreduction or length discrepancy). However, the question specifies that anatomic reduction of the ulna was achieved. When the ulna is perfectly out-to-length and the radial head still will not reduce, the most common blocking structure is interposition of the torn annular ligament or joint capsule.
Question 3086
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Surgical management of a 'Terrible Triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) typically follows a systematic approach to restore joint stability. What is the standard, most widely accepted sequence of structural repair/fixation during the operation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid (or anterior capsule), followed by radial head, then LCL complex
Explanation
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury utilizes a deep-to-superficial (inside-out) approach. Fixation begins with the deepest anterior structure, the coronoid (or anterior capsule repair if the fragment is too small). Next, the radial head is either fixed (ORIF) or replaced, restoring the anterior/lateral bony column. Finally, the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex is repaired to the lateral epicondyle. MCL repair or cross-pinning/hinged ex-fix is reserved for residual instability after the primary lateral-sided and bony repairs.
Question 3087
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old female falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a capitellum fracture. CT imaging demonstrates a coronal shear fracture that involves the capitellum and the lateral ridge of the trochlea, with extensive posterior articular comminution. Based on the Dubberley classification, this is a Type 3B fracture. What does the 'B' designation specifically indicate in this classification?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior radiocapitellar comminution
Explanation
The Dubberley classification of capitellar/trochlear shear fractures categorizes based on anatomical involvement: Type 1 (capitellum only), Type 2 (capitellum + lateral trochlear ridge), Type 3 (capitellum + entire trochlea). The modifiers 'A' and 'B' refer to the absence or presence of posterior radiocapitellar comminution, respectively. A Type 'B' fracture is critical because posterior comminution means there is no posterior buttress, making isolated anterior-to-posterior screw fixation prone to failure; these often require a posterior surgical approach and structural grafting or arthroplasty.
Question 3088
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 'floating shoulder' injury typically refers to a dual disruption of the superior shoulder suspensory complex (SSSC). This is most classically represented by ipsilateral fractures of which two structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicle and scapular neck
Explanation
A 'floating shoulder' classically refers to double disruptions of the Superior Shoulder Suspensory Complex (SSSC). The most common combination is an ipsilateral fracture of the clavicle and the scapular neck. This potentially renders the glenohumeral articulation unstable with respect to the axial skeleton, though conservative management is increasingly supported for minimally displaced variants.
Question 3089
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A newborn suffers a brachial plexus injury during a difficult macrosomic delivery, affecting the C5 and C6 nerve roots. Which of the following best describes the classic upper extremity posture associated with this injury?
Erb's palsy (C5-C6 injury) leads to weakness of the shoulder abductors, external rotators, elbow flexors, and forearm supinators. This results in the classic 'waiter's tip' posture: adducted, internally rotated shoulder, extended elbow, and pronated forearm.
Question 3090
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old male presents with right arm pain and numbness. Examination reveals a diminished brachioradialis reflex, weakness in wrist extension, and decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of the thumb and index finger. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C6
Explanation
A C6 radiculopathy classically presents with weakness in wrist extension (ECRL, ECRB) and elbow flexion, a diminished brachioradialis reflex, and sensory deficits in the thumb and index finger.
Question 3091
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old male sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture). Standard surgical management requires a specific sequence of repair. Which of the following is the most widely accepted first step in the internal fixation sequence for this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fixation of the coronoid process fracture
Explanation
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury proceeds deep to superficial and distal to proximal: fixation of the coronoid fracture first, followed by fixation or arthroplasty of the radial head, and finally repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL/LCL complex). MCL repair is generally only performed if the elbow remains unstable after the lateral side is fixed.
Question 3092
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In a patient presenting with massive rotator cuff tear arthropathy, the Hamada classification is utilized to grade the radiographic severity. A patient exhibiting an acromiohumeral interval of < 6mm along with distinct 'acetabularization' of the acromion is classified as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hamada Grade 3
Explanation
Hamada Grade 3 is explicitly defined by a narrowed acromiohumeral interval (< 6mm) combined with acetabularization of the undersurface of the acromion. Grade 2 involves narrowing (< 6mm) without acetabularization, while Grade 4 demonstrates true glenohumeral arthritis.
Question 3093
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 28-year-old male sustained a midshaft humerus fracture 6 months ago resulting in a complete radial nerve palsy with no signs of recovery on recent EMG. For surgical reconstruction, a tendon transfer is planned. The pronator teres (PT) is most commonly transferred to which structure to restore wrist extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
Explanation
In the management of high radial nerve palsy, the pronator teres (PT) is classically transferred to the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) to restore wrist extension. Transferring to the ECRB is preferred over the ECRL because the ECRB inserts at the base of the third metacarpal, providing central wrist extension, whereas ECRL insertion on the second metacarpal tends to produce unwanted radial deviation.
Question 3094
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A newborn infant presents with the right upper extremity held rigidly in internal rotation, adduction, elbow extension, and wrist flexion (the classic 'waiter's tip' posture). The hand grasp reflex is remarkably preserved. Which brachial plexus nerve roots are primarily injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5, C6
Explanation
This classic presentation describes Erb's palsy, an upper trunk brachial plexus injury typically resulting from shoulder dystocia. It involves the C5 and C6 nerve roots. The deficits include loss of shoulder abduction/external rotation (axillary/suprascapular nerves) and elbow flexion (musculocutaneous nerve). The preserved hand grasp confirms that the lower roots (C8, T1 - Klumpke distribution) are intact.
Question 3095
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In a patient with an irreversible high radial nerve palsy, multiple tendon transfers are planned. What is the standard transfer utilized to restore active wrist extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres (PT) to extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
Explanation
The most widely accepted tendon transfer for restoring wrist extension in radial nerve palsy is the pronator teres to the ECRB. The ECRB is chosen over the ECRL because its central insertion provides a more balanced wrist extension without excessive radial deviation.
Question 3096
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
During a cervical lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck, a patient sustains an iatrogenic nerve injury leading to a laterally winged scapula. Which muscle is predominantly affected by this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Serratus anterior
Explanation
The posterior triangle of the neck contains the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius muscle. Injury leads to lateral winging of the scapula (the scapula is displaced laterally and inferiorly). Medial winging, in contrast, is caused by injury to the long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior.
Question 3097
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 35-year-old female presents with pain, weakness, and paresthesias affecting the medial aspect of her forearm and the ring and small fingers of her hand. True neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome is suspected. Compression of which part of the brachial plexus is most characteristic of this presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Upper trunk
Explanation
True neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome typically involves compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8-T1). This leads to sensory symptoms in the distribution of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve and ulnar nerve, and motor weakness in intrinsic hand muscles supplied by the lower trunk.
Question 3098
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A patient presents with shoulder weakness and pain two months after a radical neck dissection for squamous cell carcinoma. Examination reveals winging of the scapula with lateral translation of the inferior pole. Which muscle is denervated, and what is its primary motor nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Serratus anterior / Long thoracic nerve
Explanation
Lateral winging of the scapula is characteristic of trapezius palsy, which is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI). Medial winging is typically caused by serratus anterior paralysis due to long thoracic nerve injury.
Question 3099
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
In patients with neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome, compression most commonly occurs within the interscalene triangle. What are the anatomical borders of this triangle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior scalene, middle scalene, and clavicle
Explanation
The interscalene triangle is bordered anteriorly by the anterior scalene, posteriorly by the middle scalene, and inferiorly by the first rib. The brachial plexus trunks and the subclavian artery pass through this triangle.
Question 3100
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old female sustains a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow. She is taken to the operating room for definitive fixation. To optimize stability and clinical outcomes, what is the generally recommended sequence of surgical reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair, followed by radial head, followed by coronoid
Explanation
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury works from deep to superficial and medial to lateral (if via lateral approach): (1) Coronoid fixation or anterior capsule repair to restore anterior stability, (2) Radial head fixation or replacement to restore the anterior and valgus buttress, (3) Lateral collateral ligament (LUCL) repair to the lateral epicondyle to restore posterolateral rotatory stability. The MCL is only repaired if the elbow remains unstable after these steps.
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