This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 241
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old patient falls on an outstretched hand and presents with severe elbow pain and instability. Radiographs confirm a posterior elbow dislocation, a comminuted radial head fracture, and a Type II coronoid fracture.
If operative intervention is indicated, what is the most widely accepted surgical sequence for addressing this 'terrible triad' injury?
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury follows an 'inside-out' approach. This sequence involves fixing the coronoid first, followed by the radial head (fixation or arthroplasty), and finally repairing the lateral collateral ligament.
Question 242
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 40-year-old male weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' in his anterior elbow during a heavy deadlift. Clinical examination reveals a proximal retraction of the biceps muscle belly and significant weakness in forearm supination. If the surgeon chooses a traditional two-incision surgical approach for the repair, what complication is classically most associated with this specific technique?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioulnar synostosis
Explanation
The traditional two-incision technique for distal biceps repair is classically associated with a higher risk of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis compared to the single anterior incision. A single anterior incision carries a higher risk of injury to the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve.
Question 243
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 5-year-old child presents to the emergency department after an elbow injury. The orthopedic resident reviews the elbow radiographs to assess for any avulsion fractures. According to the normal sequential ossification of the pediatric elbow (CRITOE), at what age does the medial epicondyle ossification center typically appear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 year
Explanation
The ossification centers of the pediatric elbow follow the CRITOE mnemonic (Capitellum, Radius, Internal/Medial epicondyle, Trochlea, Olecranon, External epicondyle). These typically appear at ages 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, and 11 years, respectively.
Question 244
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. Diagnosis of the condition is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brachial plexus neuropraxia
Explanation
The involved muscles have C5, C6 root innervations. Positive Tinel's sign, functioning rhomboids and serratus anterior, and the absence of Horner's syndrome rule out a preganglionic lesion. The EMG finding confirms the clinical finding. Subclinical involvement of any other muscle is not shown. Neuropraxia usually recovers in 6 weeks and EMG shows fibrillation, which is inconsistent with neuropraxia. Brachial plexus neuritis, Parsonage-Turner syndrome, has an acute presentation following a painful episode involving the whole arm. There is significant history of a fall in this case.
Question 245
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3-cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The level of lesion is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Postganglionic C5, C6
Explanation
The involved muscles have C5, C6 root innervations. Positive Tinel's sign, functioning rhomboids and serratus anterior, and the absence of Horner's syndrome rule out a preganglionic lesion. The EMG finding confirms the clinical finding. Subclinical involvement of any other muscle is not shown. Neuropraxia usually recovers in 6 weeks and EMG shows fibrillation, which is inconsistent with neuropraxia. Brachial plexus neuritis, Parsonage-Turner syndrome, has an acute presentation following a painful episode involving the whole arm. There is significant history of a fall in this case.
Question 246
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The plan of management in this patient 5 months postinjury with no clinical improvement should be:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Exploration and nerve grafting
Explanation
Neurotization is appropriate in preganglionic lesions. If at 6 months a patient shows no evidence of recovery, it is time for plexus exploration. Further observation will not change the picture. Tendon transfers are reconstructive procedures, which are done at a later stage.
Question 247
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle eight weeks prior. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. Clinical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3-cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinel's sign is positive around the clavicle. Horner's signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion. The most important function that needs to be restored in this patient is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Elbow flexion
Explanation
Elbow flexion is central to management of brachial plexus management because it serves the most important function of feeding.
Question 248
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Indications for operative treatment in an acute elbow dislocation include:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recurrent dislocation with extension past 50°
Explanation
Recurrent dislocations with extension past 50° represent a significant injury to the elbow and require a stabilization period. Instability to valgus stress represents injury to the anterior band of the medial collateral ligament of the elbow and will heal with protected motion. The majority of radial head fractures (Mason type I and II) that are less than 30% of the radial head and less than 30° angulation heal with good functional results. Most dislocations will have osteochondral lesions. Ulnar nerve paresthesias can be associated with dislocations but is not an indication for operative fixation.
Question 249
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
When performing open reduction and internal fixation of radial neck fractures, the plate should be placed:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Forearm in supination with plate posterior
Explanation
The "nonarticular safe-zone" comprising only 90° of the radial head circumference is achieved by placing the plate posterior with the arm in supination.
Question 250
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Heterotopic ossification after elbow dislocations is not associated with which of the following:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Delay surgical intervention
Explanation
Heterotopic ossification is commonly associated with delay of surgical intervention, closed head injury, aggressive passive range of motion after dislocation, and extensive surgical dissection. Radiographic evidence of heterotopic ossification is present in 75% of patients with elbow dislocations but only 5% of these are clinically significant.
Question 251
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Favorable indications for attempted replantation include:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Amputation of the thumb
Explanation
Favorable indications for replantation include thumb amputations because of the functional importance of the thumb. Warm ischemias less than 8 hours or cold ischemia time less than 16 hours are more favorable for replantation.
Question 252
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which of the following areas is not involved in ulnar club hand:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vertebra
Explanation
Vertebrae are usually not involved in ulnar club hand.
Question 253
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
All of the following are true statements regarding elbow involvement in ulnar club hand except:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nearly 50% of aplasia patients have radiohumeral synostosis.
Explanation
Elbow instability does not correspond with severity of involvement. Fifty percent of patients with total aplasia have radiohumeral synostosis, which provides adequate stability.
Question 254
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old man presents with marked lateral elbow pain. He says that the pain has been present for 3 weeks. He has no history of recent trauma. He is an avid tennis player, and he feels increased pain after playing tennis and when doing wrist extension exercises in the gym. His pain is maximally reproduced with resisted middle finger extension and with forearm supination with the elbow extended. Electromyography would confirm the diagnosis as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial tunnel syndrome
Explanation
The clinical picture is similar to that of lateral epicondylitis. However, the maximal tenderness is slightly more distal, just beyond the radial head. Diagnosis may be confirmed using provocative maneuvers (resisted middle finger extension or forearm supination with the elbow extended) or with electromyography.
Question 255
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old man presents with marked lateral elbow pain. He says that the pain has been present for 3 weeks. He has no history of recent trauma. He is an avid tennis player, and he feels increased pain after playing tennis and when doing wrist extension exercises in the gym. His pain is maximally reproduced with resisted middle finger extension and with forearm supination with the elbow extended. Which of the following is the appropriate initial treatment:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anti-inflammatory medication and a program of muscle strengthening
Explanation
Ninety to 95% of all patients with tennis elbow respond to nonoperative treatment, which should always be tried first. Treatment begins with a period of rest, ice, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
Question 256
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 24-year-old motorcyclist sustains a traction injury to his right brachial plexus. Exam shows absent shoulder abduction, elbow flexion, and wrist extension. Sensation is absent in the C5, C6, and C7 dermatomes. Sensory nerve action potentials (SNAPs) for the median and radial nerves are normal in the right upper extremity. What does this indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Preganglionic root avulsion
Explanation
Intact SNAPs in the presence of clinical anesthesia indicate a preganglionic lesion (root avulsion). The dorsal root ganglion is intact and connected to the peripheral nerve, maintaining the sensory axon despite loss of central connection.
Question 257
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During the surgical repair of a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow, which of the following sequences is the standard algorithm for reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repair coronoid, fix or replace radial head, repair LCL
Explanation
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury works deep to superficial: repair the coronoid first, then fix or replace the radial head, and finally repair the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).
Question 258
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 28-year-old female overhead athlete complains of vague pain, numbness, and tingling in her medial forearm and fourth and fifth digits. Symptoms are exacerbated by overhead activities. Provocative maneuvers such as the Roos stress test and Adson's test are positive. Which anatomical structure is most frequently responsible for this specific pattern of neural compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cervical rib or an anomalous fibrous band
Explanation
Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome most commonly affects the lower trunk (C8-T1) of the brachial plexus, leading to medial arm and hand symptoms. It is frequently caused by compression from a true cervical rib or an anomalous fibrous band extending from C7 in the scalene triangle.
Question 259
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 22-year-old male is evaluated 6 months after sustaining a massive upper extremity crush injury. He has intact shoulder abduction and elbow flexion but cannot actively extend his wrist or fingers.
EMG demonstrates absent motor units in the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) and extensor digitorum communis (EDC) with no signs of reinnervation. Tendon transfers are planned. Which of the following is the most standard and reliable tendon transfer to restore active wrist extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres to extensor carpi radialis brevis
Explanation
In the setting of an irreversible radial nerve palsy, the standard tendon transfer to restore functional wrist extension utilizes the pronator teres (PT) transferred to the ECRB. The ECRB is chosen over the ECRL because its central insertion at the base of the third metacarpal prevents unwanted radial deviation.
Question 260
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
The most common forearm deformity in patients with hereditary multiple osteochondromatosis is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head dislocation
Explanation
Ulnar involvement and shortening frequently occur in patients with hereditary multiple osteochondromatosis because the distal ulnar growth plate is smaller than that of the radius; consequently, its length is affected more. The ulnar shortening causes radial bowing or radial head dislocation.
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