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Question 2541

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During shoulder arthroscopy for a suspected massive rotator cuff tear, a distinct "comma sign" is observed. This visual landmark represents the torn edge of the subscapularis intimately attached to which of the following ligamentous structures?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and coracohumeral ligament (CHL)
. Middle glenohumeral ligament (MGHL)
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL)
. Biceps long head tendon proper
. Coracoacromial ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and coracohumeral ligament (CHL)


Explanation

The arthroscopic "comma sign" is formed by the avulsed superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and coracohumeral ligament (CHL) complex that remains firmly attached to the superolateral corner of a retracted subscapularis tendon.

Question 2542

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Valgus stress testing reveals pain and increased laxity compared to the contralateral elbow. MRI shows a high-grade partial tear of the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). The primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of elbow flexion is the:

. Posterior bundle of the UCL
. Anterior bundle of the UCL
. Transverse bundle of the UCL
. Radial collateral ligament
. Flexor-pronator mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the UCL


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. It is most commonly injured in throwing athletes during the late cocking and early acceleration phases.

Question 2543

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with anterior shoulder pain. Examination of the throwing arm reveals 20 degrees of internal rotation (IR) and 130 degrees of external rotation (ER). The contralateral arm has 60 degrees of IR and 90 degrees of ER. What is the initial treatment of choice for this condition?

. Arthroscopic anterior capsulorrhaphy
. Arthroscopic posterior capsular release
. Posterior capsular stretching program
. Superior labrum anterior-posterior (SLAP) repair
. Open anterior capsulolabral reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior capsular stretching program


Explanation

This patient has Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) secondary to posterior capsular contracture. The first-line treatment is a targeted physical therapy program utilizing cross-body and sleeper stretches to stretch the posterior capsule.

Question 2544

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 23-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain that occurs during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals a high-grade partial tear of the proximal ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). He has not attempted any nonoperative treatment. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Ulnar nerve transposition
. Primary UCL repair with internal brace augmentation
. Platelet-rich plasma (PRP) injection and structured physical therapy
. UCL reconstruction using a palmaris longus autograft
. Corticosteroid injection into the sublime tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Platelet-rich plasma (PRP) injection and structured physical therapy


Explanation

First-line management for a partial UCL tear in a throwing athlete involves an initial period of rest, structured physical therapy, and often a PRP injection. Surgery is generally reserved for complete tears or partial tears that fail a comprehensive trial of nonoperative management.

Question 2545

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 14-year-old gymnast complains of lateral elbow pain, clicking, and mechanical catching. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent lesion in the capitellum. MRI demonstrates fluid behind an osteochondral fragment, with an associated loose body. What is the recommended management?

. Strict cessation of gymnastics for 6 months and NSAIDs
. Drilling of the capitellum in situ with a retrograde approach
. Fragment excision, removal of loose bodies, and microfracture of the bed
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the capitellum only
. Total elbow arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fragment excision, removal of loose bodies, and microfracture of the bed


Explanation

Unstable osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesions of the capitellum (indicated by fluid behind the lesion or loose bodies) in throwing athletes or gymnasts require surgical intervention. Excision of the fragment with microfracture of the bed is the standard treatment for smaller lesions.

Question 2546

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of medial elbow pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Valgus stress testing reproduces pain but reveals a firm endpoint. MRI demonstrates high-grade partial tearing of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). What is the most appropriate initial management?

. UCL reconstruction using palmaris longus autograft
. UCL repair with internal bracing
. Immediate intra-articular corticosteroid injection
. Six weeks of absolute rest followed by a structured throwing program
. Submuscular ulnar nerve transposition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Six weeks of absolute rest followed by a structured throwing program


Explanation

Initial management for partial UCL tears in throwing athletes is a period of rest (typically 6 weeks) to allow ligament healing, followed by physical therapy and a graduated return-to-throwing program. Surgery is reserved for complete tears or failed nonoperative management.

Question 2547

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain and decreased pitching velocity. MRI demonstrates a high-grade partial tear of the distal ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). During UCL reconstruction using a docking technique, where must the ulnar bone tunnel be placed to accurately recreate the native ligament footprint?

. At the axis of rotation on the medial epicondyle
. 5 millimeters proximal to the sublime tubercle
. Directly along the sublime tubercle
. 10 millimeters distal to the sublime tubercle
. At the tip of the coronoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Directly along the sublime tubercle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the native UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress, and its distal insertion is located along the sublime tubercle of the ulna. The ulnar bone tunnels in UCL reconstruction should be placed precisely at this anatomical footprint to restore joint kinematics.

Question 2548

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 14-year-old male competitive gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain and mechanical catching. Radiographs show a radiolucent lesion of the capitellum. An MRI demonstrates a 12 mm osteochondral defect with a rim of high T2 signal fluid tracking completely behind the lesion. What is the recommended treatment?

. Cessation of gymnastics and observation for 3 months
. Arthroscopic drilling of the intact lesion
. Surgical fixation or osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Radial head excision
. Ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical fixation or osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)


Explanation

The presence of fluid tracking completely behind an osteochondral lesion of the capitellum on a T2-weighted MRI indicates an unstable fragment. Since the patient is symptomatic and the lesion is structurally unstable, surgical intervention (fixation or OATS) is required.

Question 2549

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old weightlifter requires a distal biceps tendon repair. If the surgeon opts for a traditional two-incision (Boyd-Anderson) technique rather than a single anterior extensile approach, the patient is at a relatively higher risk for which of the following complications?

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve injury
. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) injury
. Radioulnar synostosis
. Median nerve palsy
. Brachial artery transection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radioulnar synostosis


Explanation

The two-incision technique was historically designed to minimize injury to the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve commonly seen with the single-incision approach. However, the muscle-splitting dissection significantly increases the risk of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis.

Question 2550

Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 9-year-old child sustains a displaced radial neck fracture with 45 degrees of angulation. Closed reduction attempts in the emergency department fail to improve the alignment. What is the next best step in management?
. Cast immobilization in current position
. Percutaneous pin leverage (Métaizeau technique)
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a plate
. Excision of the radial head
. Observation with early range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Percutaneous pin leverage (Métaizeau technique)


Explanation

Radial neck fractures with unacceptable angulation (>30-45 degrees) that fail closed reduction are best treated with percutaneous techniques, such as the Métaizeau retrograde intramedullary pinning method.

Question 2551

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 9-year-old boy falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a radial neck fracture with 25 degrees of angulation. He has 60 degrees of pronation and supination. What is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Long arm casting in situ
. Sling for comfort and early range of motion
. Excision of the radial head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sling for comfort and early range of motion


Explanation

In children younger than 10 years, radial neck fractures with less than 30 degrees of angulation and acceptable rotation (>50 degrees of pronation/supination) can be managed non-operatively. A sling and early range of motion are sufficient as remodeling potential is excellent.

Question 2552

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman undergoes reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. At her 2-year follow-up, radiographs show inferior scapular notching. Which of the following surgical techniques decreases the risk of this complication?

. Superior placement of the glenosphere
. Inferior tilt of the glenosphere
. Medialization of the center of rotation
. Increasing the neck-shaft angle of the humeral component
. Decreasing the glenosphere size

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior tilt of the glenosphere


Explanation

Inferior tilt and inferior translation of the glenosphere in RTSA help prevent scapular notching. This avoids mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck during adduction.

Question 2553

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 32-year-old male bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals bruising and a loss of the anterior axillary fold contour. Weakness will be most pronounced in which of the following shoulder motions?

. Abduction and external rotation
. Adduction and internal rotation
. Forward elevation and external rotation
. Extension and abduction
. Internal rotation and elevation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adduction and internal rotation


Explanation

The pectoralis major acts primarily to adduct, internally rotate, and flex the humerus. Rupture commonly occurs during eccentric loading, such as the eccentric phase of a bench press.

Question 2554

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 40-year-old woman develops lateral scapular winging after a cervical lymph node biopsy. Which nerve was most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Injury to the spinal accessory nerve paralyzes the trapezius, resulting in lateral scapular winging. Medial winging is caused by long thoracic nerve injury (serratus anterior paralysis).

Question 2555

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with severe, progressive shoulder pain and stiffness over the last 4 months. She has an equal loss of active and passive range of motion, most notably in external rotation. What is the underlying pathophysiology of her condition?

. Degeneration of the articular cartilage
. Fibroblastic proliferation and capsular fibrosis
. Deposition of calcium hydroxyapatite in the rotator cuff
. Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve
. Ischemic necrosis of the humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibroblastic proliferation and capsular fibrosis


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) is characterized by fibroblastic proliferation and thickening/contracture of the joint capsule. Diabetes is a major risk factor, and restricted passive external rotation is the hallmark finding.

Question 2556

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 78-year-old right-hand dominant woman sustains a displaced 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity. She has severe pre-existing glenohumeral osteoarthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

In an elderly patient with a complex proximal humerus fracture and pre-existing glenohumeral osteoarthritis, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated. It bypasses the need for tuberosity healing to restore elevation and addresses the arthritic joint.

Question 2557

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 30-year-old male falls directly on his shoulder adducted to his side. Radiographs show a 150% superior displacement of the distal clavicle relative to the acromion. What is the classification and recommended initial management for this injury?
. Type II, nonoperative management
. Type III, nonoperative management
. Type V, operative reconstruction
. Type IV, nonoperative management
. Type VI, operative reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type V, operative reconstruction


Explanation

A Type V AC joint injury is characterized by 100% to 300% superior displacement of the clavicle due to rupture of both the AC and CC ligaments with deltotrapezial fascial stripping. Operative reconstruction is generally recommended.

Question 2558

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 35-year-old woman underwent a cervical lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of her neck 6 weeks ago. She now complains of a drooping right shoulder, dull aching pain, and an inability to actively elevate her arm above the horizontal plane. Physical examination reveals lateral winging of the scapula. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Injury to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) in the posterior triangle leads to trapezius paralysis. This presents with a drooping shoulder, weakness in overhead elevation, and lateral scapular winging.

Question 2559

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination of the throwing shoulder reveals 130 degrees of external rotation (ER) and 30 degrees of internal rotation (IR) at 90 degrees of abduction. The contralateral shoulder has 100 degrees of ER and 60 degrees of IR. The total arc of motion is 160 degrees bilaterally. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Anterior capsulolabral reconstruction
. Posterior capsule stretching program
. Arthroscopic posterior capsular release
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior capsule stretching program


Explanation

This patient has glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) with a preserved total arc of motion. The initial treatment is non-operative, focusing on sleeper stretches to address posterior capsular tightness.

Question 2560

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 25-year-old male presents with pronounced medial winging of his right scapula after sustaining a direct blow to the lateral chest wall during a hockey game. He is unable to perform a wall push-up without the scapula lifting off the thorax. Which muscle and corresponding nerve are primarily affected?

. Trapezius innervated by the spinal accessory nerve
. Serratus anterior innervated by the long thoracic nerve
. Rhomboids innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve
. Latissimus dorsi innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve
. Levator scapulae innervated by C3-C4 branches

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serratus anterior innervated by the long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is characteristic of serratus anterior dysfunction, which is caused by an injury to the long thoracic nerve.