This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2501
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
Which of the following patient populations has the highest incidence and worst prognosis for developing adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patients with Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation
Diabetes mellitus, particularly Type 1, is a major risk factor for adhesive capsulitis. These patients typically have a more protracted clinical course, severe stiffness, and worse functional outcomes compared to idiopathic cases.
Question 2502
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 6-year-old child sustains a plastic deformation fracture of the proximal ulna with an anterior dislocation of the radial head. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anatomic reduction and stabilization of the ulna
Explanation
This describes a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation. Restoring the length and anatomic alignment of the ulnar shaft typically results in spontaneous reduction and stability of the radial head.
Question 2503
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In a patient with a chronic radial nerve palsy, which tendon transfer is most commonly utilized to restore active wrist extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres to extensor carpi radialis brevis
Explanation
The pronator teres is routinely transferred to the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) to restore wrist extension. The ECRB is chosen over the ECRL to maintain central alignment and avoid excessive radial deviation during extension.
Question 2504
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old man presents after a fall onto an outstretched hand. He sustains a posterolateral elbow dislocation with associated fractures of the radial head and coronoid process. After closed reduction, the elbow remains persistently unstable at 45 degrees of extension. In what order should the surgical reconstruction of this 'terrible triad' injury generally proceed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, followed by radial head repair/replacement, then LCL repair
Explanation
The standard algorithm for terrible triad injuries is to restore stability from deep to superficial, typically starting with coronoid fixation. This is followed by radial head repair or arthroplasty, and finally reconstruction of the lateral collateral ligament complex.
Question 2505
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 76-year-old female sustains a 4-part proximal humerus fracture after a mechanical fall. Radiographs demonstrate severe valgus impaction, disruption of the medial hinge, and metaphyseal extension less than 8 mm. Which surgical option is shown to provide the most predictable improvement in functional outcome and pain relief in this specific demographic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA)
Explanation
RTSA is increasingly preferred for elderly patients with 4-part proximal humerus fractures due to reliable pain relief and functional outcomes, bypassing the need for tuberosity healing which frequently fails in hemiarthroplasty or ORIF. The described fracture pattern carries a very high risk of humeral head avascular necrosis.
Question 2506
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old man sustains an isolated fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with an associated anterior dislocation of the radial head. Regarding the definitive management of this specific injury pattern in an adult, which of the following statements is most accurate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anatomic rigid internal fixation of the ulna usually results in spontaneous reduction of the radial head
Explanation
This is a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation. In adults, rigid anatomic internal fixation of the ulnar shaft fracture is required; this typically restores the bony anatomy and length, leading to spontaneous reduction of the radiocapitellar joint without needing open radial head reduction.
Question 2507
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 48-year-old bodybuilder feels a sudden pop in his antecubital fossa while performing heavy bicep curls. He has weakness in supination and an abnormal Hook test. If the surgeon chooses to repair this injury using a single-incision anterior approach, which nerve is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN)
Explanation
Distal biceps ruptures repaired via a single-incision anterior approach carry the highest risk of injury to the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) due to retraction. While the PIN is also at risk, LABCN neurapraxia is the most common complication overall.
Question 2508
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 55-year-old woman with poorly controlled type II diabetes presents with an insidious onset of diffuse shoulder pain and profound restriction of both active and passive range of motion. Radiographs are unremarkable. Which specific anatomic structure is primarily responsible for the loss of external rotation observed in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracohumeral ligament
Explanation
In adhesive capsulitis, fibroblastic proliferation and contracture heavily involve the rotator interval. Contracture of the coracohumeral ligament, a primary component of the rotator interval, is specifically responsible for the marked loss of passive external rotation.
Question 2509
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 38-year-old female falls onto her outstretched hand and sustains a coronal shear fracture of the distal humerus. Radiographs demonstrate a 'double arc' sign on the lateral view. Which of the following best describes the anatomy of this specific fracture pattern (McKee Type IV)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Shear fracture involving the capitellum and most of the trochlea
Explanation
The 'double arc' sign on a lateral elbow radiograph represents a type IV coronal shear fracture, which involves the capitellum and extends medially to include most of the trochlea. The two arcs represent the subchondral bone of the capitellum and the lateral ridge of the trochlea.
Question 2510
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 70-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for rotator cuff tear arthropathy. To minimize the risk of postoperative scapular notching, which of the following intraoperative techniques regarding glenosphere placement is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior translation and inferior tilt
Explanation
Scapular notching in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral cup against the inferior scapular neck. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere have been shown to significantly reduce this risk by clearing the inferior scapular pillar.
Question 2511
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 42-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, after stable fixation of the coronoid and radial head, the elbow remains persistently unstable in extension. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repair the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
Explanation
The standard surgical protocol for terrible triad injuries follows an inside-out or outside-in approach, but definitively requires fixing the coronoid, then the radial head, followed by repairing the LUCL. If the elbow remains unstable after LUCL repair, MUCL repair or hinged external fixation may then be considered.
Question 2512
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 38-year-old male bodybuilder undergoes a two-incision surgical repair of a complete distal biceps tendon rupture. Compared to a single anterior incision technique, this patient is at an increased risk for which of the following postoperative complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis
Explanation
The two-incision technique for distal biceps repair was designed to avoid nerve injury but is associated with a significantly higher risk of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis. In contrast, the single anterior incision approach carries a higher risk of radial or lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve neuropraxia.
Question 2513
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 78-year-old woman sustains a severely comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Her history is notable for severe osteoporosis and chronic, massive rotator cuff tearing. Which surgical option is most likely to provide her with reliable forward elevation and the best functional outcome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the treatment of choice for elderly patients with complex 4-part proximal humerus fractures in the setting of rotator cuff arthropathy or poor bone quality. RTSA provides much more predictable forward elevation and functional recovery compared to hemiarthroplasty or ORIF in this demographic.
Question 2514
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 33-year-old woman presents with a severely comminuted radial head fracture involving the entire head and neck, accompanied by a mechanical block to forearm rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a Mason Type III fracture. Intraoperatively, the fracture is deemed completely unreconstructible. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head arthroplasty with a metallic prosthesis
Explanation
For unreconstructible, comminuted Mason Type III radial head fractures, radial head replacement with a metallic prosthesis is the gold standard. Radial head excision alone is generally avoided due to the high risk of proximal radius migration and longitudinal instability, especially if occult ligamentous injuries exist.
Question 2515
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 42-year-old man falls from a ladder and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury to his elbow. During surgical reconstruction, after addressing the coronoid and replacing the radial head, the elbow remains unstable. Repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex is performed. The primary isometric stabilizer of the LCL complex originates from the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supinator crest of the ulna
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary isometric stabilizer of the posterolateral elbow. It originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna.
Question 2516
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old weightlifter undergoes a single-incision anterior approach repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he notes numbness along the lateral aspect of his volar forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the superficial exposure and retraction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous (LABC) nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior distal biceps repair. In contrast, the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at higher risk during the muscle-splitting phase of a two-incision approach.
Question 2517
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which of the following best describes the biomechanical rationale for utilizing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty in a patient with massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear arthropathy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It medializes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation to increase the deltoid moment arm.
Explanation
A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty medializes and inferiorly translates the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint. This biomechanical alteration lengthens the deltoid, increasing its moment arm and allowing it to compensate for the deficient rotator cuff.
Question 2518
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 24-year-old pitcher presents with vague shoulder pain and a prominent medial border of the right scapula, especially when performing a wall push-up. EMG confirms an isolated nerve palsy. Which of the following statements regarding the affected nerve is accurate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It passes superficial to the serratus anterior muscle.
Explanation
Medial scapular winging is caused by a long thoracic nerve palsy. The long thoracic nerve (C5-C7 roots) is unique because it courses superficial to the serratus anterior muscle it innervates, making it susceptible to blunt trauma and traction injuries.
Question 2519
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 55-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with progressively worsening, severe shoulder pain that awakens her at night. Active and passive range of motion are moderately restricted globally. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections are being considered. She is currently in the classic 'freezing' phase of adhesive capsulitis. What is the predominant histological characteristic of the joint capsule during this phase?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hypervascular synovitis with perivascular inflammatory infiltrate
Explanation
The 'freezing' phase (Stage II) of adhesive capsulitis is characterized by severe pain and early stiffness. Histologically, it demonstrates hypervascular, hypertrophic synovitis with a marked perivascular inflammatory infiltrate before progressing to dense fibrosis in the later stages.
Question 2520
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A 28-year-old overhead athlete undergoes arthroscopic bursectomy for refractory snapping scapula syndrome. Which of the following bursae is most commonly implicated and located between the serratus anterior and the subscapularis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraserratus bursa
Explanation
The supraserratus bursa is located between the deep surface of the subscapularis and the superficial surface of the serratus anterior. Inflammation of this bursa or the infraserratus bursa is a primary cause of snapping scapula syndrome.
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