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Question 2201

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old man presents with chronic, severe right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm past 40 degrees. Radiographs demonstrate superior migration of the humeral head with acromiohumeral articulation and severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis. MRI shows a massive, retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear. What is the optimal surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic massive rotator cuff repair
. Superior capsule reconstruction
. Total shoulder arthroplasty (anatomic)
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic massive rotator cuff repair


Explanation

This patient has rotator cuff tear arthropathy presenting with pseudoparalysis. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the treatment of choice, as it relies on the deltoid muscle for elevation and correctly addresses both the deficient rotator cuff and arthritis.

Question 2202

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old woman presents with severe shoulder pain, active forward elevation to 50 degrees, and a positive drop arm test. Radiographs show a superiorly migrated humeral head with severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis. MRI confirms a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear with grade 4 fatty infiltration. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for rotator cuff arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It medializes the center of rotation and increases the deltoid moment arm, restoring forward elevation.

Question 2203

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is highly effective for patients with rotator cuff arthropathy. Which of the following best describes the primary biomechanical advantage of RTSA compared to anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Lateralizes the center of rotation to increase the rotator cuff moment arm
. Medializes and distalizes the center of rotation to increase the deltoid moment arm
. Restores the anatomic center of rotation to optimize supraspinatus function
. Increases the humeral head radius of curvature to improve stability
. Decreases the deltoid wrapping angle to reduce compressive forces

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateralizes the center of rotation to increase the rotator cuff moment arm


Explanation

RTSA medializes and distalizes the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint. This significantly increases the moment arm and resting tension of the deltoid muscle, allowing it to initiate and maintain forward elevation even in the absence of a functional rotator cuff.

Question 2204

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 74-year-old man presents with chronic, severe shoulder pain and pseudoparalysis of the right arm. Examination demonstrates active forward elevation to 40 degrees and intact axillary nerve function.

Radiographs show severe superior migration of the humeral head with acetabularization of the acromion. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the gold standard for rotator cuff arthropathy with pseudoparalysis and an intact deltoid. Anatomic arthroplasty is contraindicated due to the massive rotator cuff deficiency, which would lead to superior escape.

Question 2205

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 42-year-old woman presents to the clinic with acute, extremely severe, burning shoulder pain that started spontaneously 2 weeks ago. The pain has now decreased, but she has developed profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. EMG demonstrates acute denervation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Massive acute rotator cuff tear
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
. Adhesive capsulitis
. Cervical radiculopathy
. Thoracic outlet syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Massive acute rotator cuff tear


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome (brachial neuritis) classically presents with acute, severe, unremitting shoulder pain followed days or weeks later by profound muscle weakness and atrophy as the pain subsides. Treatment is generally non-operative.

Question 2206

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 50-year-old woman with severe adhesive capsulitis undergoes arthroscopic capsular release. The surgeon carefully releases the thickened structures within the rotator interval. Which of the following is NOT a normal anatomic component of the rotator interval?

. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The rotator interval is a triangular space bounded by the supraspinatus superiorly and the subscapularis inferiorly. Its contents include the coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament, long head of the biceps, and joint capsule, but NOT the middle glenohumeral ligament.

Question 2207

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old recreational skier presents with persistent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI arthrogram reveals extravasation of contrast into the axilla and a "J-sign" replacing the normal U-shaped inferior glenohumeral recess. What is the diagnosis?

. ALPSA lesion
. Perthes lesion
. HAGL lesion
. GLAD lesion
. Reverse Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) presents with an incompetent inferior glenohumeral ligament complex. On MRI arthrogram, the normal U-shaped axillary pouch is replaced by a "J-sign" indicating contrast extravasation.

Question 2208

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 74-year-old female presents with severe right shoulder pain, pseudoparalysis, and a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head with an acromiohumeral distance < 2 mm. Which of the following is an absolute prerequisite for a successful Reverse Total Shoulder Arthroplasty (RTSA) in this patient?

. Intact supraspinatus tendon
. Intact long head of the biceps
. Functioning axillary nerve and deltoid muscle
. Functioning suprascapular nerve
. Intact coracoacromial ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intact supraspinatus tendon


Explanation

RTSA relies on the deltoid muscle to elevate the arm, bypassing the deficient rotator cuff mechanics. A functioning axillary nerve and intact deltoid are absolute prerequisites for a successful outcome.

Question 2209

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow



A 35-year-old laborer presents with persistent superior shoulder pain and impingement symptoms. An axillary radiograph reveals an unfused acromial apophysis (meso-acromiale) that is mobile on physical examination. After failing 6 months of conservative management, what is the recommended surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression and acromioplasty
. Excision of the entire unfused fragment
. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the fragment
. Coracoacromial ligament release only
. Distal clavicle excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression and acromioplasty


Explanation

A symptomatic, mobile meso-acromiale (the most common type of os acromiale) that fails conservative management is best treated with ORIF (often with bone grafting). Excision risks severe deltoid dysfunction, and isolated acromioplasty further destabilizes the fragment.

Question 2210

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During the late cocking phase of throwing, the shoulder is maximally abducted and externally rotated. Which structural component is the primary restraint to anterior glenohumeral translation in this specific position?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) is the primary restraint to anterior translation when the arm is positioned at 90 degrees of abduction and maximal external rotation.

Question 2211

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Reconstruction of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (MUCL) of the elbow typically targets the anterior bundle. The anterior bundle is the primary restraint to valgus stress at which of the following elbow flexion angles?

. 0 to 20 degrees
. 30 to 120 degrees
. 130 to 150 degrees
. It is only a secondary restraint at all angles
. Full extension only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 0 to 20 degrees


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the MUCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress from approximately 30 degrees to 120 degrees of elbow flexion. In full extension, the radiocapitellar bony articulation provides the primary valgus stability.

Question 2212

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher presents with anterior shoulder pain and apprehension. Biomechanical evaluation of the glenohumeral joint during the late cocking phase of throwing (90 degrees of abduction and maximal external rotation) demonstrates that anterior translation is primarily restrained by which structure?

. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex acts like a hammock. It becomes the primary restraint to anterior and inferior humeral head translation when the arm is abducted to 90 degrees and externally rotated.

Question 2213

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old overhead athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Biomechanical testing demonstrates maximum instability when the arm is positioned in 90 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation. Which specific structure is the primary restraint to anterior translation in this position?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the primary restraint to anterior and inferior subluxation at 90 degrees of abduction. Specifically, the anterior band tightens during external rotation in this abducted position.

Question 2214

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

When designing a hinged external fixator for a complex elbow fracture-dislocation, precise alignment of the fixator axis is critical. The instant center of rotation of the normal ulnohumeral joint is best described as:

. Translating 5 mm distally during flexion
. Translating 5 mm proximally during extension
. A single fixed axis located concentrically within the capitellum
. A single fixed point located near the center of the trochlear arcs
. An elliptical pathway tracking along the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Translating 5 mm distally during flexion


Explanation

The elbow approximates a true hinge joint. The instant center of rotation is tightly constrained to a very small area (essentially a single fixed point) passing through the center of the trochlea and capitellum.

Question 2215

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old overhead throwing athlete presents with anterior shoulder instability. The physical examination reveals apprehension when the shoulder is placed in 90 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation. Which ligamentous structure is the primary restraint to anterior translation in this specific position?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

In 90 degrees of abduction and external rotation, the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) is the primary restraint to anterior glenohumeral translation. The superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments provide restraint at lower degrees of abduction.

Question 2216

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old baseball pitcher presents with right upper extremity numbness and fatigue. Examination reveals a diminished radial pulse with shoulder hyperabduction. The compression is clinically suspected to occur within the interscalene triangle. Which of the following structures is most likely NOT compressed in this specific space?

. Subclavian artery
. Lower trunk of the brachial plexus
. Middle trunk of the brachial plexus
. Subclavian vein
. Upper trunk of the brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subclavian artery


Explanation

The subclavian vein runs anterior to the anterior scalene muscle and therefore does not pass through the interscalene triangle. The subclavian artery and the roots/trunks of the brachial plexus pass between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, making them susceptible to compression in thoracic outlet syndrome.

Question 2217

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

During surgical decompression for recalcitrant intersection syndrome, the surgeon identifies intense tenosynovitis at the crossing point of two muscle bellies over two underlying tendons. The muscle bellies involved in this pathology belong to the:

. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
. Extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis
. Extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis proprius
. Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis


Explanation

Intersection syndrome is a painful tenosynovitis occurring where the muscle bellies of the first dorsal compartment (APL and EPB) cross over the tendons of the second dorsal compartment (ECRL and ECRB). It typically presents with pain and swelling approximately 4 to 6 cm proximal to Lister's tubercle.

Question 2218

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A patient is evaluated for posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following a dislocation. This condition is primarily associated with incompetence of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). What is the exact distal insertion site of the LUCL?

. Radial tuberosity
. Coronoid process of the ulna
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Sublime tubercle
. Tip of the olecranon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial tuberosity


Explanation

The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle and passes posterior to the radial head to insert on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. It acts as the primary restraint against posterolateral subluxation of the radial head.

Question 2219

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient presents with pronounced medial winging of the scapula after a direct blow to the lateral chest wall. The injured nerve originates from which of the following brachial plexus structures?

. C3, C4, C5 nerve roots
. C5, C6, C7 nerve roots
. C7, C8, T1 nerve roots
. Upper trunk
. Posterior cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C3, C4, C5 nerve roots


Explanation

Medial scapular winging is caused by serratus anterior paralysis due to injury of the long thoracic nerve. This nerve arises directly from the anterior rami of the C5, C6, and C7 nerve roots.

Question 2220

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

During a posterior cervical foraminotomy at C5-C6, the surgeon aggressively retracts the lateral aspect of the facet joint. Which of the following anatomical structures is most at risk of iatrogenic injury in the extraforaminal space?

. Vertebral artery
. Cervical sympathetic chain
. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Thoracic duct
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vertebral artery


Explanation

The vertebral artery runs in the transverse foramen, which lies immediately anterior to the exiting cervical nerve roots. Overly aggressive lateral dissection during a posterior foraminotomy puts the vertebral artery at significant risk.