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Question 2061

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

When evaluating a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the primary static restraint to anterior translation must be assessed. At 90 degrees of shoulder abduction and external rotation, which structure is the primary restraint?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament complex
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the primary static restraint to anterior and inferior humeral head translation when the arm is abducted to 90 degrees and externally rotated.

Question 2062

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 25-year-old athlete presents with medial winging of the scapula after a traction injury to the shoulder. Which nerve is most likely injured, and what are its contributing nerve roots?

. Spinal accessory nerve; CN XI
. Long thoracic nerve; C5, C6, C7
. Dorsal scapular nerve; C5
. Suprascapular nerve; C5, C6
. Thoracodorsal nerve; C6, C7, C8

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve; CN XI


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, which arises from the C5, C6, and C7 nerve roots.

Question 2063

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

Following a radical mastectomy, a patient presents with a noticeable "winging" of the scapula with arm elevation. The injured nerve originates from which of the following brachial plexus segments?

. C5, C6, C7 roots
. Upper and middle trunks
. Posterior cord
. Lateral cord
. C8, T1 roots

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5, C6, C7 roots


Explanation

A winged scapula in this context is typically caused by injury to the long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior. This nerve originates directly from the ventral rami of the C5, C6, and C7 nerve roots.

Question 2064

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient presents with medial winging of the scapula after an axillary node dissection, indicating injury to the long thoracic nerve. From which cervical nerve roots does this nerve originate?

. C5, C6
. C5, C6, C7
. C6, C7, C8
. C7, C8, T1
. C8, T1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5, C6


Explanation

The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle and is formed by the ventral rami of the C5, C6, and C7 cervical nerve roots.

Question 2065

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During an anterior approach to the elbow for a distal biceps tendon repair, the surgeon must carefully retract the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve. Between which two muscles does this nerve typically emerge in the distal arm?

. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
. Biceps brachii and brachialis
. Brachialis and brachioradialis
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
. Triceps and anconeus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the terminal sensory branch of the musculocutaneous nerve. It emerges laterally in the distal arm between the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles.

Question 2066

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 35-year-old patient undergoes a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck. Postoperatively, the patient is unable to abduct the arm past 90 degrees and demonstrates scapular winging. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius and is highly vulnerable during procedures in the posterior cervical triangle. Trapezius palsy leads to lateral scapular winging and inability to actively abduct the shoulder past 90 degrees.

Question 2067

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year-old college baseball pitcher reports the insidious onset of medial elbow pain. Examination reveals medial elbow tenderness, a normal neurologic examination, and no obvious valgus laxity. Plain radiographs are normal. MRI scans are shown in Figures 39a and 39b. Management should consist of

. repair of the medial collateral ligament.
. excision of the posterior olecranon osteophyte.
. debridement of the degenerative portion of the common flexor origin.
. autograft reconstruction of the medial collateral ligament.
. ulnar nerve transposition.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. repair of the medial collateral ligament.


Explanation

Throwers and in particular, pitchers, are prone to high valgus loads to the elbow. A constellation of medial elbow pathology can develop, including medial epicondylitis, ulnar nerve neuritis, medial ulnar collateral ligament injuries, and posteromedial osteophytes of the olecranon. The MRI scans show significant increases in signal intensing as well as fiber disruption of the medial collateral ligament, indicating a complete tear. The common flexor origin shows a homogeneous signal and normal morphology. Therefore, excision of posterior osteophytes and debridement of the common flexor origin are not indicated. Likewise, this patient's symptoms do not indicate ulnar nerve pathology; therefore ulnar nerve transposition is not indicated. Primary repair of medial collateral ligament tears of the elbow lead to unpredictable results with an unacceptable rate of reoperation. The most predictable result in treating this high-demand athlete is reconstruction of the medial collateral ligament with autogenous tissue. Norris TR (ed): Athletic Injuries of the Elbow. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 311-323.

Question 2068

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 32-year-old rugby player presents after an acute anterior shoulder dislocation.

A coronal T2-weighted MRI reveals a J-sign with extravasation of joint fluid inferiorly into the axillary pouch, without detachment of the labrum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Buford complex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion occurs when the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex is avulsed from the humeral neck. The classic MRI finding is the J-sign, representing the droop of the torn ligament and inferior extravasation of fluid.

Question 2069

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During a routine diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy for mild non-specific pain, the surgeon visualizes a cord-like middle glenohumeral ligament and an absent anterosuperior labrum. The patient has no history of instability. What is the most appropriate management of these specific intra-articular findings?

. Repair the labrum to the anterosuperior glenoid
. Debride the middle glenohumeral ligament
. Perform a biceps tenodesis
. Observation
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy of the anterior capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Repair the labrum to the anterosuperior glenoid


Explanation

The findings describe a Buford complex, which is a normal anatomic variant present in approximately 1.5% of shoulders. It should be left alone (observation); attempting to repair the absent labrum or tethering the middle glenohumeral ligament to the glenoid will severely restrict external rotation.

Question 2070

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 19-year-old collegiate wrestler sustains an acute primary anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, what is the most significant risk factor for recurrent instability in this patient?

. Age at the time of initial dislocation
. Presence of a greater tuberosity fracture
. Immobilization in internal rotation
. Mechanism of injury
. Time to reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age at the time of initial dislocation


Explanation

The patient's age at the time of the initial anterior shoulder dislocation is the single most significant predictor of recurrence. Patients under 20 years old have recurrence rates exceeding 70% with conservative management.

Question 2071

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 42-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior shoulder during a heavy bench press.

Examination shows loss of the axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. MRI confirms a complete, retracted rupture of the pectoralis major. Which tendon head is most commonly ruptured in this scenario?

. Clavicular head at the musculotendinous junction
. Clavicular head at the humeral insertion
. Sternal head at the musculotendinous junction
. Sternal head at the humeral insertion
. Combined sternal and clavicular heads at the muscle belly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clavicular head at the musculotendinous junction


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur in weightlifters (e.g., bench pressing) and typically involve an avulsion of the sternal head at its humeral insertion. The sternal head is under maximal tension when the arm is extended and externally rotated.

Question 2072

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 28-year-old male presents with acute medial sided elbow pain after throwing a javelin. Examination reveals tenderness distal to the medial epicondyle. The moving valgus stress test is positive. Which band of the ulnar collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of flexion?

. Posterior band
. Transverse band
. Anterior band
. Annular ligament
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior band


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress of the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. Injury is common in overhead throwing athletes.

Question 2073

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 35-year-old active manual laborer is diagnosed with a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear.

Glenohumeral cartilage is intact without arthropathy. Which of the following is a biomechanically sound, joint-preserving surgical option for restoring external rotation?

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Pectoralis major tendon transfer
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi (or lower trapezius) tendon transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears and intact cartilage to restore external rotation and elevation. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is reserved for older patients or those with pseudoparalysis and cuff tear arthropathy.

Question 2074

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old man presents with severe shoulder pain, pseudoparalysis, and an irreparable massive rotator cuff tear. Radiographs show Hamada grade 3 changes (acetabularization of the acromion). Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic debridement and biceps tenotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for older patients with cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. It alters the center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to elevate the arm and restoring function despite the absent rotator cuff.

Question 2075

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman with pseudoparalysis and severe rotator cuff arthropathy is scheduled for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). The biomechanical advantage of RTSA relies on shifting the center of rotation in which directions compared to the native shoulder?

. Lateral and superior
. Lateral and inferior
. Medial and inferior
. Medial and superior
. Anterior and superior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral and superior


Explanation

RTSA medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation. This increases the lever arm of the deltoid muscle and improves its resting tension, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm in the absence of a functional rotator cuff.

Question 2076

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old man presents with pseudoparalysis of the right shoulder and a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Anteroposterior radiographs demonstrate an acromiohumeral interval of 3 mm with superior subluxation of the humeral head. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic debridement and biceps tenotomy
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer


Explanation

In older patients with a massive irreparable rotator cuff tear, pseudoparalysis, and established rotator cuff arthropathy (evidenced by an acromiohumeral interval <7 mm), a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty provides the most reliable improvement in pain and function. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty is contraindicated due to the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 2077

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 21-year-old gymnast presents with medial scapular winging. The inferior medial border of the scapula becomes extremely prominent when she pushes against a wall. Which muscle and nerve combination are primarily affected?

. Trapezius; Spinal accessory nerve
. Serratus anterior; Long thoracic nerve
. Rhomboids; Dorsal scapular nerve
. Latissimus dorsi; Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trapezius; Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Classic medial winging of the scapula, especially pronounced with forward elevation or wall push-ups, is caused by weakness or paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve.

Question 2078

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year-old collegiate swimmer presents with insidious onset of anterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals a prominent inferior medial scapular border and scapular dyskinesis at rest and during dynamic motion (SICK scapula syndrome). Initial physical therapy should focus on strengthening which of the following muscle groups?

. Serratus anterior and lower trapezius
. Pectoralis minor and major
. Upper trapezius and levator scapulae
. Supraspinatus and deltoid
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serratus anterior and lower trapezius


Explanation

SICK scapula syndrome represents Scapular malposition, Inferior medial border prominence, Coracoid pain, and dysKinesis. Rehabilitation must emphasize strengthening the periscapular stabilizers, specifically the serratus anterior and lower trapezius, while stretching the pectoralis minor.

Question 2079

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year-old collegiate tennis player is found to have a 25-degree deficit in glenohumeral internal rotation compared to his non-dominant arm, though his total arc of motion is equivalent bilaterally. He complains of vague posterior shoulder pain. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

. Arthroscopic posterior capsular release
. Posterior capsular stretching including sleeper stretches
. Anterior capsulorrhaphy
. Biceps tenodesis
. Corticosteroid injection into the posterior glenohumeral joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior capsular release


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) is characterized by a loss of internal rotation with a corresponding gain in external rotation. The definitive first-line treatment is a dedicated physical therapy program utilizing sleeper stretches and cross-body adduction to stretch the contracted posterior capsule.

Question 2080

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

An 8-year-old boy sustains a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Six months later, he demonstrates a prominent cubitus varus deformity. What is the primary underlying cause of this malalignment?

. Overgrowth of the lateral condyle physis
. Malreduction or collapse of the medial column
. Premature closure of the medial epicondyle physis
. Hypertrophy of the medial collateral ligament
. Undiagnosed radial head subluxation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overgrowth of the lateral condyle physis


Explanation

Cubitus varus following a supracondylar fracture is primarily a cosmetic deformity resulting from malunion. It is typically caused by failure to correct coronal plane rotation or collapse of a comminuted medial column during initial fixation.