Menu

Question 1901

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old woman who runs long distance has had posterior calf tenderness for the past 3 months. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 10a, and MRI scans are shown in Figures 10b and 10c. Management at this point should consist of
. a non-weight-bearing cast for 4 weeks.
. eccentric calf stretching and physical therapy.
. a cortisone injection.
. tendon debridement.
. tendon debridement and augmentation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. eccentric calf stretching and physical therapy.


Explanation

The initial treatment for peritendinitis should consist of calf stretching in an eccentric mode and physical therapy. This treatment has been found superior to surgical debridement in non-extensive peritendinitis and pantendinitis.

Question 1902

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 17-year-old patient sustained a closed calcaneal fracture when he jumped off of a roof 2 years ago, and he underwent nonsurgical management at the time of injury. The patient now reports lateral hindfoot pain that is worse with weight-bearing activities. Anti-inflammatory drugs and orthoses have failed to provide relief. Coronal and sagittal CT scans are shown in Figures 36a and 36b. What is the best course of action?
. In situ subtalar arthrodesis
. Cortisone injection in the subtalar joint followed by casting for 4 to 6 weeks
. UCBL insert
. Lateral wall exostectomy
. Bone block arthrodesis of the subtalar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral wall exostectomy


Explanation

The CT scans show evidence of a lateral wall blowout and malunion without significant arthrosis of the subtalar joint. In a young patient, it is preferable to avoid a fusion and allow residual motion by performing an exostectomy that decompresses the lateral subtalar joint and peroneal tendons.

Question 1903

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following occurs frequently after nonsurgical management of displaced intra-articular fractures of the calcaneus?

. Return to normal function
. Narrowing of the calcaneus
. Lengthening of the calcaneus
. Plantar flexion of the talus
. Peroneal tendinitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Return to normal function


Explanation

Peroneal tendinitis and stenosis are typically seen following nonsurgical management and results from lateral subfibular impingement, whereby the displaced, expanded lateral wall subluxates the peroneal tendons against the distal tip of the fibula or might even dislocate the tendons. Nonsurgical management of displaced calcaneal fractures offers little chance for return to normal function because of the development of a calcaneal malunion. The articular surface is not reduced, the heel remains shortened and widened, the talus is dorsiflexed in the ankle mortise, and the displaced lateral wall causes impingement and binding of the peroneal tendons.

Question 1904

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 31-year-old woman underwent a left Kidner procedure 3 months ago. She now has pain overlying the medial column of the foot. She withdraws the foot when touching of the medial foot is attempted. Examination reveals allodynia, pain, hyperalgesia, and edema of the medial foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Shingles
. Cellulitis
. Charcot foot
. Osteomyelitis
. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shingles


Explanation

Patients with reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD) have a history of trauma, minor rather than major (eg, Colles fracture), in about 50% to 65% of cases. The condition may also follow a surgical procedure. Patients usually have symptoms and signs of RSD including: pain, described as burning, throbbing, shooting, or aching; hyperalgesia; allodynia; and hyperpathia. There are trophic changes within 10 days of onset of RSD in 30% of the extremities affected, including stiffness and edema and atrophy of hair, nails, and/or skin. Finally there can be autonomic dysfunction, such as abnormal sweating, either in excess or anhydrosis, heat and cold insensitivity, or redness or bluish discoloration of the extremities. Shingles, also called herpes zoster or zoster, is a painful skin rash caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV). VZV is the same virus that causes chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus stays in the body. Usually the virus does not cause any problems; however, the virus can reappear years later, causing shingles. Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. This disorder results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints; in its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture. In patients with diabetes, the incidence of acute Charcot arthropathy of the foot and ankle ranges from 0.15% to 2.5%. Acute Charcot arthropathy almost always appears with signs of inflammation. Profound unilateral swelling, an increase in local skin temperature (generally, an increase of 3ยฐ to 7ยฐ above the nonaffected foot's skin temperature), erythema, joint effusion, and bone resorption in an insensate foot are present. These characteristics, in the presence of intact skin and a loss of protective sensation, are often pathognomonic of acute Charcot arthropathy. Cellulitis is an infection of the skin. Examination would reveal erythema, edema, and pain. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone. Examination may reveal edema, drainage, and pain.

Question 1905

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following conditions precludes performing a tendon transfer?
. The target joint has a full passive range of motion.
. The range of motion of the target joint only occurs in the direction of correction.
. The target joint cannot be passively corrected to its neutral position.
. The muscle to be transferred is out-of-phase.
. There is no pulley to assist the transferred muscleโ€™s fulcrum.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The target joint cannot be passively corrected to its neutral position.


Explanation

Discussion: Several conditions must be met before a tendon transfer has the potential to correct a dynamic deformity. If the target joint cannot be passively corrected to neutral, it indicates that a static joint contracture or bony deformity exists that cannot be corrected with a dynamic tendon transfer.

Question 1906

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 45a through 45c show the radiograph, CT scan, and MRI scan of a 15-year-old boy who has lateral ankle pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Stress fracture of the calcaneus
. Rupture of the plantar fascia
. Early traumatic arthritis of the subtalar joint
. Calcaneonavicular fibrous coalition
. Disruption of the os peroneum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular fibrous coalition


Explanation

The elongated anterior process of the calcaneus reaching distally toward the navicular is an abnormal finding. Instead of viewing the rounded, blunt distal anterior process of the calcaneus, a bridge extends to the navicular, albeit incomplete. These findings are consistent with a fibrous coalition. CT can reveal a stress fracture of the calcaneus, arthritis of the subtalar joint with subchondral cysts, or an os peroneum disruption in the peroneus longus, but those entities are not shown here. The plantar fascia is intact.

Question 1907

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

Which of the following is most commonly inherited as a X-linked recessive disorder? Review Topic

. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
. Marfan's syndrome
. Larsen's syndrome
. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
. Turner's syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease


Explanation

Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder.Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene. X-linked recessive inheritance is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be expressed (1) in males (who are necessarily hemizygous for the gene mutation because they have only one X chromosome) and (2) in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation (i.e., they have a copy of the gene mutation on each of their two X chromosomes).Zane reviewed paediatric neuromuscular disorders. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy patients will show markedly elevated CPK levels (10-200x normal). Muscle biopsy will show connective tissue infiltration, foci of necrosis and absent dystrophin with staining.Illustration A shows an illustration of Gowers sign. This indicates weakness of the proximal muscles. It is characteristic of patients with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy.Incorrect Answers:

Question 1908

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When evaluating a patient with hallux rigidus, what is the most important clinical factor indicating the need for an arthrodesis as opposed to a cheilectomy?
. Dorsal foot pain with shoe wear
. Pronounced limited motion in the first metatarsophalangeal joint
. Pain at the midrange of motion in the first metatarsophalangeal joint
. Large dorsal osteophytes clinically and radiographically
. Flattened first metatarsal head with periarticular sclerosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain at the midrange of motion in the first metatarsophalangeal joint


Explanation

Cheilectomy has been shown to provide satisfactory pain relief and improved function in long-term studies. It is important to select patients appropriately when choosing a cheilectomy versus an arthrodesis. Pain at the midrange of motion and loss of more than 50% of the metatarsal head cartilage are predictors of a poor outcome following cheilectomy, and these patients should receive an arthrodesis.

Question 1909

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old man who sustains a medial subtalar dislocation while playing basketball undergoes immediate closed reduction. No fractures or osteochondral defects are noted on postreduction radiographs. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
. a long leg cast for 6 weeks.
. an ankle support and return to activities.
. a short leg cast for 4 weeks.
. open repair of ligaments and active range of motion.
. open repair of ligaments and casting for 6 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a short leg cast for 4 weeks.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most subtalar dislocations can be easily reduced by closed methods. If no fractures or defects are seen on the postreduction radiographs, then the success rate with cast immobilization is good. Medial dislocations have a better prognosis than lateral dislocations. Late instability is rare; therefore, the duration of immobilization should not be excessive. Most subtalar dislocations result in some stiffening of the hindfoot, and painful degenerative arthrosis is the most common serious complication. REFERENCE: Saltzman C, Marsh JL: Hindfoot dislocations: When are they not benign? J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:192-198.

Question 1910

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old woman with a long-standing history of diabetes mellitus has a large draining plantar ulcer of the right foot. Examination reveals some local cellulitis and erythema surrounding the ulcer. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 7. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate antibiotic?
. Penicillin G
. Cefazolin sodium
. Oxacillin
. Ampicillin sodium/sulbactam sodium
. Gentamicin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ampicillin sodium/sulbactam sodium


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Combination drugs with activity against both aerobic and anaerobic organisms have been determined to be the best approach. The first-generation cephalosporins do not provide adequate coverage for gram-negative and anaerobic organisms. Gentamicin alone would not provide adequate activity against anaerobes, and there is the risk of renal and auditory toxicity. REFERENCES: Pinzur MS, Slovenkai MD, Trepman E: Guidelines for diabetic foot care. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:695-702. Eckman MH, Greenfield S, Mackey WC, et al: Foot infections in diabetic patients: Decision and cost-effectiveness analyses. JAMA 1995;273:712-720.

Question 1911

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 27-year-old man was struck by a taxi cab and sustained comminuted right distal third tibia and fibula fractures; treatment consisted of placement of an intramedullary nail in the tibia the following morning. At his 6-month follow-up, he has clawing of all five toes. Examination reveals flexion deformities of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints that are flexible with plantar flexion and rigid with dorsiflexion. Calluses are present on the dorsum and tip of the toes. Single heel rise is normal. He has a mild equinus contracture (relative to the left leg) that is not relieved with knee flexion. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
. Physical therapy and bracing
. Reassurance that the deformity will resolve with time
. Achilles tendon lengthening, and release or retromalleolar lengthening of the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) and flexor hallucis longus (FHL)
. FDL and FHL tenotomies at the individual digits with transfer of the posterior tibial tendon to the dorsum of the foot
. FDL and FHL tenotomies at the individual digits with midfoot capsular release and hallux interphalangeal fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Achilles tendon lengthening, and release or retromalleolar lengthening of the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) and flexor hallucis longus (FHL)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This is an example of tethering of the flexor hallucis longus/flexor digitorum longus (FHL/FDL) to the fracture site. Additional time and/or physical therapy and bracing would not be expected to be of benefit. Release of the FHL and FDL from the fracture site or retromalleolar lengthening will address the posttraumatic claw toe deformity and Achilles tendon lengthening will address the mild equinus. Posterior tibial tendon transfer is not appropriate as the patient demonstrates a normal heel rise. Midfoot releases and hallux fusion are also not indicated. REFERENCES: Feeny MS, Williams RL, Stephens MM: Selective lengthening of the proximal flexor tendon in the management of acquired claw toes. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:335-338. Clawson DK: Claw toes following tibial fracture. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1974;103:47-48.

Question 1912

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 52-year-old woman who underwent cheilectomy 1 year ago for hallux rigidus now reports continued pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint. She did not have any incision healing problems, and has not had any fevers, erythema, or drainage. Which of the following procedures will provide the best combination of pain relief and function?
. First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis
. Soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty
. First metatarsophalangeal total joint arthroplasty
. First metatarsophalangeal resurfacing hemiarthroplasty
. Proximal phalanx dorsiflexion osteotomy (Moberg)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: All but the Moberg osteotomy are capable of providing pain relief; however, arthrodesis offers the best long-term results and restores weight bearing and propulsion function to the first ray.

Question 1913

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The main blood supply to the lateral two thirds of the talar body is provided by the
. peroneal artery.
. anterior tibial artery.
. anterior lateral malleolar artery.
. artery of the tarsal sinus.
. artery of the tarsal canal.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. artery of the tarsal canal.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The main blood supply to the lateral two thirds of the talar body is derived from the artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery. The peroneal artery helps form a vascular plexus over the posterior tubercle and combines with other arteries to form the artery of the sinus tarsi, which is the principal blood supply of the intrasinus structures of the talus. The anterior tibial arteries send branches to the superior surface of the talar head and give rise to the anterolateral malleolar artery, which may anastomose with other vessels to form the artery of the tarsal sinus.

Question 1914

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 20-year-old football player has immediate pain in the midfoot and is unable to bear weight after an opposing player lands on the back of his plantar flexed foot. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. Management should consist of:
. closed reduction and a non-weight-bearing cast.
. closed reduction and a weight-bearing cast.
. closed reduction and percutaneous pinning.
. open reduction and casting.
. open reduction and internal fixation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation.


Explanation

The history and radiographs indicate a Lisfranc fracture-dislocation of the foot. The radiographs show the classic โ€œfleck sign,โ€ which is an avulsion of the Lisfranc ligament from the base of the second metatarsal. Most authors recommend open reduction and internal fixation of this injury. Closed reduction can be attempted, but anatomic reduction is unlikely because of the interposed bone fragments and soft tissues. Standard radiographs are not reliable in identifying 1 to 2 mm of subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joint. The tarsometatarsal joint has a poor tolerance to even mild subluxation, and the resulting decrease in joint contact area increases the likelihood of posttraumatic arthritis. Open reduction with the joint visible allows more anatomic reduction and internal fixation of larger osteochondral fragments or excision of smaller interposed fragments.

Question 1915

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 46-year-old woman had an ankle fracture and ORIF 6 years ago. She had subsequent removal of some of the hardware, but her pain has persisted (Figures 44a and 44b). What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Tibial and/or fibular osteotomy with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
. Ankle distraction arthroplasty
. Ankle fusion
. Total ankle arthroplasty (TAA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankle fusion


Explanation

Ankle fusion is perhaps the most predictable surgical treatment for a relatively young, active patient with ankle arthritis. Moreover, there are concerns regarding implant loosening when performing TAA in active patients. Outcome after syndesmosis ORIF has been linked to the quality of the reduction at the index procedure. Syndesmotic malreduction that is severe necessitates osteotomy and revision ORIF.

Question 1916

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old woman is involved in a head-on collision while driving. Initial radiographs are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. Injury to what vessel increases the risk for osteonecrosis of the injured bone?
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Perforating peroneal artery
. Lateral tarsal artery
. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Artery of the tarsal sinus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the tarsal canal


Explanation

The patient has a Hawkins type III talar neck fracture-dislocation with a risk of osteonecrosis ranging from 69% to 100%. Anatomic studies have shown that the artery of the tarsal canal supplies the lateral two thirds of the talar body. The other vessels listed provide no significant contribution to the talus.

Question 1917

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old professional football player reports painless loss of ankle motion after sustaining a severe ankle sprain 12 months ago. A mortise radiograph is shown in Figure 1. Surgical treatment should be reserved for which of the following conditions?
. Chronic ankle instability
. Persistent pain
. Progressive loss of ankle plantar flexion
. Development of ankle arthritis
. Instability of the proximal tibiofibular joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Persistent pain


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows posttraumatic tibiofibular synostosis. This condition typically follows an eversion (high) ankle sprain that results in disruption of the interosseous membrane. Ossification usually develops within 6 to 12 months after the injury. Return to sports is possible despite the lack of normal ankle dorsiflexion and mobility between the tibia and fibula. Surgical excision is reserved for persistent pain that fails to respond to nonsurgical management once the ossification is cold on bone scintigraphy. REFERENCES: Whiteside LA, Reynolds FC, Ellsasser JC: Tibiofibular synostosis and recurrent ankle sprains in high performance athletes. Am J Sports Med 1978;6:204-208. Henry JH, Andersen AJ, Cothren CC: Tibiofibular synostosis in professional basketball players. Am J Sports Med 1993;21:619-622. Andrish J: The leg, in Drez D, DeLee JD, Miller MD (eds): Orthopaedic Sports Medicine Principles and Practice, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, pp 2155-2181.

Question 1918

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old male patient sustains a bimalleolar ankle fracture and undergoes open reduction and internal fixation. Four months later, he returns for follow-up with mild ankle discomfort, and a radiograph is shown in Figure A. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?

. Syndesmosis sagittal plane reduction and fixation
. Syndesmosis coronal plane reduction and fixation
. Osteotomy and revision of the fibula and syndesmosis
. Retrieval of osteochondral fragment
. Revision plating of the fibula and syndesmosis reduction and fixation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Syndesmosis sagittal plane reduction and fixation


Explanation

This patient has undergone ORIF of the lateral malleolus with shortening of the lateral malleolus and lateral tibiotalar tilt. Revision surgery would entail bone grafting and re-plating of the fibula.Malunion of the fibula component of ankle fractures lead to tibiotalar instability and post-traumatic ankle arthritis. The distal fragment is usually shortened and externally rotated. The osteotomy can restore length and correct rotation. Markers for potential instability include: (1) asymmetry of the medial-lateral clear spaces, (2) talar tilt>2mm, (3) talar subluxation, (4) abnormal talocrural angle (normal, 75-86deg).Chu et al. opined that reconstruction for distal fibula malunions should include: (1) osteotomy, (2) +/- syndesmotic fixation and (3) autologous bone graft. They recommend: (1) low oblique osteotomy for fractures below the syndesmosis, (2) transverse osteotomy above the syndesmosis for high fractures (PER4) and low fractures with tibiofibular instability, (3) inspection of the tibiofibular joint through an anterolateral window to ensure anatomic reduction.Weber et al. described a method of corrective lengthening osteotomy of the fibula in 23 cases. They described 3 criteria for assessing normal fibular length. Seventeen patients had good-excellent results, and 6 had fair-poor results (1 of these 6 needed ankle fusion).Figure A is an AP radiograph of a distal fibula fracture fixed in a shortened position with lateral talar tilt and degenerative changes at the anterolateral tibiotalar joint. Illustration A is an anteroposterior radiograph after fibular osteotomy and correctionwith medial distal tibial autograft to correct talar tilt and restore anatomic fibular length. Illustration B shows the normal talocrural angle. Illustration C shows the Weber-Simpson method of fibula lengthening used in Illustration A.Incorrect Answers:

Question 1919

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The third plantar intrinsic muscle layer of the foot consists of which of the following structures?
. Flexor digiti minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis
. Quadratus plantae, flexor hallucis brevis, flexor digiti minimi
. Quadratus plantae and plantar interosseous muscles
. Quadratus plantae, flexor digitorum brevis, flexor hallucis brevis
. Abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, flexor hallucis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digiti minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The plantar intrinsic muscles are divided into four layers with respect to depth from the plantar fascia. They are (from superficial to deep): 1) abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digiti minimi; 2) quadratus plantae, lumbricals; 3) flexor digiti minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis; and 4) dorsal and plantar interosseous muscles. The flexor hallucis brevis and adductor hallucis originate from the midtarsal bones, encompass the sesamoids, and insert into the base of the proximal phalanx. The adductor hallucis consists of two muscle bellies forming a conjoined tendon and inserting into the lateral portion of the proximal phalanx and the lateral sesamoid. The adductor hallucis is stronger than the abductor hallucis, which may contribute to hallux valgus. The flexor digitorum minimi travels under the fifth metatarsal, arising at the base and inserting into the lateral base of the fifth proximal phalanx. REFERENCE: Resch S: Functional anatomy and topography of the foot and ankle, in Myerson MS (ed): Foot and Ankle Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 32-33.

Question 1920

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 48-year-old man reports localized plantar forefoot pain. Examination reveals a discrete callus (intractable plantar keratosis) with well-localized tenderness beneath the second metatarsal head. The callus most likely lies beneath what structure?
. Lateral (fibular) condyle of the second metatarsal head
. Second metatarsophalangeal sesamoid
. Plantar condyle of the base of the proximal phalanx
. Exostosis of the plantar second metatarsal head
. Osteochondroma of the second metatarsal distal metaphysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral (fibular) condyle of the second metatarsal head


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A discrete or focal callus is a response to excessive weight-bearing stress beneath the lateral (fibular) condyle of a lesser metatarsal head (most commonly second). The other structures generally have not been associated with a discrete callus. REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ, Mann RA: Keratotic disorders of the plantar skin, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1993, pp 413-465. Cracchiolo A: Surgical procedures of the lateral metatarsals, in Jahss MH (ed): Disorders of the Foot and Ankle, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 1269-1283.