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Question 1701

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old man has had a mass on the bottom of his foot for the past 6 months. He reports that initially the mass was exquisitely painful but now is minimally tender. Examination reveals a 2.5- x 2.0-cm firm, noncompressible, nonmobile mass contiguous with the plantar fascia in the distal arch. The mass is particularly prominent with passive dorsiflexion of the ankle and toes. What is the best course of action?
. Observation
. Incisional biopsy
. Excisional biopsy
. MRI
. Ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The history is most consistent with a plantar fibroma. The nodules typically are located within the substance of the plantar aponeurosis. The clinical appearance is usually diagnostic without the need for advanced imaging studies. While the lesion may be prominent and painful to direct palpation, the anatomic location is usually off of the weight-bearing surface. Observation with or without an accommodative orthotic is the treatment of choice. Recurrence is common following attempted excision.

Question 1702

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 51-year-old plumber has a failed peroneus brevis tendon repair. He reports continued pain and swelling in the distal retrofibular area. MRI shows longitudinal tears of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis. What is the surgical treatment of choice at this time?
. Subtalar fusion
. Posterior tibial tendon transfer to the cuboid
. Split posterior tibial tendon transfer to the lateral cuneiform
. Flexor digitorum longus transfer to the fifth metatarsal
. Excision of both the peroneus longus and brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum longus transfer to the fifth metatarsal


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A flexor digitorum longus transfer, while not as strong as the peroneals, improves the tendon balance and maintains hindfoot mobility. Subtalar fusion is a salvage procedure. Posterior tibial tendon transfer compromises inversion strength and arch height. Functional absence of the peroneals results in an imbalance that could lead to forefoot varus.

Question 1703

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following conditions is typically associated with the ankle deformity shown in figure 14?

. Genu varum
. Tarsal coalition
. Degenerative ankle arthrosis
. Osteochondritis dissecans of the talus
. Hemihypertrophy of the ipsilateral lower extremity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Genu varum


Explanation

Figure 14 depicts an X-ray of a child with a Ball-and-Socket ankle. This is a rare deformity associated with such pre-existing conditions as congenital shortening of the lower limb, coalition of tarsal bones, absent digital rays and aplasia or hypoplasia of the fibula. Ball-and-socket joint is not congenital, but is an acquired deformity formed in compensation for the loss of inversion and eversion caused by tarsal coalition or various other pre-existing congenital conditions.

Question 1704

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 48a and 48b show the radiographs of a 26-year-old woman who fell down two steps and twisted her foot and ankle. What is the most appropriate treatment for this injury?
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a mini fragment plate and screws
. Closed cannulated screw fixation
. Short leg casting for 6 weeks
. Hard-soled shoe and weight bearing as tolerated
. Short leg cast and non-weight-bearing, followed by weight bearing as tolerated for 6 weeks in a fracture brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hard-soled shoe and weight bearing as tolerated


Explanation

The patient has a zone 1 base of the fifth metatarsal fracture (Pseudojones) that represents a less serious injury compared to zone 2 and 3 fractures with regard to healing potential. Treatment is symptomatic and casting is not necessary. These fractures are well treated with a hard-soled shoe for comfort and weight bearing as tolerated. Surgical intervention is not warranted.

Question 1705

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Examination of a 45-year-old man with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease reveals a cavus foot, a tight Achilles tendon, and forefoot callus formation. Radiographs reveal advanced degenerative changes in the hindfoot. Shoe wear modifications have failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
. triple arthrodesis.
. Achilles tendon lengthening and Steindler stripping.
. calcaneal osteotomy.
. multiple metatarsal osteotomies.
. midfoot osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. triple arthrodesis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has the typical end stage residuals from long-standing Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Initial management consisting of shoe wear modifications and orthotic devices is preferred, but these are not successful when the disease process has progressed. Surgical correction with calcaneal osteotomy or Achilles tendon lengthening and Steindler stripping is not indicated in the presence of significant hindfoot arthritis. Because this patient has findings consistent with hindfoot arthritis, a triple arthrodesis with correction of the cavus deformity is the preferred treatment. REFERENCES: Roper BA, Tibrewal SB: Soft tissue surgery in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1989;71:17-20. Wetmore RS, Drennan JC: Long-term results of triple arthrodesis in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:417-422.

Question 1706

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 38-year-old marathon runner has had Achilles tendon pain for the past 2 months. Examination reveals that the tendon is thickened and tender proximal to the calcaneal insertion. The tendon sheath is not thickened or tender. The pathophysiology of the tendon is best described as
. acute inflammation.
. chronic inflammation.
. partial tendon rupture.
. anaerobic degeneration.
. impaired collagen cross-linking.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. anaerobic degeneration.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Atraumatic Achilles tendon disease can be differentiated into Achilles tendinosis and peritendinitis. Thickening and tenderness of the Achilles tendon are present in both, but thickening and tenderness of the tendon sheath indicates peritendinitis. Histologic examination of Achilles tendinosis reveals an absence of acute and chronic inflammatory cells. Radiologists often diagnose partial tendon rupture by MRI and there may be microscopic longitudinal tears present, but there is no mechanical compromise as would be implied by a partial rupture. The thickening typically occurs in the portion of the tendon with the poorest blood supply, and biochemical analysis detects high levels of lactate and other products of anaerobic glycolysis. REFERENCES: Astrom M, Rausing A: Chronic Achilles tendinopathy: A survey of surgical and histopathologic findings. Clin Orthop 1995;316:151-164. Ohberg L, Lorentzon R, Alfredson H: Neovascularisation in Achilles tendons with painful tendinosis but not in normal tendons: An ultrasonographic investigation. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc 2001;9:233-238. Alfredson H, Bjur D, Thorsen K, et al: High intratendinous lactate levels in painful chronic Achilles tendinosis: An investigation using microdialysis technique. J Orthop Res 2002;20:934-938.

Question 1707

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
Figure 28 shows the radiograph of a 6-year-old girl who has a right thoracic scoliosis that measures 60°. Examination shows multiple cafe-au-lait spots, and family history reveals that the child’s mother has the same disorder. The gene responsible for this disorder codes for
. dystrophin.
. frataxin.
. neurofibromin.
. peripheral myelin protein.
. sulfate transport protein.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. neurofibromin.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has the dystrophic type of scoliosis seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1). The NF-1 gene is located on chromosome 17 and codes for neurofibromin, believed to be a tumor-suppressor gene. Abnormalities in the dystrophin gene are seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy and Becker muscular dystrophy. A mutation in the frataxin gene is responsible for Friedreich ataxia. The most common type of hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (Charcot-Marie-Tooth), HMSN type IA is caused by a complete duplication of the peripheral myelin protein gene. A defect in the cellular sulfate transport protein results in undersulfation of proteoglycans seen in diastrophic dysplasia.

Question 1708

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 38a and 38b show the CT scans of a 64-year-old woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Calcaneal fibular abutment
. Symmetrical narrowing of the subtalar joint consistent with an inflammatory arthropathy
. Cystic lesion of the tibia consistent with enchondroma
. Stress fracture of the talus
. A lateral malleolar fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneal fibular abutment


Explanation

The CT scans show large cystic lesions in the talus and calcaneus with complete subluxation of the subtalar joint, allowing the calcaneus to slide laterally until it becomes blocked by the fibula. The cause of this subluxation is severe posterior tibial tendon dysfunction. Although no fibular fracture has yet appeared, it can occur with continued stress from the calcaneus. There is, however, a pathologic fracture in the medial calcaneus through a medial degenerative cyst.

Question 1709

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 51a through 51c show the radiographs of a 7-year-old soccer player who reports a gradual onset of midfoot pain that began shortly after the start of soccer season. He states that the pain is worse with activity and is partially alleviated by rest. Examination reveals soft-tissue swelling, and tenderness and warmth in the region of the talonavicular and navicular cuneiform joints. Management should consist of
. biopsy.
. curettage and bone grafting.
. open reduction and fixation.
. immobilization with a long leg cast and no weight bearing.
. immobilization with a short leg walking cast or fracture boot.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. immobilization with a short leg walking cast or fracture boot.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Osteochondrosis of the tarsal navicular (Kohler disease) is an infrequent cause of midfoot pain in children, and the etiology is unknown. The typical radiographic findings include flattening and irregular ossification of the tarsal navicular. The medial cuneiform and talus maintain their normal articular contours. The acute process is best treated with rest and immobilization. A short leg walking cast results in relief of pain and a quicker return to activity compared with orthotics, although long-term success is similar with either method of treatment. Children may return to activities when the symptoms subside. The radiographic appearance of the talus begins to normalize by about 8 to 10 months following the onset of symptoms. REFERENCE: Lutter LD: Sports-related injuries, in Drennan JC (ed): The Child’s Foot and Ankle. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1992.

Question 1710

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 62-year-old man has a severe pes planus and pain in the hindfoot. Radiographs show advanced degenerative changes at the talonavicular and subtalar joints with good preservation of the ankle joint. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure to alleviate his pain?
. Flexor digitorum longus transfer with calcaneal osteotomy
. Lateral column lengthening with tendon transfer
. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis
. Isolated talonavicular fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Triple arthrodesis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Once degenerative changes have occurred, soft-tissue procedures are not indicated. Triple arthrodesis is the treatment of choice for adult-acquired flatfoot. Isolated fusion of the subtalar or talonavicular joint will not be sufficient to correct the problem. REFERENCES: Lutter LD, Mizel MS, Pfeffer GB (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 269-282. Graves SC, Stephenson K: The use of subtalar and triple arthrodesis in the treatment of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction. Foot Ankle Clin 1997;2:319.

Question 1711

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 15-year-old boy has hindfoot pain and very limited subtalar motion. A CT scan reveals a talocalcaneal coalition involving 40% of the middle facet. He has no degeneration of the posterior subtalar facet. Following failure of nonsurgical management, treatment should consist of
. resection of the coalition with fat graft interposition.
. Grice extra-articular subtalar arthrodesis.
. subtalar arthroereisis.
. intra-articular subtalar fusion.
. medial sliding calcaneal osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. resection of the coalition with fat graft interposition.


Explanation

The CT scan is an important test to help determine the extent of involvement of the talocalcaneal facet in a talocalcaneal coalition. In a young patient with no arthritis and joint involvement of less than 50%, resection of the coalition and fat pad interposition has been shown to be successful. A calcaneal osteotomy does not address the coalition. Subtalar arthroereisis has been used for treatment of a flexible flatfoot; tarsal coalition patients have a rigid-type flatfoot deformity.

Question 1712

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Augmentation of a Broström repair with the mobilized lateral portion of the extensor retinaculum (Gould modification) is expected to produce
. higher risk for iatrogenic nerve injury.
. decreased ankle range of motion 6 weeks after surgery.
. no significant biomechanical difference in initial ankle stability.
. a significantly lower incidence of osteoarthritis on long-term follow-up.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. no significant biomechanical difference in initial ankle stability.


Explanation

Multiple biomechanical studies have investigated the contribution of the Gould modification with the Broström anatomic repair for chronic ankle instability. No studies to date have demonstrated a statistically significant difference in initial ankle stability with inclusion of the Gould modification or augmentation of the repair with a mobilized lateral portion of the extensor retinaculum. No clear association exists between the Broström-Gould repair technique and risk for nerve injury, postsurgical range of motion, or incidence of osteoarthritis on long-term follow-up.

Question 1713

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 57-year-old man has had right ankle pain for the past 10 months following an injury that went untreated. Radiographs are shown in Figures 30a through 30c. Management should consist of
. ankle arthrodesis.
. modified Brostrom ligament reconstruction.
. restoration of fibular length, alignment, and rotation.
. cast immobilization.
. tibial shortening osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. restoration of fibular length, alignment, and rotation.


Explanation

The radiographs reveal a malunited distal fibular fracture with shortening. Because there appears to be an adequate cartilage space within the ankle joint, the role of reconstruction would be to prevent arthrosis and the need for ankle arthrodesis, as well as to decrease symptoms. The treatment of choice is restoration of fibular length, alignment, and rotation with osteotomy plating, and bone grafting as needed. There is no indication for ligament reconstruction of a mechanically stable ankle, and tibial shortening osteotomy will not assist in correcting the deformity. Cast immobilization may assist with improvement of symptoms but will not correct the overall process. Determination of fibular length is best done by comparing the talocrural angle of the injured side with the uninjured side. The goal is to perfectly reduce the talus in the ankle mortise.

Question 1714

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The most common complication associated with corticosteroid injection for the treatment of interdigital neuroma is
. Infection
. Chronic regional pain syndrome (CRPS)
. Hammertoe deformity
. Hives

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hammertoe deformity


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Interdigital neuromas represent perineural fibrosis of the intermetatarsal nerve most commonly seen in the second and third web spaces. The most popular theory on the etiology of interdigital neuromas is compression neuropathy by the intermetatarsal ligament. Infection and allergic reactions such as hives are rare after steroid injection. CRPS is not known to occur in this setting. Hammertoe formation can occur, especially after multiple steroid injections into an interdigital neuroma.

Question 1715

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 26-year-old rugby player injured his foot when tackled from behind. Radiographs are seen in Figures 35a through 35c. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation
. Application of a short leg non-weight-bearing cast
. Application of a walking boot with weight bearing as tolerated
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Elastic bandage wrap and activity as tolerated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a ligamentous Lisfranc injury. Diastasis seen between the bases of the second metatarsal and medial cuneiform is pathognomonic for a rupture of the Lisfranc ligament. This injury is best treated surgically with either open reduction and internal fixation or possibly closed manipulation and percutaneous screw fixation if anatomic alignment can be achieved closed. Pin fixation has been shown to be inferior to screw fixation due to the length of time that fixation is required for adequate ligament healing.

Question 1716

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During reconstruction of insertional gaps of a chronic Achilles tendon rupture, what tendon provides the most direct route of transfer?
. Flexor hallucis longus
. Flexor digitorum longus
. Peroneus longus
. Posterior tibial
. Quadratus plantae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis longus


Explanation

The flexor hallucis longus tendon provides the best, most direct route of transfer for filling Achilles tendon gaps. The tendon lies lateral to the neurovascular structures, making it safe for harvest and providing a direct route for transfer into the calcaneus without crossing these important structures. The flexor hallucis longus tendon also has a muscle belly that extends distal on the tendon itself, often beyond the actual tibiotalar joint. When the tendon is transferred, this muscle belly brings excellent blood supply to the anterior portion of the reconstruction.

Question 1717

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 30-year-old man who sustained a tibial fracture with a peroneal nerve palsy 2 years ago now has a drop foot and weak eversion of the foot. He reports success with stretching exercises, but he catches his toes when his foot tires. Examination reveals that the foot is plantigrade and supple. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Posterior tibial tendon transfer to the cuboid
. Anterior tibial tendon transfer to the cuboid
. Achilles tendon lengthening
. Ankle-foot orthosis with dorsiflexion assist
. Nerve grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankle-foot orthosis with dorsiflexion assist


Explanation

The patient has a supple plantigrade foot that would benefit from a drop foot brace to prevent catching of the toes. Tendon transfer should not be considered until the patient has undergone bracing. Achilles tendon lengthening is not necessary because the foot is plantigrade and flexible. Nerve grafting is not indicated because of the length of time the peroneal nerve palsy has been present.

Question 1718

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old male sustained a Sanders IV intra-articular calcaneus fracture two years ago that was treated nonoperatively. He presents to your office with a mechanical block preventing his ankle from dorsiflexing to neutral, continued severe pain and a widened heel. Radiographs show significant loss of calcaneal height and an incongruous subtalar joint. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment at this time?
. In situ subtalar joint arthrodesis
. Distraction bone block subtalar arthrodesis
. Tibiotalocalcaneal arthrodesis
. Corrective intra-articular osteotomy of the calcaneus
. Arthroscopic debridement of the subtalar joint and subfibular recess

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distraction bone block subtalar arthrodesis


Explanation

The complex pathology in this scenario includes: incongruous subtalar joint, loss of calcaneal body height, and likely decreased lateral talocalcaneal angle. Complications of this injury include pain, shoe wear difficulties, and foot deformity. Foot deformity (collapse of the talus into the posterior facet) can result in tibiotalar neck impingement. Carr et al described a subtalar fusion technique for late complications of calcaneus fractures that were treated conservatively. The subtalar fusion technique involves distraction of the subtalar joint, insertion of a bone block, and rigid screw fixation. The distraction allows correction of the talocalcaneal relationship and regains lost hindfoot height. Chandler et al states that distraction arthrodesis should be considered only if findings of anterior ankle impingement are present, as is true in this case.

Question 1719

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 60-year-old man with a 30-year history of diabetes complicated by borderline chronic renal failure, heart failure controlled by medication, and bilateral lower extremity neuropathy. He is currently wheelchair bound because of his cardiopulmonary limitations, but uses his legs for transfers. He has had a progressive left ankle deformity that has progressed to the point at which he cannot use his leg for pivot transfers. He is adamant that something should be done to improve his living situation. Which surgical option can best achieve his goal of using the leg for transfers?
. Local debridement of the ankle with long-term bracing
. Attempted fusion using a multiplanar external fixation
. Attempted fusion using an intramedullary rod
. Attempted fusion using screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Attempted fusion using an intramedullary rod


Explanation

The indications for surgery in a Charcot joint are an unbraceable deformity or recurrent ulceration despite use of adequate bracing. Any significant varus/valgus deformity of the ankle or hindfoot (as in this patient) is unbraceable, whereas midfoot Charcot deformities usually can be treated nonsurgically. The goal of surgery is to provide a stable aligned foot and ankle to permit activities and reduce risk for recurrent ulceration. This does not mean that there has to be a radiographic fusion because many patients with diabetes achieve a stable nonunion without pain. The only surgical construct that will provide long-term inherent stability and alignment in this situation is use of a hindfoot fusion rod. It provides better stability and purchase than screw fixation and can be left in indefinitely (unlike an external fixator).

Question 1720

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 99 is the radiograph of an 18-year-old National Collegiate Athletic Association Division I basketball player who jumped for a basket. After landing, he was unable to put weight on his left great toe. He developed pain, swelling, and ecchymosis maximally around the sesamoids. When assessing stability of the first metatarsophalangeal joint, he appears to have more laxity on the left. What is the best next step?
. Standing radiographs of the right foot
. MRI of the foot
. Carbon fiber insole with a Morton extension
. Surgery for reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Standing radiographs of the right foot


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient jumped on his forefoot and landed with pain in his great toe. His radiograph shows possible increased space between the sesamoids and the base of the phalanx. A comparison radiograph on the other side will reveal if this position is normal for this patient. If findings are asymmetric, turf toe injury is a possibility based on this patient's symptoms and mechanism of injury.