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Question 1661

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The oblique radiograph of the foot and the CT scan shown in Figures 10a and 10b show a patient whose symptoms have failed to respond to rest and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. What is the best course of action?
. Excision of the damaged portion of the peroneus longus with possible transfer of the proximal peroneus longus into the peroneus brevis
. Excision of the damaged portion of the peroneus brevis with possible transfer of the peroneus brevis into the peroneus longus
. Excision of the bony fragments of the calcaneus with planing down of the lateral wall of the calcaneus to avoid irritation of the peroneal tendons
. Casting to allow the avulsed portion of the base of the fifth metatarsal to heal
. Debridement of the posterior tibial tendon, transfer of the flexor digitorum longus tendon into the navicular, and medial translational osteotomy of the calcaneus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the damaged portion of the peroneus longus with possible transfer of the proximal peroneus longus into the peroneus brevis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph and MRI scan show elongation and fragmentation of the os peroneum. Although casting, orthoses, and steroid injection may relieve symptoms, excision of the os peroneum and primary repair when necessary, with or without tenodesis of the peroneus longus to the peroneus brevis, have been shown to produce excellent results.

Question 1662

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old girl who plays softball has chronic lateral hindfoot aching pain that is aggravated by weight-bearing activity. She reports that the pain has recurred after initial improvement with cast immobilization, and it continues to limit her overall level of activity. Radiographs are seen in Figures 40a through 40c. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Correction of the flatfoot deformity
. Achilles tendon lengthening followed by orthotic support
. Excision of the tarsal coalition
. Sinus tarsi debridement
. Triple arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the tarsal coalition


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a calcaneonavicular tarsal coalition. Symptoms of calcaneonavicular coalitions typically are seen between the ages of 10 and 14 years. The cause of pain has not been clearly established. It has been postulated that the coalition stiffens with maturity and microfractures can result, producing pain. Resection of a calcaneonavicular coalition generally has been associated with a satisfactory result. Soft-tissue interposition, most commonly using the extensor digitorum brevis muscle, appears to be helpful. A hindfoot arthrodesis (usually triple) would be reserved if coalition resection proves to be unsuccessful.

Question 1663

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 25-year-old woman has significant pain and swelling in her left ankle after falling off her bicycle. Examination reveals that she is neurovascularly intact. Radiographs are shown in Figures 33a through 33c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Closed reduction and casting
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the ankle fracture
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the ankle fracture with syndesmosis fixation
. Percutaneous pinning of the ankle fracture
. Pins in plaster immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation of the ankle fracture with syndesmosis fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show a displaced ankle fracture with widening of the syndesmosis. Open reduction and internal fixation is indicated with fixation of the mortise with syndesmotic screws.

Question 1664

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 42-year-old athletic trainer has a persistent popping sensation about the lateral ankle associated with weakness and pain following a remote injury. Deficiency in what structure directly leads to this pathology?
. Lateral talar process
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
. Inferior peroneal retinaculum
. Extensor retinaculum
. Crural fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior peroneal retinaculum


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has instability of the peroneal tendon. The superior peroneal retinaculum is the primary retaining structure preventing peroneal subluxation. It is a thickening of fascia that arises off the posterior margin of the distal 1 to 2 cm of the fibula and runs posteriorly to blend with the Achilles tendon sheath. The inferior peroneal retinaculum attaches to the peroneal tubercle of the calcaneus and is not involved in this pathology. A deficient groove in the posterior distal fibula may also be a contributing factor in the development of the condition. REFERENCE: Maffuli N, Ferran NA, Oliva F, et al: Recurrent subluxation of the peroneal tendons. Am J Sports Med 2006;34:986-992.

Question 1665

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 50 shows the radiograph of a 26-year-old man who sustained an isolated open injury to his foot. Examination reveals no gross contamination in the wound. There is a palpable dorsalis pedis pulse and sensation is present on the dorsal and plantar aspects of the foot. Initial treatment should consist of wound debridement, antibiotics, and
. talectomy.
. reimplantation of the talus.
. reimplantation of the talus with acute triple arthrodesis.
. Syme amputation.
. transtibial amputation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. reimplantation of the talus.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a complete extrusion of the talus. Reimplantation of the talus after wound debridement has been reported to be safe and successful, and provides for flexibility with any future reconstructive procedures. REFERENCES: Smith CS, Nork SE, Sangeorzan BJ: The extruded talus: Results of reimplantation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:2418-2424. Brewster NT, Maffulli N: Reimplantation of the totally extruded talus. J Orthop Trauma 1997;11:42-45.

Question 1666

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 18-year-old gymnast has had a 1-year history of foot pain. Examination reveals medial midfoot tenderness without swelling. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for 6 weeks has failed to provide relief. An axial CT scan of the midfoot is shown in Figure 20. What is the optimal treatment for this condition?
. Partial weight bearing in a walking cast for an additional 6 weeks
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Open reduction and internal fixation with autologous bone grafting
. No treatment
. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for an additional 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with autologous bone grafting


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Stress fractures of the navicular are often seen in running and jumping sports. Whereas most individuals heal with nonsurgical management consisting of 6 weeks of casting, this gymnast has had pain for 1 year and nonsurgical management has failed. Open reduction with bone grafting is the preferred treatment. REFERENCES: Quirk RM: Stress fractures of the navicular. Foot Ankle Int 1998;19:494-496. Saxena A, Fullem B, Hannaford D: Results of treatment of 22 navicular stress fractures and a new proposed radiographic classification system. J Foot Ankle Surg 2000;39:96-103.

Question 1667

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 46-year-old woman reports pain and a shortened appearance of her toe after undergoing a Keller resection arthroplasty 2 years ago for hallux rigidus. Examination reveals mild swelling and motion limited to 25 degrees at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Radiographs show large dorsal osteophytes on the first metatarsal head, 50% resection of the proximal phalanx, and complete loss of the metatarsophalangeal joint space. Which of the following is considered the most reliable procedure to improve her pain and the appearance of her toe?
. Silastic arthroplasty
. Cheilectomy and soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty
. Moberg phalangeal dorsiflexion osteotomy
. Bone graft interposition arthrodesis
. Waterman first metatarsal dorsal osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone graft interposition arthrodesis


Explanation

Because the patient has significant arthritis, arthrodesis is the treatment of choice. Adding a bone graft will prevent further shortening and add length to her toe, resulting in improved cosmesis.

Question 1668

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 7 shows the MRI scan of a 23-year-old competitive rugby player who has anterior ankle pain and swelling. He states that he has been playing for many years and has sprained his ankle several times. Examination will reveal what specific hallmark feature?
. A palpable effusion
. Positive anterior drawer test
. Positive external rotation test
. Pain with forced dorsiflexion
. Loss of subtalar motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain with forced dorsiflexion


Explanation

The history and MRI findings indicate the presence of anterior tibiotalar osteophytes. The most specific finding on physical examination is pain with forced dorsiflexion.

Question 1669

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Because of the ongoing pain and instability and the demonstration of radiographic instability when the ankle is stressed, what surgical procedure should be performed to restore stability to the ankle joint based on the CT findings?
. Brostrom procedure
. Syndesmosis repair or stabilization
. Allograft lateral ligament reconstruction
. Excision of loose body/fracture fragment
. Repair of the SPR with possible fibular groove deepening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Syndesmosis repair or stabilization


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The fracture at the insertion of the AITFL into the fibula represents a syndesmosis injury. In some cases, a direct repair of the fracture will stabilize the syndesmosis, but in most cases this injury should most likely be reinforced by placing a screw or suture tensioning device across the syndesmosis for additional support. A Brostrom or allograft reconstruction is indicated for an ankle sprain involving the ATFL or CFL. Simply excising the fragment will leave the patient with an incompetent syndesmosis. Repairing the SPR with or without a groove deepening procedure is indicated if there is evidence of subluxated or dislocated peroneal tendons, which is not demonstrated on the CT scans. The bone has been avulsed off the fibula by the portion of the AITFL that attaches to the fibula, therefore indicating that there is a syndesmosis injury. Allograft lateral ligament reconstruction and excision of loose body/fracture fragment are incorrect procedures based on location. The deltoid is a medial structure and this fracture is lateral. The ATFL and CFL attach at the inferior margin of the fibula near the lateral process of the talus and calcaneus. A SPR avulsion would present as an avulsion off the lateral wall of the fibula, not superior and not into the syndesmotic space as shown on the CT scans.

Question 1670

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What is the most common mechanism of injury that produces turf toe?
. Valgus stress at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint
. Hyperflexion stress
. Hyperextension stress
. Varus stress
. Axial load

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension stress


Explanation

The most common mechanism of injury for turf toe is a hyperextension injury to the MTP joint. The foot is typically in a dorsiflexed position with the heel raised when an external force drives the MTP joint into further dorsiflexion. The joint capsule usually tears at the metatarsal neck because its attachment is weaker there than at the proximal phalanx. Some compression injuries to the dorsal articular surface of the metatarsal head can result from extension or hyperextension.

Question 1671

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 3-year-old boy had been treated with serial casting for a right congenital idiopathic clubfoot deformity. The parents are concerned because the child now walks on the lateral border of the right foot. Examination shows that the foot passively achieves a plantigrade position with neutral heel valgus and ankle dorsiflexion to 15 degrees. The forefoot inverts during active ankle dorsiflexion. Mild residual metatarsus adductus is present. Management should now consist of
. additional serial casting.
. a floor-reaction ankle-foot orthosis.
. closing wedge cuboid osteotomy.
. lateral transfer of the anterior tibialis tendon.
. posterior tibial tendon transfer through the interosseous membrane to the third metatarsal.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. lateral transfer of the anterior tibialis tendon.


Explanation

Dynamic midfoot supination that is the result of peroneal weakness is a common residual problem after cast correction or surgical reconstruction of a congenital idiopathic clubfoot. Dynamic supination is unlikely to resolve spontaneously. Most parents do not want to use brace support forever. Transfer of the posterior tibialis to the dorsum of the foot has shown poor results in clubfeet. Preferred treatments include: 1) transfer of the entire anterior tibialis tendon to the lateral cuneiform, or 2) split transfer of the anterior tibialis tendon to the cuboid or to the peroneus brevis tendon.

Question 1672

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 15-year-old girl who plays high school basketball has had worsening forefoot pain and swelling that is aggravated by activity for the past 5 weeks. She denies any history of an injury. Examination reveals no deformities. A radiograph shows stage II Freiberg's infraction. Initial management should consist of
. no weight bearing.
. weight bearing as tolerated in a hard-soled shoe.
. a short leg walking cast.
. second metatarsophalangeal joint debridement and metatarsal osteotomy.
. a longitudinal arch support with metatarsal head relief.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a short leg walking cast.


Explanation

Freibergโ€™s infraction is believed to be an osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head. It is the only osteochondrosis that has a predilection for females. The typical patient is an athletically active adolescent female. The radiograph shows stage II disease wherein reossification is occurring; it is at this time that the second metatarsal head is most susceptible to deformation. Therefore, initial management should consist of a short leg walking cast.

Question 1673

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 27-year-old man now reports dorsiflexion and inversion weakness after an automobile collision 6 months ago in which compartment syndrome developed isolated to the anterior and deep posterior compartments. Examination reveals the development of a progressive cavovarus deformity, but the ankle and hindfoot remain flexible. In addition to Achilles tendon lengthening, which of the following procedures is most likely to improve the motor balance of his foot and ankle? Review Topic

. Anterior tibialis tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Posterior tibialis tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Peroneus longus tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Peroneus brevis tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer to the peroneus brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibialis tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot


Explanation

Compartment syndrome of the anterior and deep posterior compartments results in anterior tibialis and posterior tibialis tendon weakness, respectively. Furthermore, the long flexors to the hallux and lesser toes will be weak as well. The intact peroneus longus overpowers the weak anterior tibialis tendon, resulting in plantar flexion of the first metatarsal, cavus, and hindfoot varus. Therefore, transferring the peroneus longus to the dorsolateral midfoot reduces the first metatarsal plantar flexion torque, and possibly augments ankle dorsiflexion torque.(SBQ12FA.1) Figure A is a radiograph of a healthy, independent 51-year-old male. He is treated with immediate open reduction internal fixation to prevent which of the following complications?Fracture non-unionAvascular necrosisSkin necrosisPlantar flexion weaknessAnkle stiffnessFigure A shows an avulsion fracture of the calcaneal tuberosity. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation is required to prevent wound complications.Displaced avulsion fractures of the calcaneal tuberosity should be managed urgently to prevent necrosis of the soft tissues overlying the heel. In these injuries, the Achilles tendon is securely attached to the fractured tuberosity. Urgent closed reduction and casting is usually not possible due to the power and proximal pull of the triceps surae. Surgical fixation is required. The best treatment modality is open reduction and bone-to-bone fixation with screws. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning fixation is not strong enough to provide a stable fixation of the tuberosity.Lui reported on avulsion fractures of the bony insertion of the Achilles tendon at the calcaneus. He stated that screw fixation alone is not sufficient for repair of these injuries. His technique involved two suture anchors used capture the small bone fragment to the calcaneus. This allowed for the pull of the triceps surae to be neutralized and early physical therapy.Hess et al. looked at a case series of calcaneal tuberosity avulsion fractures that weretreated in a delayed fashion. All three patients with posterior tuberosity calcaneal avulsion fractures developed skin necrosis because of a delay in treatment.Figure A shows a displaced posterior tuberosity calcaneal avulsion fracture. Illustration A shows skin breakdown overlying the posterior tuberosity calcaneal avulsion fracture.Incorrect Answers:

Question 1674

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 75-year-old woman began a walking program 2 months after undergoing right total knee arthroplasty. She had to stop the program after 4 weeks because of hindfoot pain and ankle swelling. Radiographs are shown in Figures 42a and 42b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Plantar fasciitis
. Osteochondral lesion of the talus
. Heel spur
. Insufficiency fracture of the calcaneus
. Chondrocalcinosis of the ankle joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insufficiency fracture of the calcaneus


Explanation

DISCUSSION: It is often tempting to assign a diagnosis of plantar fasciitis in patients with hindfoot pain. In this patient, the radiographs confirm a diagnosis of a calcaneal insufficiency fracture. The dense condensation of bone on the lateral view confirms the diagnosis. There is no radiographic evidence of a heel spur, osteochondral lesions, or chondrocalcinosis. REFERENCES: Resnick D: Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, p 2591. Kearon C: Natural history of venous thromboembolism. Semin Vasc Med 2001;1:27-37. Aldridge T: Diagnosing heel pain in adults. Am Fam Physician 2004;70;332-338.

Question 1675

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old woman began to train for a half marathon. After 8 weeks of increasing her mileage, what changes can you expect in her Achilles tendon?

. Net decrease of type I collagen
. Net increase of type I collagen
. Increased diameter of collagen fibrils
. Increased cross-sectional area of the tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Net increase of type I collagen


Explanation

Training increases turnover of type I collagen, promoting both synthesis and degradation of collagen and a net increase synthesis of type I collagen in tendon-related tissue. Strenuous endurance training has resulted in decreased collagen cross-links, suggesting increased collagen turnover, but decreased collagen maturation. In human studies, physical training results in increased turnover of collagen. Synthesis and degradation are elevated initially when beginning an exercise program, but degradation products decrease overall. It is not known if activity levels in humans affect the diameter of collagen fibrils or the cross-sectional area of tendons.

Question 1676

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 20a and 20b are the radiographs of a 56-year-old woman who runs a horse farm. She has a 2-year history of increasing ankle pain and swelling without previous treatment. Which treatment is most appropriate at this time?
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and bracing
. Ankle fusion
. Ankle arthroscopy and cheilectomy
. Ankle distraction arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankle fusion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient has end-stage ankle arthritis. A short course of NSAIDs may provide pain and inflammation relief. Bracing with either an ankle-foot orthosis or Arizona brace can reduce pain by offloading the ankle joint. Ankle fusion is a reliable procedure for treatment of end-stage ankle arthritis and is especially recommended for active people after it is determined that nonsurgical measures no longer provide adequate relief. Arthroscopic debridement and cheilectomy may be indicated for bony impingement and mild arthritis with little articular cartilage loss. The long-term results of ankle distraction arthroplasty are not yet well defined but likewise would be reserved for scenarios in which nonsurgical measures no longer provide adequate relief. The patient must be able to wear a thin-wire external fixator for 3 months. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Abidi NA, Neufeld SK, Brage ME, Reese KA, Sabharwal S, Paley D. Ankle arthritis. In: Pinzur MS, ed. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 4. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2008:159-193. Saltzman CL: Ankle arthritis, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA, Saltzman CL (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle. Philadelphia, PA, Mosby Elsevier, 2007, vol 1, pp 929-932.

Question 1677

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The Coleman block test is used to test for:
. flexibility of the forefoot.
. flexibility of the hindfoot.
. valgus deformity of the hindfoot.
. tightness of the tendo Achilles.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. flexibility of the hindfoot.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The Coleman block test is used to determine the flexibility of the hindfoot. When a block is placed under the lateral border of the foot, the medial column is unsupported. As a result, the first metatarsal drops off the side of the block. If the subtalar joint is flexible, there is no fixed varus deformity of the hindfoot. The hindfoot will no longer be in varus from behind. The varus deformity of the hindfoot will be corrected. If there is no subtalar motion, the varus deformity remains fixed.

Question 1678

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 2a and 2b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 16-year-old cheerleader who fell on her left lower extremity while performing a pyramid. Following adequate sedation, closed reduction is performed, but an incomplete reduction is noted. What structure is most likely preventing a reduction?
. Extensor digitorum brevis
. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Posterior tibial tendon
. Anterior tibial tendon
. Peroneus brevis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus brevis tendon


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The stretched peroneus brevis muscle and tendon follow anterior to the fibula and are most likely incarcerated with reduction. The anterior talofibular ligament is too small to prevent reduction of the ankle joint itself. The extensor digitorum brevis originates from the talus; therefore, it is not involved in the tibiotalar joint. The posterior tibial tendon lies medially and would not be interposed into the ankle joint. Similarly, the anterior tibialis tendon also would not be involved. REFERENCES: Pehlivan O, Akmaz I, Solakoglu C, et al: Medial peritalar dislocation. Arch Orthop Trauma Surg 2002;122:541-543. Rivera F, Bertone C, De Martino M, et al: Pure dislocation of the ankle: Three case reports and literature review. Clin Orthop 2001;382:179-184.

Question 1679

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old girl has progressive development of cavus feet. Examination reveals slightly diminished vibratory sensation on the bottom of the foot. Reflexes are 1+ at the knees and ankles. Motor examination shows that all muscles are 5/5 in the foot, except the peroneal and anterior tibial muscles are rated as 4+/5. Which of the following studies is considered most diagnostic?
. Nerve conduction velocity studies
. Biopsy of the quadriceps femoris muscle
. Biopsy of the sural nerve
. DNA testing
. Chromosomal analysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. DNA testing


Explanation

The patient most likely has a form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, or hereditary motor sensory neuropathy (HMSN). The most common varieties can now be diagnosed by DNA testing. Mutations have been detected in the peripheral myelin protein-22 (PMP-22) gene in HMSN type IA and in the connexin gene in the X-linked HMSN. Specific DNA diagnosis is useful in genetic counseling. Routine chromosomal testing most likely would not detect these mutations. Nerve conduction velocity study results are normal in some types of HMSN, and delayed nerve conduction, when found, indicates a peripheral neuropathy but does not specify the type or inheritance pattern. Biopsy of the sural nerve or of the quadriceps can be informative in some patients, but is not as specific as DNA testing.

Question 1680

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 27-year-old man now reports dorsiflexion and inversion weakness after an automobile collision 6 months ago in which compartment syndrome developed isolated to the anterior and deep posterior compartments. Examination reveals the development of a progressive cavovarus deformity, but the ankle and hindfoot remain flexible. In addition to Achilles tendon lengthening, which of the following procedures is most likely to improve the motor balance of his foot and ankle?
. Anterior tibialis tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Posterior tibialis tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Peroneus longus tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Peroneus brevis tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer to the peroneus brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus longus tendon transfer to the dorsolateral midfoot


Explanation

Compartment syndrome of the anterior and deep posterior compartments results in anterior tibialis and posterior tibialis tendon weakness, respectively. Furthermore, the long flexors to the hallux and lesser toes will be weak as well. The intact peroneus longus overpowers the weak anterior tibialis tendon, resulting in plantar flexion of the first metatarsal, cavus, and hindfoot varus. Therefore, transferring the peroneus longus to the dorsolateral midfoot reduces the first metatarsal plantar flexion torque, and possibly augments ankle dorsiflexion torque.