This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1521
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 24 shows an axial MRI scan of the ankle. The arrowhead is pointing to what structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneus brevis
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The peroneus brevis is easily identified by its location behind the fibula and its distal muscle belly. Axial MRI images provide a reliable guide even when one of the peroneals is completely ruptured, subluxated out of the peroneal groove, or absent. REFERENCES: Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle: Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2. New York, NY, Lippincott, 1993, pp 234-235. Sammarco GJ: Peroneus longus tendon tears: Acute and chronic. Foot Ankle Int 1995;16:245-253.
Question 1522
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 15-year-old boy with a type I hereditary sensory motor neuropathy (Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease) reports recurrent ankle sprains and significant pain in the hindfoot and midfoot despite orthotic management. Examination reveals that he walks with a drop foot and has dynamic clawing of the toes. Clinical photographs of the left foot are shown in Figure 7. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. extensor transfer to the metatarsal necks, soft-tissue releases, and anterior transfer of the posterior tibialis tendon.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The clinical photographs show a patient with a type I hereditary sensory motor neuropathy who has cavus feet with a flexible hindfoot. The Coleman block test shows that the hindfoot corrects into valgus. To prevent progressive cavus, patients with this condition may benefit from soft-tissue releases at a younger age while the foot is flexible. Once there is fixed deformity, combined soft-tissue and bone procedures usually are necessary. Metatarsal osteotomies will correct the cavus, but will do nothing for the drop foot. Transfer of the extensor hallucis longus to the neck of the first metatarsal and modified transfer of the extensor digitorum longus to the dorsum of the foot will prevent further claw toes and improve foot dorsiflexion. Anterior transfer of the posterior tibialis tendon will also aid in dorsiflexion. Calcaneal osteotomy should be reserved for fixed hindfoot varus that does not correct with block testing, and triple arthrodesis should be avoided as long as possible because the long-term outcome is poor.
Question 1523
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What type of physical therapy is most effective for chronic noninsertional Achilles tendinopathy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eccentric strengthening
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Eccentric gastrocsoleus strengthening (especially with heavy loads) consistently has been shown to be superior in the management of Achilles tendinopathy. Decreases in pain and increases in strength have been demonstrated despite the frequently refractory nature of this condition. REFERENCES: Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2003, pp 91-102. Vora AM, Myerson MS, Oliva F, et al: Tendinopathy of the main body of the Achilles tendon. Foot Ankle Clin 2005;10:293-308.
Question 1524
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 75-year-old woman reports foot pain and states that her foot has become progressively “flatter” in the past 3 years. Custom inserts and physical therapy have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a flexible hindfoot and mild heel cord contracture. The patient is able to perform a single limb heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs are shown in Figures 21a through 21d. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial column arthrodesis and heel cord lengthening
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has end-stage midfoot arthritis, with a secondary flatfoot deformity through the midfoot. The ability to perform a single limb heel rise indicates that the posterior tibial tendon is functioning, and the weight-bearing radiographs show normal calcaneal pitch and talar head coverage, thus confirming that the flatfoot deformity is isolated to the midfoot. Therefore, the most appropriate treatment is medial column arthrodesis and heel cord lengthening. The other listed procedures are not indicated because they are used in the management of adult flatfoot from posterior tibial tendon insufficiency. REFERENCES: Toolan BC: Midfoot arthrodesis: Challenges and treatment alternatives. Foot Ankle Clin 2002;7:75-93. Horton GA, Olney BW: Deformity correction and arthrodesis of the midfoot with a medial plate. Foot Ankle 1993;14:493-499.
Question 1525
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease a progressive deformity develops in the foot. Which functional muscles predominate in deformity formation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior tibialis and peroneus longus
Explanation
DISCUSSION: In Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, the posterior tibialis and peroneus longus tendons remain strong, serving to invert the hindfoot and depress the first metatarsal head thus causing the cavovarus foot associated with this disease. In contrast, the tibialis anterior and peroneus brevis are less functional and therefore cannot dorsiflex the ankle, elevate the first metatarsal, or evert the foot, contributing to the deformity. REFERENCE: Herring JA (ed): Tachjian's Pediatric Orthopedics, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, vol 2, p 984.
Question 1526
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following best describes the relationship of the anterior tibial artery and dorsalis pedis artery to the extensor hallucis longus (EHL) tendon as they progress from the level of the ankle to the dorsum of the foot?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Artery medial, then lateral
Explanation
DISCUSSION: At the ankle level, the anterior tibial artery lies medial to the EHL tendon. The artery becomes the dorsalis pedis after crossing onto the dorsum of the foot. At this point, the artery lies lateral to the tendon. REFERENCES: Resch S: Functional anatomy and topography of the foot and ankle, in Myerson M (ed): Foot and Ankle Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, vol 1, pp 25-49. Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle: Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1993.
Question 1527
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 23-year-old woman has had a 14-month history of ankle pain after surgical treatment of multiple injuries resulting from a motor vehicle accident. Weight bearing began 4 months after surgery. The pain occurs with weight bearing and motion, but there is very little pain at rest. She has no pertinent medical history and does not smoke. Figures 23a and 23b show current radiographs. What is the most appropriate surgical option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with bone grafting
Explanation
The radiographs reveal nonunion of a talar neck fracture. There is no radiographic evidence of osteonecrosis or significant degenerative arthritis. The results of talectomy are suboptimal. Arthrodesis would be indicated for degenerative arthritis. Revision ORIF is feasible and preserves motion. A vascularized graft should be considered whenever osteonecrosis is present, but the talar body appears viable in this case.
Question 1528
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 6-year-old girl has the bilateral foot deformity shown in Figure 1. There is no family history of disease. Examination reveals fixed hindfoot equinus, and muscle function testing shows strong posterior tibial function, fair plus anterior tibial function, poor peroneal function, and strong gastrocnemius function. A Coleman block test shows a correctable hindfoot. Nerve conduction velocity studies show diminished function in the peroneal and ulnar nerves on both sides. Pathologic changes found in a sural nerve biopsy include “onion bulb” formation, and DNA testing confirms the presence of a mutation in the MPZ gene, consistent with hereditary motor sensory neuropathy type III (HMSN-III). What is the best course of action?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneal and metatarsal osteotomies
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has HMSN-III or Dejerine-Sottas syndrome. This form of HMSN progresses very rapidly and frequently results in severe foot deformity in early childhood. The changes are progressive and are the result of muscle imbalance during growth. Balancing of the foot musculature is essential, particularly during the phases of rapid growth of the foot. However, this cannot be accomplished using the anterior tibial muscle because it is already weak and the transfer will further weaken it. Bony procedures also may be required, and tendon transfers cannot be depended on to correct bony deformity. However, these procedures can be deferred until the foot is closer to adult size. Surgeries that lead to joint arthrodesis, such as triple arthrodesis and some midfoot osteotomies, are contraindicated because the feet may lose protective sensation as the disease progresses. Fusions in insensate feet are less successful than realignment procedures that maintain mobility. REFERENCES: Wetmore RS, Drennan JC: Long-term results of triple arthrodesis in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:417-422. Roper BA, Tibrewal SB: Soft tissue surgery in Charcot-Marie-Tooth. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1989;71:17-20. Miller GM, Hsu JD, Hoffer MM, Rentfro R: Posterior tibial tendon transfer: A review of the literature and analysis of 74 procedures. J Pediatr Orthop 1982;2:363-370.
Question 1529
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 30 shows the radiograph of a 38-year-old man who reports persistent pain laterally and plantarly about the fifth metatarsal head. Examination reveals calluses dorsolaterally and plantarly about the fifth metatarsal head. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Surgical treatment should include
Correct Answer & Explanation
. oblique mid-diaphyseal osteotomy of the fifth metatarsal.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has painful lateral and plantar keratoses with metatarsus quintus valgus deformity. This combination of problems is best addressed with an oblique mid-diaphyseal osteotomy that allows the distal metatarsal to be displaced medially and dorsally. Lateral eminence resection alone will not address the painful plantar keratosis. A distal chevron osteotomy has a more limited ability to address the plantar keratosis (if translated medially and slight dorsally). Proximal diaphyseal osteotomies of the fifth metatarsal are associated with an increased risk of delayed union or nonunion secondary to the relative hypovascularity in the proximal diaphysis. Excision of the fifth metatarsal head can result in a floppy fifth toe and transfer metatarsalgia. REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ: Treatment of bunionette deformity with longitudinal diaphyseal osteotomy with distal soft tissue repair. Foot Ankle 1991;11:195-203. Moran MM, Claridge RJ: Chevron osteotomy for bunionette. Foot Ankle Int 1994;15:684-688.
Question 1530
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following imaging modalities is most accurate in locating a toothpick in the plantar arch of the foot?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ultrasound
Explanation
Ultrasound is best at imaging abrupt changes in the density of adjacent tissue and therefore is best at imaging wood in the soft tissues of the foot.
Question 1531
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The Coleman block test is used to evaluate the cavovarus foot. What is the most important information obtained from this test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Determines hindfoot flexibility
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Coleman block testing, performed by placing an elevation under the lateral border of the foot, is used to determine if the forefoot and/or plantar flexed first ray is causing a compensatory varus in the hindfoot. The block is placed under the lateral border of the foot, and therefore does not have any relation to the Achilles tendon and suppleness of the hindfoot. REFERENCES: Holmes JR, Hansen ST Jr: Foot and ankle manifestations of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Foot Ankle 1993;14:476-486. Thometz JG, Gould JS: Cavus deformity, in The Child’s Foot and Ankle. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1992, pp 343-353.
Question 1532
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 32-year-old runner has pain in the medial arch that radiates into the medial three toes. He reports the presence of pain only when running. Examination reveals normal hindfoot alignment. There is a weakly positive Tinel’s sign over the posterior tibial nerve. Tenderness is noted with palpation over the plantar medial area in the vicinity of the navicular tuberosity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial plantar nerve entrapment
Explanation
The examination findings reveal that there is specific involvement of the medial plantar nerve by the distribution of the pain medially. The symptoms exclude the possibility of plantar fasciitis and anterior tibial tendinitis. Sinus tarsi syndrome would produce anterolateral symptoms rather than medial symptoms.
Question 1533
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A construction worker sustained a comminuted calcaneus fracture 2 years ago. He now reports progressive hindfoot pain with the recent onset of anterior ankle pain. A lateral hindfoot radiograph is shown in Figure 31. Treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. subtalar distraction bone block arthrodesis.
Explanation
The patient has subtalar arthrosis, a loss of heel height with anterior ankle impingement. The mechanics of the ankle are impaired, and dorsiflexion is painful and limited. The talar declination angle is measured by drawing a line through the longitudinal axis of the talus and the plane of support of the foot on a weight-bearing lateral radiograph. Anterior impingement is suggested with any value below 20 degrees. By performing a distraction arthrodesis through the subtalar joint, the normal declination of the talus is reestablished, eliminating the anterior ankle impingement. Tibiotalocalcaneal fusion would be inappropriate because the patient does not have arthritic symptoms in the ankle. Ankle arthroscopy or in situ arthrodesis would not reestablish appropriate ankle mechanics, and the osteophytes would be prone to redevelop. Lateral wall ostectomy may help with impingement at the level of the fibula or the lateral ankle but would provide no benefit to anterior ankle impingement.
Question 1534
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 27-year-old woman with Down syndrome has a severe bunion with pain and deformity in the left forefoot. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. She does not use any assistive ambulatory devices. A radiograph is shown in Figure 21. Treatment should now consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.
Explanation
The patient requires an arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint because of the abnormal neuromuscular forces. The more traditional bunionectomies such as a distal chevron bunionectomy, a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy, and a double osteotomy have a high failure rate because of the underlying Down syndrome. The Keller procedure is indicated for older, sedentary individuals and has little role in the management of a neuromuscular bunion.
Question 1535
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old girl has had pain in her ankle and difficulty with sporting activities for the past 6 months. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and use of a short leg cast have provided minimal relief. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 43a and 43b. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resection of the talocalcaneal coalition
Explanation
The MRI scan shows an obvious talocalcaneal coalition of the medial facet. Because nonsurgical management has failed, surgical resection of the coalition is indicated. Arthrodesis would be indicated only if resection fails to relieve pain or if advanced degeneration of the hindfoot joints is present.
Question 1536
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 10-year-old boy reports a gradual onset of weakness; however, he is fully ambulatory. History reveals that he has a 17-year-old brother who has just stopped walking because of a similar condition. Laboratory studies show a creatine kinase level of 5,480 IU/L (normal 25 to 232 IU/L), and examination shows a slightly positive Gower sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Becker muscular dystrophy
Explanation
The patient has Becker muscular dystrophy. Patients with this condition have a slower rate of progression of disease compared with patients who have Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and walking may continue into the late teens. The creatine kinase level is not as high as in Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which can range from 20,000 to 30,000 IU/L. Becker muscular dystrophy is allelic to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, resulting in a mutation in the dystrophin gene.
Question 1537
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 47-year-old man sustained a degloving injury over the pretibial surface and anterior ankle region in a motor vehicle accident. After debridement and irrigation, there is inadequate tissue for closure of the exposed anterior tibial tendon and tibia. Prior to definitive soft-tissue coverage, management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. a vacuum-assisted closure device.
Explanation
With soft-tissue loss, local or free flap coverage may be necessary to treat exposed tendon and bone. However, a vacuum-assisted closure device is a good temporizing dressing. It prevents external contamination, reduces edema around the wound, increases oxygen tension in the wound, and promotes the formation of granulation tissue. The use of this negative pressure device has been described in both acute traumatic and in chronic wound scenarios.
Question 1538
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 30-year-old patient underwent open reduction internal fixation of a talar neck fracture 8 weeks ago. His current radiographs demonstrate a subchondral radiolucency of the dome of the talus. What is the next most appropriate course of action?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continued observation as the vascularity to the talus is intact
Explanation
A subchondral radiolucency of the talar dome after a talar neck fracture is known as the 'Hawkins sign' and is a well-described radiographic indication of viability of the talar body. Subchondral atrophy excludes the diagnosis of avascular necrosis. It is unlikely that AVN will develop at a later stage after injury if a Hawkins sign was present.
Question 1539
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 18-year-old man sustains an injury to his lateral ankle after being kicked while playing soccer. He reports persistent pain on the lateral ankle as well as a popping sensation with attempted ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. He denies any history of trauma. Which of the following structures anatomically restrains the retracted structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The peroneus brevis and peroneus longus muscles are the main evertors of the hindfoot. As they descend along the posterior fibula, they pass through the retromalleolar sulcus, formed by the concavity of the retromalleolar fibula. This sulcus is deepened by a fibrocartilaginous rim. The superior peroneal retinaculum covers the fibular groove and stabilizes the peroneal tendons within the retromalleolar sulcus. It originates from the posterolateral ridge of the fibula and inserts onto the lateral calcaneus.
Question 1540
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Primary arthrodesis is associated with which outcome when compared to outcomes associated with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) without arthrodesis for Lisfranc injuries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased secondary surgeries
Explanation
Two prospective randomized studies compared primary fusion with ORIF for Lisfranc injuries. Neither study showed worse results with primary fusion, and the rate of secondary surgery was more common in the ORIF group (salvage arthrodesis or hardware removal).
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