This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1341
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In deformity planning, the Center of Rotation of Angulation (CORA) is determined by the intersection of which two lines?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The mechanical axis of the proximal segment and the mechanical axis of the distal segment
Explanation
The CORA is defined as the point of intersection between the mechanical (or anatomical) axis line of the proximal bone segment and that of the distal bone segment.
Question 1342
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When performing a supramalleolar osteotomy of the tibia to correct a severe ankle varus deformity, what is the typical management of the fibula?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A concurrent fibular osteotomy is required to allow angular correction.
Explanation
Because the tibia and fibula form a constrained ring structure connected by the syndesmosis and interosseous membrane, a significant angular correction of the tibia usually requires a concurrent fibular osteotomy to mobilize the distal segment.
Question 1343
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient with long-standing post-traumatic distal tibia varus presents with ankle pain. Weight-bearing radiographs show an asymmetric narrowing of the medial tibiotalar joint space. The angle formed between the tibial plafond and the talar dome is measured. What does an abnormally widened Joint Line Convergence Angle (JLCA) in this setting typically indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ligamentous laxity or intra-articular cartilage wear
Explanation
An abnormal Joint Line Convergence Angle (JLCA) at the ankle indicates joint space asymmetry, which is typically due to intra-articular cartilage loss (arthritis) or collateral ligament instability.
Question 1344
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient has a severe equinus contracture of the ankle joint. Over time, what compensatory skeletal deformity might develop in the distal tibia to keep the foot plantigrade?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recurvatum deformity
Explanation
A long-standing equinus contracture forces the forefoot downward. To achieve a plantigrade foot during weight-bearing, the distal tibia may remodel or bend backward, creating a compensatory recurvatum (apex posterior) deformity.
Question 1345
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When choosing the level of an osteotomy to correct a distal tibial deformity, the surgeon opts to make the cut in the metaphyseal bone rather than the diaphyseal bone, despite the CORA being in the diaphysis. What is the primary biological advantage of this decision?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Metaphyseal bone has a larger cross-sectional area and superior blood supply, promoting faster healing.
Explanation
Executing an osteotomy in the metaphysis (following Paley's Rule 2) is often biologically preferred because the rich cancellous bone and robust blood supply lead to faster and more reliable union compared to the cortical diaphysis.
Question 1346
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 40-year-old male presents with post-traumatic ankle deformity. Radiographic evaluation of the lower extremity is performed to plan a supramalleolar osteotomy. According to Paley's principles of deformity correction, what is the normal value for the mechanical lateral distal tibial angle (mLDTA)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 89 degrees
Explanation
The normal mechanical lateral distal tibial angle (mLDTA) averages 89 degrees, with a typical physiological range of 86 to 92 degrees. It is measured between the mechanical axis of the tibia and the joint orientation line of the tibial plafond.
Question 1347
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old patient develops an apex anterior (procurvatum) deformity of the distal tibia following a malunited distal third fracture. How will this sagittal plane deformity affect the Anterior Distal Tibial Angle (ADTA) and ankle biomechanics?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased ADTA with restricted ankle dorsiflexion
Explanation
A procurvatum (apex anterior) deformity points the tibial plafond plantarward, which increases the ADTA (normally 80 degrees). This fixed equinus orientation of the joint line leads to anterior impingement and restricted ankle dorsiflexion.
Question 1348
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old female with stage 2 Takakura varus ankle osteoarthritis undergoes a medial opening-wedge supramalleolar osteotomy. What is the expected biomechanical effect of this precise surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateralizes the mechanical axis and lengthens the limb
Explanation
A medial opening-wedge supramalleolar osteotomy corrects varus by rotating the distal segment valgus, which lateralizes the mechanical axis of the lower extremity. The opening wedge also inherently lengthens the medial column of the tibia and overall limb.
Question 1349
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When performing a large (>10 degree) corrective supramalleolar closing-wedge osteotomy of the tibia for a severe valgus ankle deformity, what concurrent intervention on the fibula is classically required to prevent complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibular shortening or sliding osteotomy
Explanation
During a significant tibial closing-wedge osteotomy for valgus, the tibia is shortened laterally. To prevent syndesmotic widening, excessive pressure on the lateral talus, and joint incongruity, the fibula must undergo a concomitant shortening or sliding osteotomy.
Question 1350
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old patient presents with an untreated 15-degree distal tibial varus deformity secondary to a childhood growth plate injury. To maintain a functional, plantigrade foot during weight-bearing, what compensatory deformity most predictably develops?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtalar valgus
Explanation
In the presence of a rigid structural varus deformity of the distal tibia (infra-articular to the knee but supra-articular to the hindfoot), the subtalar joint will typically compensate by moving into valgus eversion to allow the plantar surface of the foot to sit flat on the ground.
Question 1351
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 30-year-old female undergoes a supramalleolar osteotomy for a post-traumatic varus ankle deformity (apex lateral). To execute a medial opening wedge osteotomy, where must the hinge axis logically be positioned relative to the tibia to achieve proper correction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral cortex
Explanation
An opening wedge osteotomy requires the hinge to be placed on the convex side of the deformity. For a varus deformity (apex lateral), the lateral cortex is the convex side, allowing the medial (concave) side to open.
Question 1352
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When evaluating a patient with a post-traumatic valgus deformity of the distal tibia, the surgeon notes an associated clinically significant fibular shortening. Which radiographic parameter is most reliable for identifying the correct length of the fibula relative to the tibia at the ankle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talocrural angle
Explanation
The talocrural angle is formed by a line perpendicular to the tibial plafond and a line connecting the tips of the malleoli; normal is 83 degrees. It is widely used to assess relative fibular length and syndesmotic reduction.
Question 1353
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In the context of ankle deformity correction, what compensatory mechanism commonly occurs in the hindfoot to dynamically accommodate a gradually developing distal tibial varus deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtalar valgus
Explanation
To maintain a plantigrade foot during weight-bearing, a distal tibial varus deformity is typically compensated for by the subtalar joint going into valgus. Once subtalar eversion is exhausted, the foot itself will assume a varus position.
Question 1354
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient with a chronic distal tibia varus malunion complains of severe ankle pain. Radiographs reveal an mLDTA of 105 degrees. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this untreated malunion on the ankle joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Shift of the mechanical axis medially leading to medial compartment overload.
Explanation
A varus deformity of the distal tibia (mLDTA > 89 degrees) shifts the mechanical weight-bearing axis medially. This dramatically increases contact stresses in the medial compartment of the tibiotalar joint, predisposing it to asymmetric early arthritis.
Question 1355
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During a supramalleolar osteotomy for a complex valgus ankle deformity, the surgeon places the hinge axis outside the transverse bisector line of the CORA and performs the osteotomy away from the CORA. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this execution (Paley's Rule 3)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Failure to realign the mechanical axes resulting in a secondary translation deformity
Explanation
Paley's Rule 3 dictates that if the hinge is placed off the bisector line of the CORA, regardless of the osteotomy location, the proximal and distal mechanical axes will not realign. This results in a new, iatrogenic translation deformity (axis mismatch).
Question 1356
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old female presents with a longstanding, severe varus diaphyseal tibial malunion. Weight-bearing alignment radiographs reveal a compensatory deformity in the hindfoot. Which of the following compensatory mechanisms at the subtalar joint is most likely present to maintain a plantigrade foot?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fixed subtalar valgus (eversion)
Explanation
In the setting of a severe, long-standing tibial varus deformity, the subtalar joint compensates by everting (valgus) to allow the plantar surface of the foot to remain flat on the ground. Over time, this compensatory eversion can become fixed.
Question 1357
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A surgeon is performing a closing wedge supramalleolar osteotomy to correct a 20-degree valgus deformity of the ankle. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the fibula to ensure unrestricted correction and prevent syndesmotic complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A fibular osteotomy should be performed to prevent lateral strutting and tethering
Explanation
During significant supramalleolar osteotomies for coronal plane deformities, the intact fibula acts as a lateral strut. A fibular osteotomy or release is typically required to allow full angular correction without tethering, thereby preventing lateral joint compression or syndesmotic widening.
Question 1358
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What is the normal Lateral Distal Tibial Angle (LDTA) on a standing AP radiograph of the ankle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 86 to 92 degrees
Explanation
The normal LDTA is 89 degrees, with an accepted normal range between 86 and 92 degrees. It is formed by the mechanical axis of the tibia and the joint line of the tibial plafond.
Question 1359
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
When performing a proximal tibial osteotomy for gradual deformity correction with a circular frame, a fibular osteotomy is required. At which level is the fibula typically osteotomized to minimize the risk of common peroneal nerve injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle to distal third junction of the fibula
Explanation
A fibular osteotomy in the middle to distal third junction minimizes the risk of injury to the common peroneal nerve, which courses around the fibular neck proximally.
Question 1360
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During tibial lengthening, a patient develops a progressive equinus contracture. Despite aggressive physical therapy, it worsens, threatening the outcome. What is the most appropriate prophylactic or early interventional measure to manage this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Incorporation of the foot into the frame or prophylactic Achilles tendon lengthening
Explanation
Equinus contracture is extremely common in tibial lengthening due to the strong posterior muscle groups (gastroc-soleus). Preventing it often requires including the foot in the external fixator construct or performing a prophylactic Achilles tendon lengthening.
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