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Question 1021

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 65-year-old patient with end-stage ankle osteoarthritis is being evaluated for a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following findings is widely considered an absolute contraindication for this procedure?

. Age greater than 60 years
. Body Mass Index (BMI) of 32
. History of an open ankle fracture treated 15 years ago
. Profound peripheral neuropathy with loss of protective sensation
. Coronal plane varus deformity of 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Profound peripheral neuropathy with loss of protective sensation


Explanation

Profound peripheral neuropathy (e.g., Charcot arthropathy) is an absolute contraindication for total ankle arthroplasty due to high failure and complication rates. Mild to moderate deformity and high BMI are relative considerations, while post-traumatic OA is the most common indication.

Question 1022

Topic: Forefoot

A 52-year-old avid runner presents with severe dorsal forefoot pain. Examination shows a rigid 1st metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint with less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. Radiographs reveal diffuse joint space narrowing, a flat metatarsal head, and large dorsal osteophytes (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 Hallux Rigidus). Which surgical intervention provides the most reliable long-term pain relief and functional restoration?

. Dorsal cheilectomy alone
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Moberg osteotomy
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. First MTP joint silicone arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

For advanced hallux rigidus (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 or 4) with diffuse joint space loss and significant motion restriction, a 1st MTP joint arthrodesis is the gold standard for reliable pain relief and durability. Cheilectomy is primarily indicated for Grade 1 and 2 disease with preserved joint space.

Question 1023

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old male presents with severe hindfoot pain and difficulty clearing his foot during swing phase, 2 years after non-operative treatment of a severely displaced, intra-articular calcaneus fracture. Radiographs show subtalar arthritis, severe loss of calcaneal height, and anterior talo-tibial impingement. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. In situ subtalar arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis
. Subtalar distraction bone block arthrodesis
. Tibiotalocalcaneal arthrodesis
. Calcaneal slide osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar distraction bone block arthrodesis


Explanation

Severe loss of calcaneal height leads to a horizontal talus and anterior ankle impingement. A subtalar distraction arthrodesis using a structural bone block restores calcaneal height, declinates the talus, and resolves the anterior impingement.

Question 1024

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A patient undergoes a standard triple arthrodesis for a severe rigid pes planovalgus deformity with generalized hindfoot osteoarthritis. Postoperatively, the patient develops a symptomatic non-union. Which joint involved in a triple arthrodesis has the highest reported rate of non-union?

. Calcaneocuboid joint
. Subtalar joint
. Talonavicular joint
. Naviculocuneiform joint
. Tibiotalar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Talonavicular joint


Explanation

The talonavicular joint historically has the highest rate of non-union during a triple arthrodesis, with rates cited between 5% to 10%. It is critical to adequately prepare this joint and ensure robust compression during fixation.

Question 1025

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 55-year-old female requires isolated fusion of the talonavicular joint due to advanced osteoarthritis. If this joint is successfully fused, what percentage of native subtalar joint motion will approximately remain?

. 80-90%
. 50-60%
. 25-35%
. Less than 10%
. 0%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less than 10%


Explanation

The talonavicular joint is the "key" to the acetabulum pedis. Biomechanical studies (like those by Astion et al.) demonstrate that isolated talonavicular fusion restricts subtalar motion to roughly 2 degrees, leaving less than 10% of native subtalar motion.

Question 1026

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old manual laborer requires an ankle arthrodesis for post-traumatic end-stage osteoarthritis. To optimize gait kinematics and minimize adjacent segment stress, what is the most widely accepted optimal position for the fused ankle?

. 5 degrees of dorsiflexion, neutral coronal alignment, and neutral rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5 degrees of varus, and neutral rotation
. 10 degrees of plantarflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of valgus, and 5 degrees of internal rotation
. 5 degrees of plantarflexion, 5 degrees of varus, and 10 degrees of external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation


Explanation

The optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and external rotation matching the contralateral limb (typically 5 to 10 degrees). This alignment provides the most efficient gait cycle and minimizes compensatory stress on the transverse tarsal and subtalar joints.

Question 1027

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 62-year-old patient with end-stage ankle arthritis is being evaluated for a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following conditions is considered an absolute contraindication for a standard primary TAA?

. Patient age greater than 60 years
. Primary (idiopathic) osteoarthritis
. Prior surgically treated bimalleolar ankle fracture
. Charcot neuroarthropathy of the ankle
. Mild associated subtalar arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Charcot neuroarthropathy of the ankle


Explanation

Charcot neuroarthropathy is considered an absolute contraindication to total ankle arthroplasty due to severe loss of protective sensation, progressive deformity, and unacceptably high rates of component subsidence and failure. Other absolute contraindications include active joint infection, severe avascular necrosis of the talus, and inadequate soft tissue coverage.

Question 1028

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 58-year-old female presents with severe pain and stiffness in her first toe. Radiographs reveal advanced joint space narrowing, large dorsal and lateral osteophytes, and subchondral cysts. Clinical examination shows pain throughout the mid-arc of motion. What is the gold standard surgical treatment for this patient?

. Dorsal cheilectomy
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis
. Proximal phalanx extension osteotomy (Moberg)
. Distal metatarsal articular angle correction osteotomy
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis


Explanation

The patient has Grade 3/4 hallux rigidus, characterized by severe radiographic changes and pain throughout the range of motion. The gold standard surgical treatment for end-stage hallux rigidus is a 1st MTP joint arthrodesis, which reliably relieves pain and restores weight-bearing function.

Question 1029

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

When performing a triple arthrodesis for a severe rigid flatfoot deformity, meticulous joint preparation is required. Which of the following joints has the highest reported rate of nonunion following this procedure?

. Subtalar joint
. Talonavicular joint
. Calcaneocuboid joint
. Naviculocuneiform joint
. Tarsometatarsal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Talonavicular joint


Explanation

The talonavicular joint consistently demonstrates the highest nonunion rate following triple arthrodesis, with reports ranging from 5% to 37% in the literature. This is largely due to its spherical anatomy, limited vascularity, and high biomechanical demands, requiring meticulous preparation and rigid fixation.

Question 1030

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Following a successful isolated ankle arthrodesis, patients typically exhibit altered gait kinematics to compensate for the lack of tibiotalar motion. Where does the majority of compensatory sagittal plane motion occur during gait?

. The ipsilateral knee joint
. The ipsilateral hip joint
. The subtalar joint
. The transverse tarsal joints
. The first metatarsophalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The transverse tarsal joints


Explanation

After an ankle arthrodesis, the majority of compensatory sagittal plane motion occurs at the transverse tarsal joints (talonavicular and calcaneocuboid). While there is a reduction in overall walking speed and stride length, the midfoot significantly increases its sagittal excursion to simulate ankle rocker function.

Question 1031

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 45-year-old patient undergoes an isolated tibiotalar arthrodesis for post-traumatic arthritis.

Based on the altered biomechanics shown postoperatively, which adjacent joint is at the highest risk of developing progressive symptomatic osteoarthritic changes over the next 10 years?

. Patellofemoral joint
. Subtalar joint
. Naviculocuneiform joint
. Metatarsophalangeal joints
. Calcaneocuboid joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar joint


Explanation

The subtalar joint is highly susceptible to adjacent segment arthritis following isolated ankle arthrodesis due to increased stress transfer and altered hindfoot kinematics. The talonavicular joint is also at significant risk, as the hindfoot complex functions interdependently.

Question 1032

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 38-year-old patient requires a subtalar arthrodesis following a malunited calcaneus fracture. To prevent locking of the transverse tarsal joints and subsequent severe gait dysfunction, the subtalar joint should be fused in which of the following alignments?

. 5 degrees of varus
. 5 degrees of valgus
. Neutral coronal alignment (0 degrees)
. 15 degrees of valgus
. 10 degrees of varus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 degrees of valgus


Explanation

The optimal position for subtalar arthrodesis is approximately 5 degrees of valgus. Fusing the subtalar joint in varus locks the transverse tarsal (Chopart) joints, resulting in a rigid midfoot and significant difficulty adapting to uneven terrain.

Question 1033

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

An orthopaedic surgeon performs an isolated talonavicular arthrodesis for severe isolated degenerative joint disease. Based on standard in vivo kinematic studies, what effect will this isolated fusion have on the motion of the subtalar joint?

. It will increase subtalar motion by 10% to compensate.
. It will preserve approximately 90% of native subtalar motion.
. It will virtually eliminate subtalar motion, restricting it to approximately 2 degrees.
. It will limit subtalar motion to exactly 50% of its normal arc.
. It has no measurable biomechanical effect on subtalar motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It will virtually eliminate subtalar motion, restricting it to approximately 2 degrees.


Explanation

An isolated talonavicular arthrodesis virtually eliminates subtalar joint motion, reducing it to approximately 2 degrees. The talonavicular, subtalar, and calcaneocuboid joints function as a tightly coupled, interdependent complex; therefore, locking the TN joint severely restricts motion in the entire hindfoot.

Question 1034

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

What is the optimal recommended position for a tibiotalar (ankle) arthrodesis to maximize postoperative function and gait mechanics?

. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5 degrees valgus, 5-10 degrees external rotation
. 5 degrees plantarflexion, 5 degrees valgus, 5 degrees external rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, neutral hindfoot, neutral rotation
. 5 degrees dorsiflexion, 5 degrees varus, 10 degrees external rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5 degrees valgus, internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5 degrees valgus, 5-10 degrees external rotation


Explanation

The optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion (0 degrees), 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and external rotation equal to the contralateral side (typically 5 to 10 degrees). This position minimizes adjacent joint stress and normalizes gait.

Question 1035

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old male presents with end-stage ankle arthritis and inquires about a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following preoperative patient characteristics is considered an absolute contraindication to performing a TAA?

. Age less than 60 years
. Body Mass Index of 32
. Prior history of successfully treated ankle septic arthritis 10 years ago
. Charcot arthropathy with severe talar avascular necrosis
. Concomitant severe subtalar osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Charcot arthropathy with severe talar avascular necrosis


Explanation

Active infection, Charcot neuropathy, severe talar avascular necrosis, and inadequate soft tissue coverage are absolute contraindications to total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Concomitant hindfoot arthritis is generally considered a relative indication for TAA to preserve remaining joint motion.

Question 1036

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 48-year-old manual laborer is undergoing a tibiotalar arthrodesis for post-traumatic osteoarthritis. To optimize his post-operative gait mechanics and minimize adjacent joint stress, what is the most appropriate position for the ankle fusion?

. 5 degrees dorsiflexion, 5 degrees valgus, 10 degrees internal rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5 degrees valgus, 5-10 degrees external rotation
. 5 degrees plantarflexion, neutral coronal alignment, neutral rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5 degrees varus, 5 degrees external rotation
. 10 degrees plantarflexion, 5 degrees valgus, neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5 degrees valgus, 5-10 degrees external rotation


Explanation

The optimal position for an ankle arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion (0 degrees), 0 to 5 degrees of valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation to match the contralateral side. Plantarflexion causes a genu recurvatum thrust, while varus positioning leads to painful lateral border overload.

Question 1037

Topic: Forefoot

A 62-year-old female presents with significant pain over the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Radiographs show Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 hallux rigidus with less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. She has failed conservative management. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable long-term pain relief and functional improvement for this patient?

. First MTP joint cheilectomy
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Synthetic hemiarthroplasty of the first metatarsal head
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Dorsal closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal phalanx (Moberg)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

First MTP joint arthrodesis is the gold standard for advanced (Grade 3 and 4) hallux rigidus, providing reliable, long-lasting pain relief and functional improvement. Cheilectomy is primarily indicated for Grade 1 and 2 disease characterized by predominantly dorsal osteophytes and impingement.

Question 1038

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

Ten years following a successful isolated tibiotalar arthrodesis, a 55-year-old male develops new, progressive hindfoot pain exacerbated by walking on uneven ground. Radiographs are obtained. Degenerative changes in which of the following joints are the most common cause of this new presentation?

. Subtalar joint
. Talonavicular joint
. Calcaneocuboid joint
. Naviculocuneiform joint
. Tarsometatarsal joints

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar joint


Explanation

Following an ankle arthrodesis, the subtalar joint is subjected to significantly increased biomechanical stress to compensate for the loss of tibiotalar motion. This leads to a high incidence of adjacent segment osteoarthritis over time, most prominently in the subtalar joint.

Question 1039

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old male presents with severe lateral hindfoot pain and difficulty fitting into shoes three years after a non-operatively treated intra-articular calcaneus fracture. Examination reveals subfibular impingement, and radiographs demonstrate subtalar arthritis with significant loss of calcaneal height. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. In situ subtalar arthrodesis
. Distraction bone block subtalar arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis
. Lateral wall exostectomy without fusion
. Calcaneocuboid arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distraction bone block subtalar arthrodesis


Explanation

A distraction bone block subtalar arthrodesis is indicated for post-traumatic subtalar arthritis accompanied by loss of calcaneal height and resultant subfibular impingement. This procedure restores talocalcaneal height, decompresses the fibula, and fuses the painful arthritic joint.

Question 1040

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old male sustains a crush injury to his foot after a heavy object falls on it. He complains of severe midfoot pain and inability to bear weight. Physical examination reveals swelling and ecchymosis over the dorsum of the foot, tenderness at the tarsometatarsal joints, and subtle widening of the interval between the first and second toes. Plain radiographs are equivocal, but a weight-bearing radiograph shows diastasis between the medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Non-weight bearing in a short-leg cast for 6 weeks
. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
. Primary midfoot arthrodesis
. Excision of the second metatarsal base
. Application of a walking boot with early weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe clinical presentation and radiographic findings (diastasis between medial cuneiform and second metatarsal base) are highly suggestive of a Lisfranc injury. Given the instability and potential for long-term functional impairment, surgical intervention is almost always indicated for displaced or unstable Lisfranc injuries. ORIF with screws (across the medial and intermediate cuneiforms to the second metatarsal base, and other unstable joints) is the standard of care for acute, displaced injuries to restore anatomical alignment and stability. Non-weight bearing in a cast is for stable, non-displaced injuries. Primary arthrodesis may be considered for chronic or highly comminuted injuries, or if severe degenerative changes are already present. Excision of the second metatarsal base is not a standard treatment. Early weight-bearing with a walking boot is contraindicated.