This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1021
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 65-year-old patient with end-stage ankle osteoarthritis is being evaluated for a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following findings is widely considered an absolute contraindication for this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Profound peripheral neuropathy with loss of protective sensation
Explanation
Profound peripheral neuropathy (e.g., Charcot arthropathy) is an absolute contraindication for total ankle arthroplasty due to high failure and complication rates. Mild to moderate deformity and high BMI are relative considerations, while post-traumatic OA is the most common indication.
Question 1022
Topic: Forefoot
A 52-year-old avid runner presents with severe dorsal forefoot pain. Examination shows a rigid 1st metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint with less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. Radiographs reveal diffuse joint space narrowing, a flat metatarsal head, and large dorsal osteophytes (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 Hallux Rigidus). Which surgical intervention provides the most reliable long-term pain relief and functional restoration?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
Explanation
For advanced hallux rigidus (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 or 4) with diffuse joint space loss and significant motion restriction, a 1st MTP joint arthrodesis is the gold standard for reliable pain relief and durability. Cheilectomy is primarily indicated for Grade 1 and 2 disease with preserved joint space.
Question 1023
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old male presents with severe hindfoot pain and difficulty clearing his foot during swing phase, 2 years after non-operative treatment of a severely displaced, intra-articular calcaneus fracture. Radiographs show subtalar arthritis, severe loss of calcaneal height, and anterior talo-tibial impingement. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtalar distraction bone block arthrodesis
Explanation
Severe loss of calcaneal height leads to a horizontal talus and anterior ankle impingement. A subtalar distraction arthrodesis using a structural bone block restores calcaneal height, declinates the talus, and resolves the anterior impingement.
Question 1024
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A patient undergoes a standard triple arthrodesis for a severe rigid pes planovalgus deformity with generalized hindfoot osteoarthritis. Postoperatively, the patient develops a symptomatic non-union. Which joint involved in a triple arthrodesis has the highest reported rate of non-union?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talonavicular joint
Explanation
The talonavicular joint historically has the highest rate of non-union during a triple arthrodesis, with rates cited between 5% to 10%. It is critical to adequately prepare this joint and ensure robust compression during fixation.
Question 1025
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old female requires isolated fusion of the talonavicular joint due to advanced osteoarthritis. If this joint is successfully fused, what percentage of native subtalar joint motion will approximately remain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Less than 10%
Explanation
The talonavicular joint is the "key" to the acetabulum pedis. Biomechanical studies (like those by Astion et al.) demonstrate that isolated talonavicular fusion restricts subtalar motion to roughly 2 degrees, leaving less than 10% of native subtalar motion.
Question 1026
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old manual laborer requires an ankle arthrodesis for post-traumatic end-stage osteoarthritis. To optimize gait kinematics and minimize adjacent segment stress, what is the most widely accepted optimal position for the fused ankle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation
Explanation
The optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and external rotation matching the contralateral limb (typically 5 to 10 degrees). This alignment provides the most efficient gait cycle and minimizes compensatory stress on the transverse tarsal and subtalar joints.
Question 1027
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 62-year-old patient with end-stage ankle arthritis is being evaluated for a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following conditions is considered an absolute contraindication for a standard primary TAA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Charcot neuroarthropathy of the ankle
Explanation
Charcot neuroarthropathy is considered an absolute contraindication to total ankle arthroplasty due to severe loss of protective sensation, progressive deformity, and unacceptably high rates of component subsidence and failure. Other absolute contraindications include active joint infection, severe avascular necrosis of the talus, and inadequate soft tissue coverage.
Question 1028
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 58-year-old female presents with severe pain and stiffness in her first toe. Radiographs reveal advanced joint space narrowing, large dorsal and lateral osteophytes, and subchondral cysts. Clinical examination shows pain throughout the mid-arc of motion. What is the gold standard surgical treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis
Explanation
The patient has Grade 3/4 hallux rigidus, characterized by severe radiographic changes and pain throughout the range of motion. The gold standard surgical treatment for end-stage hallux rigidus is a 1st MTP joint arthrodesis, which reliably relieves pain and restores weight-bearing function.
Question 1029
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
When performing a triple arthrodesis for a severe rigid flatfoot deformity, meticulous joint preparation is required. Which of the following joints has the highest reported rate of nonunion following this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talonavicular joint
Explanation
The talonavicular joint consistently demonstrates the highest nonunion rate following triple arthrodesis, with reports ranging from 5% to 37% in the literature. This is largely due to its spherical anatomy, limited vascularity, and high biomechanical demands, requiring meticulous preparation and rigid fixation.
Question 1030
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Following a successful isolated ankle arthrodesis, patients typically exhibit altered gait kinematics to compensate for the lack of tibiotalar motion. Where does the majority of compensatory sagittal plane motion occur during gait?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The transverse tarsal joints
Explanation
After an ankle arthrodesis, the majority of compensatory sagittal plane motion occurs at the transverse tarsal joints (talonavicular and calcaneocuboid). While there is a reduction in overall walking speed and stride length, the midfoot significantly increases its sagittal excursion to simulate ankle rocker function.
Question 1031
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 45-year-old patient undergoes an isolated tibiotalar arthrodesis for post-traumatic arthritis.
Based on the altered biomechanics shown postoperatively, which adjacent joint is at the highest risk of developing progressive symptomatic osteoarthritic changes over the next 10 years?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtalar joint
Explanation
The subtalar joint is highly susceptible to adjacent segment arthritis following isolated ankle arthrodesis due to increased stress transfer and altered hindfoot kinematics. The talonavicular joint is also at significant risk, as the hindfoot complex functions interdependently.
Question 1032
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 38-year-old patient requires a subtalar arthrodesis following a malunited calcaneus fracture. To prevent locking of the transverse tarsal joints and subsequent severe gait dysfunction, the subtalar joint should be fused in which of the following alignments?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5 degrees of valgus
Explanation
The optimal position for subtalar arthrodesis is approximately 5 degrees of valgus. Fusing the subtalar joint in varus locks the transverse tarsal (Chopart) joints, resulting in a rigid midfoot and significant difficulty adapting to uneven terrain.
Question 1033
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
An orthopaedic surgeon performs an isolated talonavicular arthrodesis for severe isolated degenerative joint disease. Based on standard in vivo kinematic studies, what effect will this isolated fusion have on the motion of the subtalar joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It will virtually eliminate subtalar motion, restricting it to approximately 2 degrees.
Explanation
An isolated talonavicular arthrodesis virtually eliminates subtalar joint motion, reducing it to approximately 2 degrees. The talonavicular, subtalar, and calcaneocuboid joints function as a tightly coupled, interdependent complex; therefore, locking the TN joint severely restricts motion in the entire hindfoot.
Question 1034
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What is the optimal recommended position for a tibiotalar (ankle) arthrodesis to maximize postoperative function and gait mechanics?
The optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion (0 degrees), 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and external rotation equal to the contralateral side (typically 5 to 10 degrees). This position minimizes adjacent joint stress and normalizes gait.
Question 1035
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old male presents with end-stage ankle arthritis and inquires about a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following preoperative patient characteristics is considered an absolute contraindication to performing a TAA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Charcot arthropathy with severe talar avascular necrosis
Explanation
Active infection, Charcot neuropathy, severe talar avascular necrosis, and inadequate soft tissue coverage are absolute contraindications to total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Concomitant hindfoot arthritis is generally considered a relative indication for TAA to preserve remaining joint motion.
Question 1036
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 48-year-old manual laborer is undergoing a tibiotalar arthrodesis for post-traumatic osteoarthritis. To optimize his post-operative gait mechanics and minimize adjacent joint stress, what is the most appropriate position for the ankle fusion?
The optimal position for an ankle arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion (0 degrees), 0 to 5 degrees of valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation to match the contralateral side. Plantarflexion causes a genu recurvatum thrust, while varus positioning leads to painful lateral border overload.
Question 1037
Topic: Forefoot
A 62-year-old female presents with significant pain over the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Radiographs show Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 hallux rigidus with less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. She has failed conservative management. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable long-term pain relief and functional improvement for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
Explanation
First MTP joint arthrodesis is the gold standard for advanced (Grade 3 and 4) hallux rigidus, providing reliable, long-lasting pain relief and functional improvement. Cheilectomy is primarily indicated for Grade 1 and 2 disease characterized by predominantly dorsal osteophytes and impingement.
Question 1038
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
Ten years following a successful isolated tibiotalar arthrodesis, a 55-year-old male develops new, progressive hindfoot pain exacerbated by walking on uneven ground. Radiographs are obtained. Degenerative changes in which of the following joints are the most common cause of this new presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtalar joint
Explanation
Following an ankle arthrodesis, the subtalar joint is subjected to significantly increased biomechanical stress to compensate for the loss of tibiotalar motion. This leads to a high incidence of adjacent segment osteoarthritis over time, most prominently in the subtalar joint.
Question 1039
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old male presents with severe lateral hindfoot pain and difficulty fitting into shoes three years after a non-operatively treated intra-articular calcaneus fracture. Examination reveals subfibular impingement, and radiographs demonstrate subtalar arthritis with significant loss of calcaneal height. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distraction bone block subtalar arthrodesis
Explanation
A distraction bone block subtalar arthrodesis is indicated for post-traumatic subtalar arthritis accompanied by loss of calcaneal height and resultant subfibular impingement. This procedure restores talocalcaneal height, decompresses the fibula, and fuses the painful arthritic joint.
Question 1040
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old male sustains a crush injury to his foot after a heavy object falls on it. He complains of severe midfoot pain and inability to bear weight. Physical examination reveals swelling and ecchymosis over the dorsum of the foot, tenderness at the tarsometatarsal joints, and subtle widening of the interval between the first and second toes. Plain radiographs are equivocal, but a weight-bearing radiograph shows diastasis between the medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
Explanation
Correct Answer: BThe clinical presentation and radiographic findings (diastasis between medial cuneiform and second metatarsal base) are highly suggestive of a Lisfranc injury. Given the instability and potential for long-term functional impairment, surgical intervention is almost always indicated for displaced or unstable Lisfranc injuries. ORIF with screws (across the medial and intermediate cuneiforms to the second metatarsal base, and other unstable joints) is the standard of care for acute, displaced injuries to restore anatomical alignment and stability. Non-weight bearing in a cast is for stable, non-displaced injuries. Primary arthrodesis may be considered for chronic or highly comminuted injuries, or if severe degenerative changes are already present. Excision of the second metatarsal base is not a standard treatment. Early weight-bearing with a walking boot is contraindicated.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.