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Question 7001

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When performing an extensive external fixation lengthening of the tibia, what is the most common adjacent joint complication that often necessitates extending the frame across the joint?

. Knee flexion contracture
. Knee extension contracture
. Equinus contracture of the ankle
. Calcaneus contracture of the ankle
. Subtalar arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Equinus contracture of the ankle


Explanation

Tibial lengthening resists the stretch of the thick posterior gastrocnemius-soleus complex, leading to an equinus contracture. Prophylactic measures include intensive physical therapy, Achilles tendon lengthening, or spanning the frame across the ankle.

Question 7002

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old basketball player sustains an acute ankle sprain. Clinical examination reveals laxity with the anterior drawer test of the ankle. The most commonly injured ligament in this scenario is primarily under maximal tension in which of the following foot positions?

. Dorsiflexion and eversion
. Dorsiflexion and inversion
. Plantarflexion and inversion
. Plantarflexion and eversion
. Neutral and external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantarflexion and inversion


Explanation

Correct Answer: Plantarflexion and inversionThe anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) is the most commonly injured ligament in an ankle sprain. It acts as the primary restraint to anterior translation of the talus (tested via the anterior drawer test). Biomechanically, the ATFL is under maximal tension when the ankle is in plantarflexion and inversion, which is the classic mechanism of injury for a lateral ankle sprain.

Question 7003

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old basketball player lands awkwardly on another player's foot, sustaining a severe inversion injury to his right ankle. He presents with localized swelling and ecchymosis over the anterolateral aspect of the ankle. An anterior drawer test of the ankle is positive. Which of the following ligaments is most likely ruptured?

. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Posterior talofibular ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior talofibular ligament


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) is the weakest of the lateral ankle ligaments and is the most frequently injured ligament in inversion ankle sprains. The anterior drawer test specifically assesses the integrity of the ATFL by translating the talus anteriorly relative to the tibia. The calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) is the second most commonly injured ligament and is assessed clinically with the talar tilt test. The deltoid ligament is located medially and is injured in eversion sprains.

Question 7004

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Acute ruptures of the Achilles tendon most frequently occur in its vascular "watershed" zone. Anatomically, approximately how far proximal to the superior tuberosity of the calcaneus is this susceptible region located?

. 2 to 6 cm
. 0 to 1 cm
. 7 to 10 cm
. At the musculotendinous junction
. In the proximal third of the soleus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 6 cm


Explanation

The watershed area of the Achilles tendon, which has the most tenuous blood supply and is the most common site of acute rupture, is located approximately 2 to 6 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus.

Question 7005

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old male with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous, and warm left foot. Radiographs reveal fragmentation of the tarsometatarsal joints, periarticular debris, and subluxation. There are no open ulcers. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Intravenous antibiotics and surgical debridement
. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation
. Total contact casting and non-weight-bearing
. Prescription of custom accommodative orthotics
. Below-knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total contact casting and non-weight-bearing


Explanation

The patient presents with an acute Eichenholtz Stage I Charcot neuroarthropathy (fragmentation phase). The gold standard initial treatment for an acute, ulcer-free Charcot foot is offloading with a total contact cast to prevent further deformity while the acute inflammation resolves.

Question 7006

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old woman presents with severe midfoot pain after missing a step and forcefully plantarflexing her foot. Weight-bearing radiographs show a 3 mm widening between the bases of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals. Which anatomic structure provides the primary stabilizing force against this specific lateral displacement?

. Dorsal ligament between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal bases
. Plantar ligament extending from the medial cuneiform to the base of the 2nd metatarsal
. Interosseous ligament between the medial and middle cuneiforms
. Plantar fascia
. Peroneus longus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantar ligament extending from the medial cuneiform to the base of the 2nd metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is the primary and strongest stabilizer of the tarsometatarsal joint complex. It is an interosseous ligament that originates on the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform and inserts plantar-laterally onto the base of the second metatarsal.

Question 7007

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (Trevor disease) is characterized by an asymmetric cartilage overgrowth that histologically resembles an osteochondroma. Which of the following is the most common anatomical location for this lesion?

. Distal radius and ulna
. Proximal humerus
. Medial aspect of the distal femur and talus
. Lateral aspect of the proximal femur
. Cervical vertebral endplates

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial aspect of the distal femur and talus


Explanation

Trevor disease predominantly affects the lower extremities, most frequently involving the medial side of the epiphyses at the knee (distal femur) and the ankle (talus or distal tibia).

Question 7008

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department after feeling a "pop" in his posterior ankle while playing basketball. He has weakness with plantar flexion and a palpable gap 4 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion. The Thompson test is positive. If the patient elects for nonoperative management, which of the following is the most critical component of the early rehabilitation protocol to optimize tendon healing and minimize the risk of re-rupture?

. Immediate full weight-bearing in a neutral ankle brace
. Immobilization in a short leg cast in maximal dorsiflexion for 6 weeks
. Early functional rehabilitation with weight-bearing in a functional brace with heel wedges
. Strict non-weight bearing for 8 weeks followed by aggressive stretching
. Corticosteroid injection into the defect to reduce inflammation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early functional rehabilitation with weight-bearing in a functional brace with heel wedges


Explanation

Correct Answer: CRecent literature supports early functional rehabilitation for acute Achilles tendon ruptures managed nonoperatively. This involves early weight-bearing in a functional brace or boot with heel wedges (to keep the ankle in equinus and approximate the tendon ends), combined with early active range of motion exercises. This approach has been shown to have similar re-rupture rates to surgical repair while avoiding surgical complications, and it provides better functional outcomes than prolonged rigid immobilization.

Question 7009

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 42-year-old male presents with a palpable gap in his posterior ankle and a positive Thompson test after feeling a "pop" while playing basketball. He is diagnosed with an acute Achilles tendon rupture. The rupture most commonly occurs in a hypovascular zone. How far proximal to the calcaneal insertion is this watershed area typically located?

. 0 to 1 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. 7 to 10 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. 11 to 14 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. At the musculotendinous junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion


Explanation

Correct Answer: B (2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion)The Achilles tendon has a relative hypovascular zone (watershed area) located approximately 2 to 6 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus. This area receives a tenuous blood supply from the paratenon rather than direct osseous or muscular vessels, making it the most common site for degenerative changes, tendinopathy, and acute ruptures.

Question 7010

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 55-year-old diabetic patient presents with a swollen, red, and warm left foot. Radiographs show joint fragmentation, debris, and early subluxation at the midfoot, consistent with Eichenholtz Stage I Charcot arthropathy. There is no open ulcer. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Urgent surgical debridement and external fixation
. Total contact casting and strict non-weight-bearing
. Primary arthrodesis of the midfoot
. Below-knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total contact casting and strict non-weight-bearing


Explanation

Eichenholtz Stage I (fragmentation stage) is characterized by acute inflammation, osteopenia, and architectural breakdown. The gold standard initial management is immobilization with a total contact cast and strict non-weight-bearing to halt disease progression until it reaches the coalescence stage.

Question 7011

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old football player sustains a high-energy axial load to a plantarflexed foot. Imaging confirms a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon must restore the anatomical function of the Lisfranc ligament. What are its true anatomical attachments?

. Plantar aspect of the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Dorsal aspect of the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Plantar aspect of the middle cuneiform to the base of the first metatarsal
. Plantar aspect of the cuboid to the base of the fourth metatarsal
. Navicular to the base of the first metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantar aspect of the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is the strongest interosseous restraint of the tarsometatarsal joint complex. It originates from the plantar-lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform and inserts onto the plantar-medial base of the second metatarsal.

Question 7012

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 25-year-old male lands awkwardly on his midfoot while playing rugby. Examination reveals pronounced plantar midfoot ecchymosis and severe pain with pronation and abduction of the forefoot. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a "fleck sign" and 3 mm of widening between the medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal. The primary restraining ligament injured in this condition connects which two osseous structures?

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the first metatarsal
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Middle cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Lateral cuneiform to the cuboid
. Calcaneus to the navicular

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is the primary stabilizer of the tarsometatarsal joint complex, and its avulsion is classically represented by the radiographic "fleck sign".

Question 7013

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During gradual tibial lengthening using a circular external fixator, the patient develops a progressive equinus deformity of the ankle. What is the most common underlying cause of this specific complication?

. Premature consolidation of the regenerate bone
. Relative shortening of the Achilles tendon due to delayed soft tissue adaptation
. Over-tensioning of the Ilizarov fixation wires
. Unrecognized ischemic deep peroneal nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Relative shortening of the Achilles tendon due to delayed soft tissue adaptation


Explanation

As the tibia is lengthened, the gastrocnemius-soleus complex fiercely resists stretching. This leads to a relative shortening of the Achilles tendon compared to the lengthened bone, resulting in an equinus contracture if not aggressively managed with physical therapy and splinting.

Question 7014

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a proximal tibial lengthening procedure, a patient acutely develops an inability to actively dorsiflex the ankle and extend the great toe. Which structure is compromised, and what is the immediate initial management?

. Tibial nerve; perform immediate surgical decompression.
. Common peroneal nerve; halt distraction and flex the knee.
. Common peroneal nerve; increase the rate of distraction.
. Deep peroneal nerve; administer intravenous corticosteroids.
. Superficial peroneal nerve; apply a solid short leg cast.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve; halt distraction and flex the knee.


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve is highly susceptible to stretch injury during proximal tibial lengthening. Initial management includes stopping the distraction and flexing the knee (with plantarflexion of the ankle) to acutely relieve tension on the nerve.

Question 7015

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

On a weight-bearing long leg radiograph, the mechanical axis deviation (MAD) is measured in a patient with a severe varus thrust during gait. Where does the mechanical axis line typically pass relative to the knee center in this patient?

. Through the exact center of the knee
. Lateral to the center of the knee
. Medial to the center of the knee
. Anterior to the center of the knee
. Posterior to the center of the knee

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial to the center of the knee


Explanation

In a varus deformity of the lower extremity, the mechanical axis (line from the center of the femoral head to the center of the ankle) falls medial to the center of the knee joint. This significantly increases the compressive forces across the medial compartment.

Question 7016

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 5-year-old child is evaluated for asymmetric swelling and restricted motion of the medial aspect of the ankle. Radiographs show an osteochondromatous overgrowth arising from the medial epiphysis of the talus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Multiple Hereditary Exostoses
. Ollier Disease
. Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica
. Maffucci Syndrome
. Meyer's Dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica


Explanation

Correct Answer: CDysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (Trevor's disease) is a rare developmental disorder characterized by asymmetric osteochondromatous overgrowth of one or more epiphyses. It most commonly affects the lower limb (distal femur, proximal tibia, or talus) and is usually confined to one side of the joint (medial more common than lateral).

Question 7017

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 10-year-old boy presents with marked hypertrophy of his left leg compared to his right. Examination reveals a large, lateral cutaneous capillary malformation (port-wine stain) extending from the hip to the foot, along with prominent superficial varicosities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Proteus syndrome
. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome
. Maffucci syndrome
. Parkes Weber syndrome
. Neurofibromatosis type 1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome


Explanation

Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome is clinically diagnosed by the triad of a capillary malformation (port-wine stain), venous malformations (varicosities), and soft-tissue or bony hypertrophy of an extremity. Unlike Parkes Weber syndrome, it lacks clinically significant high-flow arteriovenous fistulas.

Question 7018

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 5-year-old boy presents with isolated, disproportionate overgrowth of the 2nd and 3rd toes of his left foot, accompanied by thick plantar soft tissue. Which nerve territory is classically involved and hypertrophied in this specific pedal presentation?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Medial plantar nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Lateral plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial plantar nerve


Explanation

Macrodactyly in the foot is a localized overgrowth condition that most frequently involves the medial plantar nerve territory, affecting the 1st through 3rd digits. The condition is often linked to somatic activating mutations in the PIK3CA gene.

Question 7019

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

In a patient presenting with an isolated paresis of the tibialis anterior, which of the following gait abnormalities is most likely to be observed during the loading response phase?

. Vaulting gait
. Foot slap
. Drop foot with steppage gait
. Genu recurvatum
. Lateral trunk lean

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Foot slap


Explanation

During the loading response phase, the tibialis anterior normally contracts eccentrically to lower the foot to the ground smoothly. Weakness results in an inability to control this descent, leading to an audible 'foot slap'.

Question 7020

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During the terminal stance phase of normal gait, what is the anatomical relationship of the ground reaction force (GRF) vector relative to the major joints of the lower extremity?

. Posterior to ankle, posterior to knee, anterior to hip
. Anterior to ankle, anterior to knee, posterior to hip
. Anterior to ankle, posterior to knee, anterior to hip
. Posterior to ankle, anterior to knee, posterior to hip
. Anterior to ankle, anterior to knee, anterior to hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to ankle, posterior to knee, anterior to hip


Explanation

In terminal stance, the GRF vector is located anterior to the ankle (producing a dorsiflexion moment), anterior to the knee (producing an extension moment), and posterior to the hip (producing an extension moment).