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Question 6881

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 24-year-old professional football player presents with severe midfoot pain after his plantarflexed foot was axially loaded during a tackle. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a 2 mm diastasis between the bases of the first and second metatarsals. An injury to the primary stabilizing ligament of this region is suspected. What are the true anatomical origin and insertion of this specific ligament?

. Lateral surface of the medial cuneiform to the plantar base of the second metatarsal
. Medial cuneiform to the medial base of the first metatarsal
. Intermediate cuneiform to the plantar base of the second metatarsal
. Navicular to the plantar aspect of the medial cuneiform
. Lateral cuneiform to the dorsal base of the third metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral surface of the medial cuneiform to the plantar base of the second metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament originating from the lateral surface of the medial cuneiform and inserting onto the plantar-medial aspect of the second metatarsal base. It is the primary stabilizer of the second tarsometatarsal joint.

Question 6882

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old female presents with stage II adult-acquired flatfoot deformity. Her surgical plan includes a flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and a medializing calcaneal osteotomy (MCO). What is the primary biomechanical advantage provided by the MCO in this procedure?

. Increases the calcaneal pitch angle to anatomically restore the longitudinal arch
. Translates the insertion of the Achilles tendon medially to function as an invertor
. Shifts the mechanical axis lateral to the subtalar joint to prevent varus collapse
. Directly reconstructs the attenuated superomedial calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament
. Decreases the moment arm and tension on the transferred FDL tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Translates the insertion of the Achilles tendon medially to function as an invertor


Explanation

A medializing calcaneal osteotomy shifts the calcaneal tuberosity and the Achilles tendon insertion medially. This converts the Achilles tendon from a deforming evertor into an invertor, which corrects hindfoot valgus and protects the medial soft tissue reconstruction.

Question 6883

Topic: Forefoot

A 40-year-old female presents with a painful bunion. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle of 38 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle of 18 degrees. Clinical examination demonstrates significant hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint in the sagittal plane. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate for this patient?

. Distal metatarsal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy with distal soft tissue release
. First tarsometatarsal (Lapidus) arthrodesis
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First tarsometatarsal (Lapidus) arthrodesis


Explanation

The Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is the procedure of choice for moderate-to-severe hallux valgus associated with first ray hypermobility. It successfully addresses the severe intermetatarsal angle while providing rigid stabilization at the apex of the deformity.

Question 6884

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 60-year-old patient with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a swollen, red, and warm right foot. Which of the following clinical findings most reliably differentiates acute Charcot arthropathy (Eichenholtz stage 0 or I) from an acute localized infection?

. The presence of a bounding dorsalis pedis pulse
. Resolution of erythema following 10 minutes of limb elevation
. Elevated serum white blood cell count
. Presence of profound peripheral neuropathy on monofilament testing
. Absence of periosteal reaction on initial radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resolution of erythema following 10 minutes of limb elevation


Explanation

Acute Charcot arthropathy presents with a red, hot, swollen foot that closely mimics infection. Erythema that completely resolves with limb elevation (dependent rubor) strongly points to acute Charcot, whereas erythema secondary to cellulitis or deep infection persists despite elevation.

Question 6885

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 38-year-old roofer falls from a height and sustains a displaced, intra-articular calcaneus fracture. The surgeon elects to perform an open reduction and internal fixation utilizing an extensile lateral approach. Which of the following neurovascular structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury at the proximal and distal extents of this specific surgical incision?

. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Medial plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

During an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus, the sural nerve is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury at both the proximal vertical limb and the distal horizontal limb. The vertical incision must be meticulously placed halfway between the Achilles tendon and the posterior fibula to avoid transecting it.

Question 6886

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 65-year-old male with a chronic Achilles tendon rupture and a 6 cm defect is scheduled for reconstruction utilizing a flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon transfer. During harvest of the FHL in the retromalleolar region, the surgeon must remain cognizant of the primary neurovascular bundle. What is the precise anatomical relationship of the posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve to the FHL tendon at this level?

. They lie directly medial to the FHL tendon
. They lie directly lateral to the FHL tendon
. They run anterior to the interosseous membrane relative to the FHL
. They cross superficial to the FHL tendon from lateral to medial
. They run intimately within the paratenon of the FHL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. They lie directly medial to the FHL tendon


Explanation

When harvesting the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon via a posterior approach for Achilles reconstruction, the surgeon must remember that the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery run directly medial to the FHL tendon in the retromalleolar space.

Question 6887

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 21-year-old collegiate basketball player sustains a fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. Intramedullary screw fixation is planned. Due to the inherent anatomy of the fifth metatarsal, what is the optimal starting point for the guidewire to avoid iatrogenic lateral cortical breach during drilling and screw insertion?

. Plantar and lateral on the fifth metatarsal tuberosity
. Dorsal and medial on the fifth metatarsal tuberosity
. Directly central on the apex of the styloid process
. Plantar and medial on the fifth metatarsal base
. Dorsal and lateral on the fifth metatarsal base

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal and medial on the fifth metatarsal tuberosity


Explanation

The fifth metatarsal exhibits a natural dorsal and lateral bow. To accommodate this curvature and prevent the straight screw from breaching the lateral cortex, the ideal starting point for intramedullary fixation is "high and inside", meaning dorsal and medial on the tuberosity.

Question 6888

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 58-year-old male with end-stage post-traumatic ankle osteoarthritis opts for a tibiotalar arthrodesis. Achieving the correct position of the fused joint is critical to minimize adjacent joint arthrosis and preserve an energy-efficient gait. What is the universally accepted optimal position for an ankle arthrodesis?

. 10 degrees of plantarflexion, neutral hindfoot, and 15 degrees of internal rotation
. 5 degrees of dorsiflexion, 10 degrees of hindfoot varus, and 5 degrees of external rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, neutral hindfoot, and 15 degrees of internal rotation
. 5 degrees of plantarflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation


Explanation

The optimal position for a tibiotalar arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion (0 degrees), 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation. This specific alignment maximizes compensatory motion at the transverse tarsal joints and allows for optimal foot progression during gait.

Question 6889

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation for a pronation-external rotation ankle fracture. Following fixation of the fibula, the Cotton test reveals syndesmotic widening, and the surgeon proceeds with placing a syndesmotic screw. To perfectly capture the center of the tibia and avoid malreduction, how should the drill trajectory be oriented relative to the fibula?

. Parallel to the coronal plane of the tibia
. Directed 20 to 30 degrees anteriorly from the posterolateral fibula into the tibia
. Directed 20 to 30 degrees posteriorly from the anterolateral fibula into the tibia
. Perpendicular to the sagittal plane of the foot
. Directed 45 degrees distally toward the tibial plafond

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Directed 20 to 30 degrees anteriorly from the posterolateral fibula into the tibia


Explanation

Because the lateral malleolus sits slightly posterior to the central axis of the tibia, syndesmotic screws must be directed 20 to 30 degrees anteriorly from the fibula to accurately engage the center of the tibia and prevent non-anatomic reduction of the syndesmosis.

Question 6890

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy sustains an ankle injury while playing soccer. Radiographs reveal a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. What is the primary deforming force and the ligament responsible for this specific fracture pattern?
. External rotation; Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Internal rotation; Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Inversion; Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
. Eversion; Deltoid ligament
. Plantarflexion; Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation; Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

A juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. It occurs due to an external rotation force on the foot. Because the distal tibial physis closes from central to anteromedial, and finally anterolateral, the anterolateral portion remains vulnerable in adolescents. The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) avulses this unfused anterolateral epiphysis.

Question 6891

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 13-year-old boy presents with recurrent ankle sprains and rigid flatfeet. Radiographs show an 'anteater nose' sign on the lateral view. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Talonavicular coalition
. Accessory navicular
. Congenital vertical talus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular coalition


Explanation

Correct Answer: Calcaneonavicular coalitionThe 'anteater nose' sign on a lateral radiograph of the foot is characteristic of a calcaneonavicular coalition. It represents an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus extending toward the navicular. In contrast, talocalcaneal coalitions often present with the 'C-sign' on lateral radiographs and are best visualized on a Harris axial view or CT scan.

Question 6892

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old boy presents with rigid flatfeet and recurrent ankle sprains. Examination reveals restricted subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity. Radiographs show a 'C sign' on the lateral view. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Talonavicular coalition
. Cubonavicular coalition
. Accessory navicular

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Talocalcaneal coalition


Explanation

Correct Answer: Talocalcaneal coalitionThe 'C sign' on a lateral foot radiograph is a classic radiographic finding indicative of a talocalcaneal coalition, specifically involving the middle facet. It is formed by the medial outline of the talar dome and the posteroinferior outline of the sustentaculum tali. Calcaneonavicular coalitions typically present earlier (ages 8-12) and are best visualized on a 45-degree internal oblique radiograph ('anteater sign').

Question 6893

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old boy presents with recurrent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. On examination, he has decreased subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity. A CT scan confirms a talocalcaneal coalition. Which facet of the subtalar joint is most commonly involved in this type of coalition?

. Anterior facet
. Middle facet
. Posterior facet
. Sinus tarsi
. Sustentaculum tali

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Middle facet


Explanation

Correct Answer: Middle facetTalocalcaneal coalitions most commonly involve the middle facet of the subtalar joint. They typically present in adolescence (ages 12-16) as the coalition ossifies, leading to a rigid flatfoot, peroneal spasticity, and pain.

Question 6894

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old girl twists her ankle and sustains a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Which of the following ligaments is responsible for avulsing the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis in this fracture pattern?
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

A juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia. It is caused by an external rotation force, resulting in the AITFL avulsing the epiphyseal fragment as the physis closes from central to anterolateral.

Question 6895

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and recurrent ankle sprains. CT imaging confirms a calcaneonavicular coalition. He has failed 6 weeks of short leg cast immobilization and NSAIDs. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis
. Resection of the coalition with extensor digitorum brevis interposition
. Lateral column lengthening
. Medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resection of the coalition with extensor digitorum brevis interposition


Explanation

Symptomatic calcaneonavicular coalitions that fail conservative management are primarily treated with resection of the coalition and interposition of a material (fat or extensor digitorum brevis) to prevent recurrence. Arthrodesis is reserved for cases with severe degenerative changes or failed resections.

Question 6896

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 13-year-old boy presents with a rigid, painful flatfoot and a history of recurrent ankle sprains. A lateral foot radiograph demonstrates an "anteater nose" sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Congenital vertical talus
. Accessory navicular syndrome
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Kohler disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular coalition


Explanation

The "anteater nose" sign on a lateral foot radiograph is pathognomonic for an anterior elongation of the calcaneus, indicating a calcaneonavicular coalition. Talocalcaneal coalitions are classically identified by the "C sign".

Question 6897

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

An infant presents with a rigid equinovarus foot deformity characterized by a deep transverse plantar crease, a shortened first metatarsal, and severe equinus. Initial attempts at standard Ponseti casting result in cast slippage and worsening of the deformity. What is the most appropriate modification in the management of this specific condition?

. Immediate extensive posteromedial soft tissue release
. Switching to the French functional physiotherapy method
. Modified Ponseti casting with knee hyperflexion to 110 degrees and early Achilles tenotomy
. Percutaneous Achilles tenotomy followed by a solid ankle-foot orthosis
. Primary talectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Modified Ponseti casting with knee hyperflexion to 110 degrees and early Achilles tenotomy


Explanation

This presentation is classic for atypical (complex) clubfoot. Management requires a modified Ponseti technique that limits hyperabduction, utilizes knee flexion to approximately 110 degrees to prevent cast slippage, and emphasizes early Achilles tenotomy.

Question 6898

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 50-year-old woman develops severe hyperalgesia, swelling, and localized erythema in her foot after a minor crush injury. What pathophysiological mechanism is primarily responsible for the initial warm, erythematous phase of this syndrome?

. Excessive efferent parasympathetic tone
. Neurogenic inflammation mediated by release of Substance P and CGRP
. Ischemic necrosis of small peripheral nerve fibers
. Central sensitization of wide dynamic range neurons
. Primary microvascular thrombosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neurogenic inflammation mediated by release of Substance P and CGRP


Explanation

In the early (warm) phase of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS), retrograde depolarization of C-fibers leads to the release of neuropeptides like Substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP). This causes marked neurogenic inflammation, vasodilation, and protein extravasation, leading to the characteristic warmth and edema.

Question 6899

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 50-year-old woman develops Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) following a minor crush injury to her foot. Radiographs demonstrate patchy periarticular osteopenia.

In the pathophysiology of CRPS, which neuropeptide released from C-fiber terminals is primarily responsible for mediating the localized neurogenic inflammation?

. Substance P
. Serotonin
. Dopamine
. Acetylcholine
. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Substance P


Explanation

CRPS involves exaggerated neurogenic inflammation driven by the release of neuropeptides, particularly Substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP), from the peripheral terminals of nociceptive C-fibers. This causes vasodilation and protein extravasation.

Question 6900

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The clinical photograph shows a classic claw toe deformity. Which of the following best describes the muscular imbalance responsible for the hyperextension at the metatarsophalangeal joint?

. Flexor digitorum longus overpowering the extensor digitorum brevis
. Extensor digitorum longus overpowering relatively weak intrinsic muscles
. Lumbricals overpowering the extensor digitorum longus
. Plantar plate attenuation with overpowering intrinsic muscles
. Extensor digitorum brevis overpowering the flexor digitorum longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor digitorum longus overpowering relatively weak intrinsic muscles


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe dynamic forces acting to maintain the position of the proximal phalanx at the head of the metatarsal are a balance between the extensor digitorum longus and the weaker intrinsic muscles. With hyperextension at the metatarsophalangeal joint, the intrinsic muscles become less efficient as plantar flexors. Consequently, the hyperextension deformity progresses in the metatarsophalangeal joint as the opposition of the intrinsic muscles to the extensor tendon lessens.