This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6881
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old professional football player presents with severe midfoot pain after his plantarflexed foot was axially loaded during a tackle. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a 2 mm diastasis between the bases of the first and second metatarsals. An injury to the primary stabilizing ligament of this region is suspected. What are the true anatomical origin and insertion of this specific ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral surface of the medial cuneiform to the plantar base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament originating from the lateral surface of the medial cuneiform and inserting onto the plantar-medial aspect of the second metatarsal base. It is the primary stabilizer of the second tarsometatarsal joint.
Question 6882
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old female presents with stage II adult-acquired flatfoot deformity. Her surgical plan includes a flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and a medializing calcaneal osteotomy (MCO). What is the primary biomechanical advantage provided by the MCO in this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Translates the insertion of the Achilles tendon medially to function as an invertor
Explanation
A medializing calcaneal osteotomy shifts the calcaneal tuberosity and the Achilles tendon insertion medially. This converts the Achilles tendon from a deforming evertor into an invertor, which corrects hindfoot valgus and protects the medial soft tissue reconstruction.
Question 6883
Topic: Forefoot
A 40-year-old female presents with a painful bunion. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle of 38 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle of 18 degrees. Clinical examination demonstrates significant hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint in the sagittal plane. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First tarsometatarsal (Lapidus) arthrodesis
Explanation
The Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is the procedure of choice for moderate-to-severe hallux valgus associated with first ray hypermobility. It successfully addresses the severe intermetatarsal angle while providing rigid stabilization at the apex of the deformity.
Question 6884
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 60-year-old patient with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a swollen, red, and warm right foot. Which of the following clinical findings most reliably differentiates acute Charcot arthropathy (Eichenholtz stage 0 or I) from an acute localized infection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resolution of erythema following 10 minutes of limb elevation
Explanation
Acute Charcot arthropathy presents with a red, hot, swollen foot that closely mimics infection. Erythema that completely resolves with limb elevation (dependent rubor) strongly points to acute Charcot, whereas erythema secondary to cellulitis or deep infection persists despite elevation.
Question 6885
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 38-year-old roofer falls from a height and sustains a displaced, intra-articular calcaneus fracture. The surgeon elects to perform an open reduction and internal fixation utilizing an extensile lateral approach. Which of the following neurovascular structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury at the proximal and distal extents of this specific surgical incision?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sural nerve
Explanation
During an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus, the sural nerve is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury at both the proximal vertical limb and the distal horizontal limb. The vertical incision must be meticulously placed halfway between the Achilles tendon and the posterior fibula to avoid transecting it.
Question 6886
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 65-year-old male with a chronic Achilles tendon rupture and a 6 cm defect is scheduled for reconstruction utilizing a flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon transfer. During harvest of the FHL in the retromalleolar region, the surgeon must remain cognizant of the primary neurovascular bundle. What is the precise anatomical relationship of the posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve to the FHL tendon at this level?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. They lie directly medial to the FHL tendon
Explanation
When harvesting the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon via a posterior approach for Achilles reconstruction, the surgeon must remember that the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery run directly medial to the FHL tendon in the retromalleolar space.
Question 6887
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 21-year-old collegiate basketball player sustains a fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. Intramedullary screw fixation is planned. Due to the inherent anatomy of the fifth metatarsal, what is the optimal starting point for the guidewire to avoid iatrogenic lateral cortical breach during drilling and screw insertion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal and medial on the fifth metatarsal tuberosity
Explanation
The fifth metatarsal exhibits a natural dorsal and lateral bow. To accommodate this curvature and prevent the straight screw from breaching the lateral cortex, the ideal starting point for intramedullary fixation is "high and inside", meaning dorsal and medial on the tuberosity.
Question 6888
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 58-year-old male with end-stage post-traumatic ankle osteoarthritis opts for a tibiotalar arthrodesis. Achieving the correct position of the fused joint is critical to minimize adjacent joint arthrosis and preserve an energy-efficient gait. What is the universally accepted optimal position for an ankle arthrodesis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation
Explanation
The optimal position for a tibiotalar arthrodesis is neutral dorsiflexion (0 degrees), 0 to 5 degrees of hindfoot valgus, and 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation. This specific alignment maximizes compensatory motion at the transverse tarsal joints and allows for optimal foot progression during gait.
Question 6889
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 30-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation for a pronation-external rotation ankle fracture. Following fixation of the fibula, the Cotton test reveals syndesmotic widening, and the surgeon proceeds with placing a syndesmotic screw. To perfectly capture the center of the tibia and avoid malreduction, how should the drill trajectory be oriented relative to the fibula?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Directed 20 to 30 degrees anteriorly from the posterolateral fibula into the tibia
Explanation
Because the lateral malleolus sits slightly posterior to the central axis of the tibia, syndesmotic screws must be directed 20 to 30 degrees anteriorly from the fibula to accurately engage the center of the tibia and prevent non-anatomic reduction of the syndesmosis.
Question 6890
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy sustains an ankle injury while playing soccer. Radiographs reveal a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. What is the primary deforming force and the ligament responsible for this specific fracture pattern?
A juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. It occurs due to an external rotation force on the foot. Because the distal tibial physis closes from central to anteromedial, and finally anterolateral, the anterolateral portion remains vulnerable in adolescents. The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) avulses this unfused anterolateral epiphysis.
Question 6891
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old boy presents with recurrent ankle sprains and rigid flatfeet. Radiographs show an 'anteater nose' sign on the lateral view. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
Explanation
Correct Answer: Calcaneonavicular coalitionThe 'anteater nose' sign on a lateral radiograph of the foot is characteristic of a calcaneonavicular coalition. It represents an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus extending toward the navicular. In contrast, talocalcaneal coalitions often present with the 'C-sign' on lateral radiographs and are best visualized on a Harris axial view or CT scan.
Question 6892
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy presents with rigid flatfeet and recurrent ankle sprains. Examination reveals restricted subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity. Radiographs show a 'C sign' on the lateral view. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talocalcaneal coalition
Explanation
Correct Answer: Talocalcaneal coalitionThe 'C sign' on a lateral foot radiograph is a classic radiographic finding indicative of a talocalcaneal coalition, specifically involving the middle facet. It is formed by the medial outline of the talar dome and the posteroinferior outline of the sustentaculum tali. Calcaneonavicular coalitions typically present earlier (ages 8-12) and are best visualized on a 45-degree internal oblique radiograph ('anteater sign').
Question 6893
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy presents with recurrent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. On examination, he has decreased subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity. A CT scan confirms a talocalcaneal coalition. Which facet of the subtalar joint is most commonly involved in this type of coalition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle facet
Explanation
Correct Answer: Middle facetTalocalcaneal coalitions most commonly involve the middle facet of the subtalar joint. They typically present in adolescence (ages 12-16) as the coalition ossifies, leading to a rigid flatfoot, peroneal spasticity, and pain.
Question 6894
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old girl twists her ankle and sustains a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Which of the following ligaments is responsible for avulsing the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis in this fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
A juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia. It is caused by an external rotation force, resulting in the AITFL avulsing the epiphyseal fragment as the physis closes from central to anterolateral.
Question 6895
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and recurrent ankle sprains. CT imaging confirms a calcaneonavicular coalition. He has failed 6 weeks of short leg cast immobilization and NSAIDs. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resection of the coalition with extensor digitorum brevis interposition
Explanation
Symptomatic calcaneonavicular coalitions that fail conservative management are primarily treated with resection of the coalition and interposition of a material (fat or extensor digitorum brevis) to prevent recurrence. Arthrodesis is reserved for cases with severe degenerative changes or failed resections.
Question 6896
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old boy presents with a rigid, painful flatfoot and a history of recurrent ankle sprains. A lateral foot radiograph demonstrates an "anteater nose" sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
Explanation
The "anteater nose" sign on a lateral foot radiograph is pathognomonic for an anterior elongation of the calcaneus, indicating a calcaneonavicular coalition. Talocalcaneal coalitions are classically identified by the "C sign".
Question 6897
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An infant presents with a rigid equinovarus foot deformity characterized by a deep transverse plantar crease, a shortened first metatarsal, and severe equinus. Initial attempts at standard Ponseti casting result in cast slippage and worsening of the deformity. What is the most appropriate modification in the management of this specific condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Modified Ponseti casting with knee hyperflexion to 110 degrees and early Achilles tenotomy
Explanation
This presentation is classic for atypical (complex) clubfoot. Management requires a modified Ponseti technique that limits hyperabduction, utilizes knee flexion to approximately 110 degrees to prevent cast slippage, and emphasizes early Achilles tenotomy.
Question 6898
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 50-year-old woman develops severe hyperalgesia, swelling, and localized erythema in her foot after a minor crush injury. What pathophysiological mechanism is primarily responsible for the initial warm, erythematous phase of this syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neurogenic inflammation mediated by release of Substance P and CGRP
Explanation
In the early (warm) phase of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS), retrograde depolarization of C-fibers leads to the release of neuropeptides like Substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP). This causes marked neurogenic inflammation, vasodilation, and protein extravasation, leading to the characteristic warmth and edema.
Question 6899
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 50-year-old woman develops Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) following a minor crush injury to her foot. Radiographs demonstrate patchy periarticular osteopenia.
In the pathophysiology of CRPS, which neuropeptide released from C-fiber terminals is primarily responsible for mediating the localized neurogenic inflammation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Substance P
Explanation
CRPS involves exaggerated neurogenic inflammation driven by the release of neuropeptides, particularly Substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP), from the peripheral terminals of nociceptive C-fibers. This causes vasodilation and protein extravasation.
Question 6900
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The clinical photograph shows a classic claw toe deformity. Which of the following best describes the muscular imbalance responsible for the hyperextension at the metatarsophalangeal joint?
Correct Answer: BThe dynamic forces acting to maintain the position of the proximal phalanx at the head of the metatarsal are a balance between the extensor digitorum longus and the weaker intrinsic muscles. With hyperextension at the metatarsophalangeal joint, the intrinsic muscles become less efficient as plantar flexors. Consequently, the hyperextension deformity progresses in the metatarsophalangeal joint as the opposition of the intrinsic muscles to the extensor tendon lessens.
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