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Question 5641

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 10-year-old boy with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy develops a new-onset "crouch gait" one year after undergoing multi-level orthopedic lower extremity surgery. What is the most likely iatrogenic cause of this gait abnormality?

. Over-lengthening of the Achilles tendon
. Under-lengthening of the medial hamstrings
. Bilateral psoas tenotomies
. Distal rectus femoris transfer
. Femoral derotation osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Over-lengthening of the Achilles tendon


Explanation

Iatrogenic crouch gait is frequently caused by over-lengthening of the Achilles tendon. This weakens the plantarflexor-knee extension couple during the stance phase, causing the tibia to translate forward and the knee to subsequently collapse into flexion.

Question 5642

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old boy presents with frequent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. Radiographs show a "C-sign" on the lateral ankle view. Which type of tarsal coalition is most likely, and at what age does it typically ossify and become symptomatic?

. Calcaneonavicular, 8-12 years
. Talocalcaneal, 12-16 years
. Calcaneonavicular, 12-16 years
. Talocalcaneal, 8-12 years
. Talonavicular, 3-5 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular, 8-12 years


Explanation

The radiographic "C-sign" is indicative of a talocalcaneal (subtalar) coalition, which typically involves the middle facet. These coalitions ossify and become rigid/symptomatic between 12-16 years of age. Calcaneonavicular coalitions usually present earlier (8-12 years) and demonstrate the "anteater" sign on oblique radiographs.

Question 5643

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old girl presents after an external rotation injury to her ankle. She is diagnosed with a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Which ligament is responsible for the avulsion of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis?
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

The juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. It occurs because the medial and central portions of the distal tibial physis close before the lateral portion. External rotation causes the AITFL to avulse the unfused anterolateral epiphysis.

Question 5644

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following is true regarding the most common tarsal coalitions?

. Talocalcaneal coalitions typically become symptomatic between 8 to 12 years of age.
. Calcaneonavicular coalitions are best visualized on a 45-degree internal rotation oblique radiograph.
. The 'C sign' on a lateral radiograph is pathognomonic for calcaneonavicular coalition.
. Talocalcaneal coalitions most commonly involve the anterior facet of the subtalar joint.
. Surgical excision of a calcaneonavicular coalition requires interposition of the tibialis anterior tendon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Talocalcaneal coalitions typically become symptomatic between 8 to 12 years of age.


Explanation

Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalitions are best visualized on an internal oblique radiograph of the foot. Talocalcaneal (TC) coalitions typically become symptomatic later (12-16 years) than CN coalitions (8-12 years). The 'C sign' is a radiographic indicator of a TC coalition, which most commonly involves the middle facet. Excision of a CN coalition typically utilizes the extensor digitorum brevis (EDB) for interposition, not the tibialis anterior.

Question 5645

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 13-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and a history of recurrent ankle sprains. Lateral weight-bearing radiographs reveal an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus forming an "anteater nose" sign.

Which specific tarsal coalition is most consistent with these radiographic findings?

. Talocalcaneal
. Talonavicular
. Calcaneocuboid
. Calcaneonavicular
. Cubonavicular

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Talocalcaneal


Explanation

The "anteater nose" sign on a lateral radiograph is highly characteristic of a calcaneonavicular coalition. It represents the elongated anterior process of the calcaneus extending towards the navicular.

Question 5646

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 13-year-old boy complains of recurrent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. Clinical examination reveals peroneal spasticity. An oblique radiograph of the foot reveals an 'anteater nose' sign. Which condition is most likely present?

. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Accessory navicular
. Vertical talus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Talocalcaneal coalition


Explanation

The 'anteater nose' sign on an oblique radiograph of the foot represents an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus, characteristic of a calcaneonavicular coalition. Talocalcaneal coalitions are typically identified by a 'C-sign' on a lateral radiograph.

Question 5647

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 13-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and frequent ankle sprains. Radiographs show a "C-sign" on the lateral view. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic imaging to confirm the exact location and extent of the suspected pathology?

. Ultrasound of the ankle
. CT scan of the foot and ankle
. MRI of the foot and ankle
. Bone scan
. Weight-bearing AP radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ultrasound of the ankle


Explanation

The clinical presentation and radiographic "C-sign" are indicative of a talocalcaneal tarsal coalition. A CT scan is the gold standard imaging modality for identifying the coalition, determining its extent, and planning surgical resection.

Question 5648

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a plantar approach to the midfoot for an excision of a plantar fibroma, the surgeon identifies the 'Master Knot of Henry'. Which of the following anatomic relationships correctly defines this surgical landmark?

. The flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon crosses plantar (superficial) to the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon.
. The FHL tendon crosses plantar (superficial) to the FDL tendon.
. The tibialis posterior tendon crosses dorsal to the FDL tendon.
. The medial plantar nerve crosses dorsal to the lateral plantar nerve.
. The flexor digitorum brevis crosses superficial to the plantar aponeurosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon crosses plantar (superficial) to the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon.


Explanation

At the Master Knot of Henry, which is located in the plantar midfoot just posterior to the base of the first metatarsal, the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon crosses plantar (superficial) to the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon.

Question 5649

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

In evaluating a high ankle sprain, a surgeon assesses the tibiofibular syndesmosis. Which ligament is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the distal fibula relative to the tibia?

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Interosseous ligament
. Transverse tibiofibular ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)


Explanation

The syndesmosis complex consists of the AITFL, PITFL, interosseous ligament, and the transverse tibiofibular ligament. The AITFL provides the primary restraint to anterior translation of the fibula and is the most common ligament injured in syndesmotic sprains.

Question 5650

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 24-year-old football player sustains a hyper-plantarflexion injury to his midfoot. Radiographs show widening of the space between the first and second metatarsals. The Lisfranc ligament is injured. Between which two osseous structures does the primary Lisfranc ligament span?

. Medial aspect of the medial cuneiform and base of the first metatarsal
. Lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform and medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal
. Medial aspect of the middle cuneiform and lateral aspect of the base of the second metatarsal
. Lateral aspect of the lateral cuneiform and base of the third metatarsal
. Cuboid and base of the fourth metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial aspect of the medial cuneiform and base of the first metatarsal


Explanation

The classic Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that spans from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. There is no direct intermetatarsal ligament between the first and second metatarsals, making the Lisfranc ligament essential for midfoot stability.

Question 5651

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon is performing a posteromedial exposure of the ankle for a medial malleolus fracture with significant comminution extending posteriorly. From anterior to posterior (starting immediately posterior to the medial malleolus), what is the correct anatomical order of the structures within the tarsal tunnel?

. Tibialis posterior, Flexor hallucis longus, Posterior tibial artery, Tibial nerve, Flexor digitorum longus
. Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum longus, Posterior tibial artery, Tibial nerve, Flexor hallucis longus
. Flexor digitorum longus, Tibialis posterior, Posterior tibial artery, Tibial nerve, Flexor hallucis longus
. Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum longus, Tibial nerve, Posterior tibial artery, Flexor hallucis longus
. Flexor hallucis longus, Tibial nerve, Posterior tibial artery, Flexor digitorum longus, Tibialis posterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis posterior, Flexor hallucis longus, Posterior tibial artery, Tibial nerve, Flexor digitorum longus


Explanation

The correct order of structures behind the medial malleolus from anterior to posterior is: Tibialis posterior tendon, Flexor digitorum longus tendon, Posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, Tibial Nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus tendon. This is classically remembered by the mnemonic 'Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry'.

Question 5652

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis relies on several ligaments for stability. Which of the following ligaments provides the greatest resistance to diastasis (accounts for the greatest percentage of syndesmotic strength)?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Interosseous ligament
. Transverse tibiofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

The Posterior Inferior Tibiofibular Ligament (PITFL) provides the greatest strength and resistance to diastasis, contributing approximately 42% of syndesmotic strength. This is followed by the AITFL (35%) and the interosseous ligament (22%).

Question 5653

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a minimally invasive repair of an Achilles tendon rupture, care must be taken to avoid the sural nerve. At what approximate level does the sural nerve typically cross the lateral border of the Achilles tendon?

. 2 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. 5 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. 10 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. 15 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. 20 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion


Explanation

The sural nerve courses distally in the posterior leg and typically crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 10 cm proximal to its calcaneal insertion. Sutures passed blindly laterally above this level place the nerve at significant risk.

Question 5654

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient with persistent medial midfoot pain is diagnosed with intersection syndrome of the foot (Master Knot of Henry). This anatomical site is critical for understanding tendon transfers in the midfoot. Which best describes the anatomic relationship at the Master Knot of Henry?

. The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL).
. The flexor digitorum longus (FDL) crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor hallucis longus (FHL).
. The tibialis posterior tendon crosses plantar (superficial) to the FDL.
. The peroneus longus tendon crosses dorsal (deep) to the FHL.
. The anterior tibial artery bifurcates into the dorsalis pedis artery.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL).


Explanation

At the Master Knot of Henry in the medial midfoot, the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon. They are often tethered together here by a tendinous slip.

Question 5655

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon is repairing a ruptured Achilles tendon using a percutaneous technique. The sural nerve is at risk of being ensnared by the passing sutures. In relation to the lateral border of the Achilles tendon, at what approximate distance proximal to the calcaneal insertion does the sural nerve typically cross from lateral to medial?

. 1 to 3 cm
. 4 to 6 cm
. 9 to 12 cm
. 15 to 18 cm
. It never crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 to 3 cm


Explanation

The sural nerve typically crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 9 to 12 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus. Sutures placed proximal to this level laterally put the nerve at significant risk.

Question 5656

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon is exposing the distal fibula for an ankle fracture utilizing a lateral approach. To avoid injuring the superficial peroneal nerve as it transitions from the deep to the superficial compartment, the surgeon should be aware of its typical exit point. Where does the superficial peroneal nerve typically pierce the crural fascia in relation to the lateral malleolus?

. 2 to 4 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.
. 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.
. 18 to 20 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.
. Directly anterior to the syndesmosis at the joint line.
. It does not pierce the deep fascia but travels entirely within the anterior compartment.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 4 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.


Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the crural fascia to become subcutaneous approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus. It emerges between the peroneus brevis and extensor digitorum longus.

Question 5657

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During surgical fixation of a talar neck fracture, preservation of the blood supply is paramount to prevent avascular necrosis. Which artery provides the predominant vascular supply to the body of the talus?

. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Artery of the sinus tarsi
. Deltoid artery
. Fibular artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsalis pedis artery


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, supplies the majority of the talar body. It enters the talus inferiorly and courses in a retrograde fashion.

Question 5658

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old male sustains an acute, complete rupture of the Achilles tendon.

He opts for non-operative management utilizing a functional rehabilitation protocol. Compared to surgical repair, which of the following is true regarding his clinical outcomes according to recent level-1 evidence?

. The re-rupture rate is significantly higher (>15%) in the non-operative group
. The risk of wound complications is equivalent between the two groups
. Non-operative management with functional rehab has a similar re-rupture rate to surgical repair, with fewer wound complications
. Surgical repair results in significantly greater plantar flexion strength at 2 years
. Return to sport is significantly faster with non-operative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The re-rupture rate is significantly higher (>15%) in the non-operative group


Explanation

High-quality RCTs (e.g., Willits et al.) demonstrate that when a functional rehabilitation protocol (early weight-bearing and mobilization) is utilized, the re-rupture rate for non-operative management is statistically similar to surgical repair, while entirely avoiding surgical wound complications and infections.

Question 5659

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During the surgical evaluation of an acute ankle injury, the 'Cotton test' is performed to assess the integrity of the syndesmosis. Which specific anatomic structure is considered the primary restraint to anterior subluxation of the distal fibula and is typically the first to tear in an external rotation syndesmotic injury?

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Interosseous membrane (IOM)
. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)


Explanation

Syndesmotic ankle sprains usually occur via external rotation forces. The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is typically the first ligament to tear, followed by the interosseous membrane/ligament, and finally the PITFL. The AITFL is the primary restraint to anterior translation and external rotation of the fibula.

Question 5660

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old professional football player suffers an acute ankle injury after his foot is planted and externally rotated while a defender falls on his leg. Physical examination reveals a positive squeeze test and tenderness extending 6 cm proximal to the ankle joint over the anterior tibiofibular ligament. What is the most reliable intraoperative dynamic test to confirm syndesmotic instability?
. Anterior drawer test with the foot in 20 degrees of plantarflexion
. Cotton test (lateral translation force applied to the heel) under fluoroscopy
. Varus stress test of the tibiotalar joint
. Silfverskiรถld test
. Talar tilt test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cotton test (lateral translation force applied to the heel) under fluoroscopy


Explanation

The patient has a syndesmotic 'high ankle' sprain. The Cotton test is performed by grasping the heel and applying a lateral translational force while observing the ankle mortise under fluoroscopy. Widening of the medial clear space (>4-5 mm) or tibiofibular clear space confirms syndesmotic instability requiring operative stabilization. An external rotation stress test under fluoroscopy is also highly reliable.