This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 5641
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 10-year-old boy with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy develops a new-onset "crouch gait" one year after undergoing multi-level orthopedic lower extremity surgery. What is the most likely iatrogenic cause of this gait abnormality?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Over-lengthening of the Achilles tendon
Explanation
Iatrogenic crouch gait is frequently caused by over-lengthening of the Achilles tendon. This weakens the plantarflexor-knee extension couple during the stance phase, causing the tibia to translate forward and the knee to subsequently collapse into flexion.
Question 5642
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy presents with frequent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. Radiographs show a "C-sign" on the lateral ankle view. Which type of tarsal coalition is most likely, and at what age does it typically ossify and become symptomatic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular, 8-12 years
Explanation
The radiographic "C-sign" is indicative of a talocalcaneal (subtalar) coalition, which typically involves the middle facet. These coalitions ossify and become rigid/symptomatic between 12-16 years of age. Calcaneonavicular coalitions usually present earlier (8-12 years) and demonstrate the "anteater" sign on oblique radiographs.
Question 5643
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old girl presents after an external rotation injury to her ankle. She is diagnosed with a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Which ligament is responsible for the avulsion of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
The juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. It occurs because the medial and central portions of the distal tibial physis close before the lateral portion. External rotation causes the AITFL to avulse the unfused anterolateral epiphysis.
Question 5644
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following is true regarding the most common tarsal coalitions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talocalcaneal coalitions typically become symptomatic between 8 to 12 years of age.
Explanation
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalitions are best visualized on an internal oblique radiograph of the foot. Talocalcaneal (TC) coalitions typically become symptomatic later (12-16 years) than CN coalitions (8-12 years). The 'C sign' is a radiographic indicator of a TC coalition, which most commonly involves the middle facet. Excision of a CN coalition typically utilizes the extensor digitorum brevis (EDB) for interposition, not the tibialis anterior.
Question 5645
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and a history of recurrent ankle sprains. Lateral weight-bearing radiographs reveal an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus forming an "anteater nose" sign.
Which specific tarsal coalition is most consistent with these radiographic findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talocalcaneal
Explanation
The "anteater nose" sign on a lateral radiograph is highly characteristic of a calcaneonavicular coalition. It represents the elongated anterior process of the calcaneus extending towards the navicular.
Question 5646
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old boy complains of recurrent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. Clinical examination reveals peroneal spasticity. An oblique radiograph of the foot reveals an 'anteater nose' sign. Which condition is most likely present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talocalcaneal coalition
Explanation
The 'anteater nose' sign on an oblique radiograph of the foot represents an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus, characteristic of a calcaneonavicular coalition. Talocalcaneal coalitions are typically identified by a 'C-sign' on a lateral radiograph.
Question 5647
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and frequent ankle sprains. Radiographs show a "C-sign" on the lateral view. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic imaging to confirm the exact location and extent of the suspected pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ultrasound of the ankle
Explanation
The clinical presentation and radiographic "C-sign" are indicative of a talocalcaneal tarsal coalition. A CT scan is the gold standard imaging modality for identifying the coalition, determining its extent, and planning surgical resection.
Question 5648
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During a plantar approach to the midfoot for an excision of a plantar fibroma, the surgeon identifies the 'Master Knot of Henry'. Which of the following anatomic relationships correctly defines this surgical landmark?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon crosses plantar (superficial) to the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon.
Explanation
At the Master Knot of Henry, which is located in the plantar midfoot just posterior to the base of the first metatarsal, the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon crosses plantar (superficial) to the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon.
Question 5649
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
In evaluating a high ankle sprain, a surgeon assesses the tibiofibular syndesmosis. Which ligament is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the distal fibula relative to the tibia?
The syndesmosis complex consists of the AITFL, PITFL, interosseous ligament, and the transverse tibiofibular ligament. The AITFL provides the primary restraint to anterior translation of the fibula and is the most common ligament injured in syndesmotic sprains.
Question 5650
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old football player sustains a hyper-plantarflexion injury to his midfoot. Radiographs show widening of the space between the first and second metatarsals. The Lisfranc ligament is injured. Between which two osseous structures does the primary Lisfranc ligament span?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial aspect of the medial cuneiform and base of the first metatarsal
Explanation
The classic Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that spans from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. There is no direct intermetatarsal ligament between the first and second metatarsals, making the Lisfranc ligament essential for midfoot stability.
Question 5651
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A surgeon is performing a posteromedial exposure of the ankle for a medial malleolus fracture with significant comminution extending posteriorly. From anterior to posterior (starting immediately posterior to the medial malleolus), what is the correct anatomical order of the structures within the tarsal tunnel?
The correct order of structures behind the medial malleolus from anterior to posterior is: Tibialis posterior tendon, Flexor digitorum longus tendon, Posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, Tibial Nerve, and Flexor hallucis longus tendon. This is classically remembered by the mnemonic 'Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry'.
Question 5652
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis relies on several ligaments for stability. Which of the following ligaments provides the greatest resistance to diastasis (accounts for the greatest percentage of syndesmotic strength)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
The Posterior Inferior Tibiofibular Ligament (PITFL) provides the greatest strength and resistance to diastasis, contributing approximately 42% of syndesmotic strength. This is followed by the AITFL (35%) and the interosseous ligament (22%).
Question 5653
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During a minimally invasive repair of an Achilles tendon rupture, care must be taken to avoid the sural nerve. At what approximate level does the sural nerve typically cross the lateral border of the Achilles tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
Explanation
The sural nerve courses distally in the posterior leg and typically crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 10 cm proximal to its calcaneal insertion. Sutures passed blindly laterally above this level place the nerve at significant risk.
Question 5654
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient with persistent medial midfoot pain is diagnosed with intersection syndrome of the foot (Master Knot of Henry). This anatomical site is critical for understanding tendon transfers in the midfoot. Which best describes the anatomic relationship at the Master Knot of Henry?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL).
Explanation
At the Master Knot of Henry in the medial midfoot, the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon. They are often tethered together here by a tendinous slip.
Question 5655
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A surgeon is repairing a ruptured Achilles tendon using a percutaneous technique. The sural nerve is at risk of being ensnared by the passing sutures. In relation to the lateral border of the Achilles tendon, at what approximate distance proximal to the calcaneal insertion does the sural nerve typically cross from lateral to medial?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 to 3 cm
Explanation
The sural nerve typically crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 9 to 12 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus. Sutures placed proximal to this level laterally put the nerve at significant risk.
Question 5656
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A surgeon is exposing the distal fibula for an ankle fracture utilizing a lateral approach. To avoid injuring the superficial peroneal nerve as it transitions from the deep to the superficial compartment, the surgeon should be aware of its typical exit point. Where does the superficial peroneal nerve typically pierce the crural fascia in relation to the lateral malleolus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 to 4 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.
Explanation
The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the crural fascia to become subcutaneous approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus. It emerges between the peroneus brevis and extensor digitorum longus.
Question 5657
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During surgical fixation of a talar neck fracture, preservation of the blood supply is paramount to prevent avascular necrosis. Which artery provides the predominant vascular supply to the body of the talus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation
The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, supplies the majority of the talar body. It enters the talus inferiorly and courses in a retrograde fashion.
Question 5658
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old male sustains an acute, complete rupture of the Achilles tendon.
He opts for non-operative management utilizing a functional rehabilitation protocol. Compared to surgical repair, which of the following is true regarding his clinical outcomes according to recent level-1 evidence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The re-rupture rate is significantly higher (>15%) in the non-operative group
Explanation
High-quality RCTs (e.g., Willits et al.) demonstrate that when a functional rehabilitation protocol (early weight-bearing and mobilization) is utilized, the re-rupture rate for non-operative management is statistically similar to surgical repair, while entirely avoiding surgical wound complications and infections.
Question 5659
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During the surgical evaluation of an acute ankle injury, the 'Cotton test' is performed to assess the integrity of the syndesmosis. Which specific anatomic structure is considered the primary restraint to anterior subluxation of the distal fibula and is typically the first to tear in an external rotation syndesmotic injury?
Syndesmotic ankle sprains usually occur via external rotation forces. The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is typically the first ligament to tear, followed by the interosseous membrane/ligament, and finally the PITFL. The AITFL is the primary restraint to anterior translation and external rotation of the fibula.
Question 5660
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old professional football player suffers an acute ankle injury after his foot is planted and externally rotated while a defender falls on his leg. Physical examination reveals a positive squeeze test and tenderness extending 6 cm proximal to the ankle joint over the anterior tibiofibular ligament. What is the most reliable intraoperative dynamic test to confirm syndesmotic instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cotton test (lateral translation force applied to the heel) under fluoroscopy
Explanation
The patient has a syndesmotic 'high ankle' sprain. The Cotton test is performed by grasping the heel and applying a lateral translational force while observing the ankle mortise under fluoroscopy. Widening of the medial clear space (>4-5 mm) or tibiofibular clear space confirms syndesmotic instability requiring operative stabilization. An external rotation stress test under fluoroscopy is also highly reliable.
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