This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 421
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 17-year-old patient presents with pain in the second toe. Pain becomes worse with exercise and has been present for 6 months. On examination, swelling is present around the metatarsophalangeal joint, and pain is present over the joint and upon squeezing the forefoot. Radiographic evaluation demonstrates a lucency in the second metatarsal head. The most likely cause of this condition is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head
Explanation
This patient has the typical features of Freibergs osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head. There is swelling present, which is not noted in association with a neuroma, even though the clinical findings may be similar. Synovitis is common but not associated with radiographic changes.
Question 422
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 11-year-old girl presents with chronic foot pain. Her mother notes that her daughter has had flatfeet since birth, but the condition is worsening. The patient has aching in her foot, the arch of her foot, and her leg with walking and activities. She has been treated for 3 years with various orthotic arch supports. The foot is mobile and flexible on examination. Radiographs (Slide 1 and Slide 2) and a photograph (Slide 3) of her foot are presented. Which of the following surgical treatment alternatives is unacceptable in this patient:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excision of a middle facet tarsal coalition
Explanation
This patient has a flexible flatfoot deformity associated with a painful accessory navicular. No clinical or radiographic findings of a tarsal coalition are present. In addition to excision of the accessory navicular and advancement of the posterior tibial tendon, either a subtalar arthroerisis or an osteotomy of the calcaneus may be necessary.C orrect Answer: Excision of a middle facet tarsal coalition
Question 423
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old girl was successfully treated for a flexible flatfoot deformity on the left foot. A clinical photograph (Slide 1) of her foot and a lateral radiograph (Slide 2) are presented. What is the purpose of the implant noted under the talus in the radiograph:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To restrict eversion of the subtalar joint
Explanation
The subtalar arthroerisis, as demonstrated in the radiograph, is used to control eversion of the subtalar joint during the foot flat phase of gait. A subtalar arthroerisis limits excessive eversion but does not restrict subtalarmotion further. This procedure is indicated for a patient who has a flexible flatfoot deformity and can be used either as the sole or an adjunctive procedure for correction.
Question 424
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The patient presented (Slide 1 and Slide 2) has a hereditary sensory motor neuropathy. Based upon the photographs, a surgeon should be able to determine the pattern of muscle weakness. Weakness in which muscle is most likely the cause of this deformity:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneus brevis
Explanation
Although the anterior tibial muscle is weak, the cavus is the predominant deformity of this condition, caused by weakness of the peroneus brevis. The peroneus longus is functioning and is responsible for the plantarflexion of the first metatarsal.
Question 425
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
You are planning a tendon transfer to help correct deformity in a patient with hereditary sensory motor neuropathy. Which of the following muscles will be used for the transfer based upon the clinical appearance of the foot (Slide 1 and Slide 2):
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior tibial
Explanation
The posterior tibial tendon transfer is a commonly performed surgery for correction of cavus foot deformity associated with weakness of the anterior tibial muscle and varying degrees of drop foot deformity. The removal of the force of the posterior tibial tendon adds to the correction of the deformity of the foot by balancing the absent peroneus brevis. Although the extensor hallucis longus can be used as a tendon transfer, it will not be the primary muscle used or sufficient to correct deformity.
Question 426
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which combination of muscle weakness is typically associated with hereditary sensory motor neuropathy:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior tibial, peroneus brevis
Explanation
The peroneus brevis is usually the first muscle to atrophy. Varying patterns of loss of the other muscles of the lower extremity include the anterior tibial and, in particular, the intrinsic foot muscles. Weakness in these muscles accounts for the cavus and the claw foot deformities noted in patients with hereditary sensory motor neuropathy.
Question 427
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 42-year-old man with diabetes presents for treatment of a swollen foot (Slide). He does not recall the onset of swelling, and he states that his foot is not painful. On examination, the foot is hot to touch and swollen. Upon radiographic examination, no deformities are evident. Which of the following treatment options should be used next:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Short leg cast
Explanation
This patient presents with an acute neuroarthropathy. The acute painless swelling, associated with warmth and absence of radiographic findings, is typical of the acute phase of a Charcot process. A short leg cast or a boot to immobilize the foot is ideal, and no weight bearing should be permitted until the acute phase of this neuroarthropathy has subsided.
Question 428
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 29-year-old woman presents for treatment of a swollen foot. Although her foot is not painful, it has been swollen for 2 weeks. The patient walks into the office without any assistive device. On examination, the foot is swollen and warm. The patient does not have protective sensation in the foot, and she denies a history of diabetes and does not have a clinically relevant medical history. A radiograph of her foot is presented (Slide). Which of the following tests will be most helpful in determining the etiology of her condition:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hemoglobin A1
Explanation
This patient most likely has diabetes. Patients may present for the first time with an acute neuroarthropathy of the foot as a result of diabetes, even without a clinical history of the disease. Although the sedimentation rate will likely be elevated, it will not help in the diagnosis. Infection is not a likely consideration in this patient.
Question 429
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient with diabetes and severe peripheral neuropathy has been treated for a C harcot ankle deformity for 9 months (Slide 1, Slide 2, and Slide 3). An ankle foot orthosis has been used for 4 months. No skin breakdown occurred in the brace. Swelling is present but has decreased over the past month. Ankle range of motion is limited, and crepitus is present upon examination of the ankle. Which surgical procedure is most consistent with the future treatment of this patient:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C ontinued use of an orthosis
Explanation
The indication for surgery is intractable deformity, which is refractory to all forms of bracing. By refractory, one implies that skin breakdown or imminent infection is present. If surgery were performed, then it would consist of a tibiotalocalcaneal arthrodesis. There are no indications for this surgery in this patient. Once the neuropathic process has reached a stable point, a deformity is not likely to progress.
Question 430
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 83-year-old woman presents for treatment of a painful second toe deformity. The hallux, the bunion, and the third toe are not painful. A fixed crossover toe deformity is present (Slide), with a dislocation of the second metatarsophalangeal joint noted radiographically. Which procedure is likely to give the patient rapid pain relief:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Amputation of the second toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint
Explanation
In this age group, amputation of the second toe is a reasonable treatment. It is not possible to correct the second toe deformity without correction of the hallux, either by arthrodesis or arthroplasty at the metatarsophalangeal joint. The hallux is asymptomatic, which is common in this age group, and the simplest treatment is to amputate the toe.C orrect Answer: Amputation of the second toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint
Question 431
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 60-year-old man experiences pain under the lesser metatarsal heads. Prominence of the metatarsal heads under the second, third, and fourth metatarsal is noted, as well as associated fixed claw toe deformities (Slide). The etiology of the foot pain is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the foot
Explanation
The cause of claw toe deformity is not idiopathic. C law toe deformity is a common deformity in adults, particularly in women as a result of lack of use of the intrinsic muscles of the foot, leading to an imbalance between the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles in the foot. As the intrinsic muscle atrophies, the long extensor and flexor tendons cause the deformity (as presented in this patient), with resulting metatarsalgia.
Question 432
Topic: Forefoot
A patient presents with a claw toe deformity (Slide). What is the strongest flexor of the metatarsophalangeal joint, which in this patient is not functioning adequately:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Interosseous
Explanation
Although the long and short flexor tendons have some effect albeit indirect on the flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint, the flexor that acts directly on the joint is the interosseous muscle. Intrinsic atrophy will lead to claw toe deformity.
Question 433
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 54-year-old woman presents for treatment of an ulcer (Slide). She has diabetes, no protective sensation, and slight deformity of the foot. There is no inflammation of the foot and no purulent drainage. Slight serous oozing is present daily. Initial evaluation and treatment should consist of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ambulation in a stiff-soled surgical shoe with a protective dressing
Explanation
Ambulatory treatment for a patient with diabetes is always the preferable treatment. In this patient, there is no evidence of infection. Unless drainage is purulent and the ulcer is in contact with bone, there should be minimal concern for infection. Reconstruction of a Charcot deformity of the midfoot is only indicated following repeated failure of nonoperative treatments.
Question 434
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 63-year-old patient underwent a triple arthrodesis for correction of flatfoot deformity. He presents with continued ankle pain, as well as a hindfoot valgus deformity. The ankle deformity is flexible, and the joint can be reduced. All of the following are reasonable surgical alternatives as a single or staged procedure with the exception of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deltoid ligament repair
Explanation
Repair of a chronically torn deltoid ligament is not sufficient to correct this type of deformity. The ligament has degenerated, and the quality of the ligament is insufficient. Each of the other alternatives is reasonable either performed as the sole or adjunctive procedure.C orrect Answer: Deltoid ligament repair
Question 435
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 34-year-old patient presents for treatment of painful ankle arthritis. Deformity of the ankle is present with posttraumatic arthritis and 20° of varus deformity as a result of erosion of the distal tibial plafond. There is minimal motion of the subtalar joint, and the forefoot is plantigrade. You plan an ankle arthrodesis. In addition to the position of the ankle arthrodesis, what additional procedure should you consider:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First metatarsal dorsal wedge osteotomy
Explanation
This patient has a fixed deformity of the ankle, as well as the hindfoot. The subtalar joint has adapted to the varus position of the ankle but is stiff. Following the ankle arthrodesis, which has to be performed by bringing the ankle into a few degrees of varus, the forefoot will not be able to compensate for the fixed changes that have taken place in the hindfoot. To keep the forefoot plantigrade, a dorsal wedge osteotomy of the first metatarsal should be performed to keep the foot plantigrade.
Question 436
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 26-year-old woman presents for treatment of ankle arthritis following trauma. She is an active individual despite her arthritis. On examination, her foot is fixed in equinus, no ankle motion is present, and the motion in the subtalar joint is normal. Ankle arthritis is noted radiographically. In a preoperative discussion, she states the desire to have as mobile a foot as possible, wear high heel shoes, and participate in realistic exercise activities. You perform an ankle arthrodesis. What is the ideal position for the arthrodesis:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5° of valgus, and neutral rotation
Explanation
Regardless of patient activities, desire for shoe wear, and age, the ankle must be fused in a standard position of neutral dorsiflexion and slight valgus. This is important because any deviation of this position, particularly in equinus, will increase th likelihood of arthritis in the talonavicular and subtalar joint.
Question 437
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 22-year-old man has experienced pain in his foot and ankle for 10 years. His radiographs are presented (Slide 1 and Slide 2). The foot is flexible, and pain is present in the sinus tarsi and along the medial border of the foot. With the subtalar joint held in a reduced neutral position, the forefoot is in 15° of supination. You attempt orthotic arch supports and when these do not alleviate his pain, a brace is suggested. He refuses to wear a brace. You plan an osteotomy of the calcaneus with lengthening bone graft at the neck of the calcaneus (lateral column lengthening). The most common complication following this procedure is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Elevation of the first metatarsal
Explanation
This patient demonstrates the common finding of fixed forefoot varus associated with a flexible flatfoot deformity. It is likely that a gastrocnemius contracture is also present, but this is not always the case. Arthritis of the calcaneocuboid joint rarely occurs following a lengthening calcaneal osteotomy in an adult. C orrection of the forefoot varus is best accomplished with an opening wedge osteotomy of the medial cuneiform. Arthrodesis of the first tarsometatarsal joint may be performed in selected patients with noted instability at this joint.C orrect Answer: Elevation of the first metatarsal
Question 438
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 44-year-old obese man presents for treatment of acute ankle pain. He does not have a history of trauma or a systemic history of note. His opposite foot has had multiple episodes of acute pain in the past, lasting from 3 to 5 days. On examination, the ankle is warm, swollen, and exquisitely tender to palpation and any range of motion (Slide1, Slide 2, and Slide 3). Concerned about the source of pain, you aspirate the joint and send the sample for analysis. You expect to find:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sodium monourate crystals
Explanation
This patient most likely has an acute attack of gout. The prior episodes of foot pain and the sudden onset lasting 5 days for each bout is characteristic. The ankle is not a common location for gout (the most frequent site is the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint). The treatment should consist of injection of a corticosteroid into the joint and administration of appropriate oral anti-inflammatory medication.
Question 439
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
This patient presents for treatment of a painful hallux varus deformity following correction of hallux valgus deformity (Slide). All of the following procedures may be acceptable surgical alternatives for correction of deformity with the exception of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First metatarsal osteotomy
Explanation
The extensor hallucis longus or the extensor hallucis brevis (rarely the abductor hallucis) may be used as a tendon transfer for correction. Arthrodesis of the hallux interphalangeal joint may be performed forcorrection of a fixed claw deformity of the interphalangeal joint, usually in conjunction with a tendon transfer. Arthrodesis of the metatarsophalangeal joint is a reasonable alternative provided there is no fixed deformity of the interphalangeal joint present and when arthritis or fixed deformity of the metatarsophalangeal joint is present.C orrect Answer: First metatarsal osteotomy
Question 440
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following is true concerning Achilles tendon ruptures:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A common mechanism of injury is sudden forced foot plantarflexion
Explanation
Important points to remember about Achilles tendon ruptures: A. Most common in middle-aged men B. Often intermittent sports activity C . Left more than right D. Often the tendon is abnormal (degenerative) E. Mechanism 1. Sudden forced plantarflexion 2. Unexpected dorsiflexion 3. Violent dorsiflexion of the plantar flexed foot Factors which may make the patient more prone to rupture: A. Steroids B. Fluoroquinolones
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