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Question 421

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 17-year-old patient presents with pain in the second toe. Pain becomes worse with exercise and has been present for 6 months. On examination, swelling is present around the metatarsophalangeal joint, and pain is present over the joint and upon squeezing the forefoot. Radiographic evaluation demonstrates a lucency in the second metatarsal head. The most likely cause of this condition is:

. Second web space neuroma
. Idiopathic synovitis of the second metatarsophalangeal joint
. Stress fracture of the second metatarsal
. Pigmented villonodular synovitis of the second metatarsophalangeal joint
. Osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head


Explanation

This patient has the typical features of Freibergs osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head. There is swelling present, which is not noted in association with a neuroma, even though the clinical findings may be similar. Synovitis is common but not associated with radiographic changes.

Question 422

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

An 11-year-old girl presents with chronic foot pain. Her mother notes that her daughter has had flatfeet since birth, but the condition is worsening. The patient has aching in her foot, the arch of her foot, and her leg with walking and activities. She has been treated for 3 years with various orthotic arch supports. The foot is mobile and flexible on examination. Radiographs (Slide 1 and Slide 2) and a photograph (Slide 3) of her foot are presented. Which of the following surgical treatment alternatives is unacceptable in this patient:

. Excision of an accessory navicular
. Subtalar arthroerisis
. Excision of a middle facet tarsal coalition
. Medial calcaneus osteotomy
. Lateral column lengthening osteotomy of the calcaneus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of a middle facet tarsal coalition


Explanation

This patient has a flexible flatfoot deformity associated with a painful accessory navicular. No clinical or radiographic findings of a tarsal coalition are present. In addition to excision of the accessory navicular and advancement of the posterior tibial tendon, either a subtalar arthroerisis or an osteotomy of the calcaneus may be necessary.C orrect Answer: Excision of a middle facet tarsal coalition

Question 423

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 12-year-old girl was successfully treated for a flexible flatfoot deformity on the left foot. A clinical photograph (Slide 1) of her foot and a lateral radiograph (Slide 2) are presented. What is the purpose of the implant noted under the talus in the radiograph:

. To plantarflex the first metatarsal
. To tighten the Achilles tendon
. To restrict eversion of the subtalar joint
. To control sinus tarsi irritation by joint distraction
. To improve the alignment of the foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To restrict eversion of the subtalar joint


Explanation

The subtalar arthroerisis, as demonstrated in the radiograph, is used to control eversion of the subtalar joint during the foot flat phase of gait. A subtalar arthroerisis limits excessive eversion but does not restrict subtalarmotion further. This procedure is indicated for a patient who has a flexible flatfoot deformity and can be used either as the sole or an adjunctive procedure for correction.

Question 424

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The patient presented (Slide 1 and Slide 2) has a hereditary sensory motor neuropathy. Based upon the photographs, a surgeon should be able to determine the pattern of muscle weakness. Weakness in which muscle is most likely the cause of this deformity:

. Anterior tibial
. Posterior tibial
. Gastrocnemius
. Peroneus longus
. Peroneus brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus brevis


Explanation

Although the anterior tibial muscle is weak, the cavus is the predominant deformity of this condition, caused by weakness of the peroneus brevis. The peroneus longus is functioning and is responsible for the plantarflexion of the first metatarsal.

Question 425

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

You are planning a tendon transfer to help correct deformity in a patient with hereditary sensory motor neuropathy. Which of the following muscles will be used for the transfer based upon the clinical appearance of the foot (Slide 1 and Slide 2):

. Posterior tibial
. Anterior tibial
. Extensor hallucis longus
. Peroneus brevis
. Flexor hallucis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior tibial


Explanation

The posterior tibial tendon transfer is a commonly performed surgery for correction of cavus foot deformity associated with weakness of the anterior tibial muscle and varying degrees of drop foot deformity. The removal of the force of the posterior tibial tendon adds to the correction of the deformity of the foot by balancing the absent peroneus brevis. Although the extensor hallucis longus can be used as a tendon transfer, it will not be the primary muscle used or sufficient to correct deformity.

Question 426

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which combination of muscle weakness is typically associated with hereditary sensory motor neuropathy:

. Anterior tibial, extensor hallucis longus
. Peroneus longus, extensor hallucis brevis
. Gastrocnemius, peroneus brevis
. Posterior tibial, extensor digitorum brevis
. Anterior tibial, peroneus brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibial, peroneus brevis


Explanation

The peroneus brevis is usually the first muscle to atrophy. Varying patterns of loss of the other muscles of the lower extremity include the anterior tibial and, in particular, the intrinsic foot muscles. Weakness in these muscles accounts for the cavus and the claw foot deformities noted in patients with hereditary sensory motor neuropathy.

Question 427

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 42-year-old man with diabetes presents for treatment of a swollen foot (Slide). He does not recall the onset of swelling, and he states that his foot is not painful. On examination, the foot is hot to touch and swollen. Upon radiographic examination, no deformities are evident. Which of the following treatment options should be used next:

. Short leg cast
. Magnetic resonance image scan
. Biopsy of the midfoot
. Technetium and indium scan
. Initiation of organism-specific intravenous antibiotic therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short leg cast


Explanation

This patient presents with an acute neuroarthropathy. The acute painless swelling, associated with warmth and absence of radiographic findings, is typical of the acute phase of a Charcot process. A short leg cast or a boot to immobilize the foot is ideal, and no weight bearing should be permitted until the acute phase of this neuroarthropathy has subsided.

Question 428

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 29-year-old woman presents for treatment of a swollen foot. Although her foot is not painful, it has been swollen for 2 weeks. The patient walks into the office without any assistive device. On examination, the foot is swollen and warm. The patient does not have protective sensation in the foot, and she denies a history of diabetes and does not have a clinically relevant medical history. A radiograph of her foot is presented (Slide). Which of the following tests will be most helpful in determining the etiology of her condition:

. Hemoglobin A1
. C -reactive protein
. White cell count
. Sedimentation rate
. Spinal fluid analysis from lumbar puncture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemoglobin A1


Explanation

This patient most likely has diabetes. Patients may present for the first time with an acute neuroarthropathy of the foot as a result of diabetes, even without a clinical history of the disease. Although the sedimentation rate will likely be elevated, it will not help in the diagnosis. Infection is not a likely consideration in this patient.

Question 429

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient with diabetes and severe peripheral neuropathy has been treated for a C harcot ankle deformity for 9 months (Slide 1, Slide 2, and Slide 3). An ankle foot orthosis has been used for 4 months. No skin breakdown occurred in the brace. Swelling is present but has decreased over the past month. Ankle range of motion is limited, and crepitus is present upon examination of the ankle. Which surgical procedure is most consistent with the future treatment of this patient:

. Surgery with tibiotalocalcaneal arthrodesis
. Surgery with ankle arthrodesis
. Surgery with pantalar arthrodesis
. Talectomy and tibiocalcaneal arthrodesis
. C ontinued use of an orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C ontinued use of an orthosis


Explanation

The indication for surgery is intractable deformity, which is refractory to all forms of bracing. By refractory, one implies that skin breakdown or imminent infection is present. If surgery were performed, then it would consist of a tibiotalocalcaneal arthrodesis. There are no indications for this surgery in this patient. Once the neuropathic process has reached a stable point, a deformity is not likely to progress.

Question 430

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

An 83-year-old woman presents for treatment of a painful second toe deformity. The hallux, the bunion, and the third toe are not painful. A fixed crossover toe deformity is present (Slide), with a dislocation of the second metatarsophalangeal joint noted radiographically. Which procedure is likely to give the patient rapid pain relief:

. Arthrodesis of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint and resection arthroplasty of the second proximal interphalangeal joint
. Osteotomy of the second toe and metatarsal
. Shortening osteotomies of the second and third metatarsals and interphalangeal arthroplasty
. Amputation of the second toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint
. Resection arthroplasty of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amputation of the second toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint


Explanation

In this age group, amputation of the second toe is a reasonable treatment. It is not possible to correct the second toe deformity without correction of the hallux, either by arthrodesis or arthroplasty at the metatarsophalangeal joint. The hallux is asymptomatic, which is common in this age group, and the simplest treatment is to amputate the toe.C orrect Answer: Amputation of the second toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint

Question 431

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 60-year-old man experiences pain under the lesser metatarsal heads. Prominence of the metatarsal heads under the second, third, and fourth metatarsal is noted, as well as associated fixed claw toe deformities (Slide). The etiology of the foot pain is:

. C ontracture of the long flexor tendons
. Fat pad atrophy
. Atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the foot
. C ontracture of the long extensor tendon
. Idiopathic (the cause is either unknown or not understood)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the foot


Explanation

The cause of claw toe deformity is not idiopathic. C law toe deformity is a common deformity in adults, particularly in women as a result of lack of use of the intrinsic muscles of the foot, leading to an imbalance between the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles in the foot. As the intrinsic muscle atrophies, the long extensor and flexor tendons cause the deformity (as presented in this patient), with resulting metatarsalgia.

Question 432

Topic: Forefoot

A patient presents with a claw toe deformity (Slide). What is the strongest flexor of the metatarsophalangeal joint, which in this patient is not functioning adequately:

. Flexor digitorum longus
. Flexor digitorum brevis
. Lumbrical
. Volar plate
. Interosseous

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interosseous


Explanation

Although the long and short flexor tendons have some effect albeit indirect on the flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint, the flexor that acts directly on the joint is the interosseous muscle. Intrinsic atrophy will lead to claw toe deformity.

Question 433

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 54-year-old woman presents for treatment of an ulcer (Slide). She has diabetes, no protective sensation, and slight deformity of the foot. There is no inflammation of the foot and no purulent drainage. Slight serous oozing is present daily. Initial evaluation and treatment should consist of:

. Ambulation in a total contact cast
. Biopsy, culture, and organism-specific oral antibiotic therapy
. Bed rest, no weight bearing, and daily dressing changes
. Ambulation in a stiff-soled surgical shoe with a protective dressing
. C orrection of the C harcot foot deformity and antibiotic therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ambulation in a stiff-soled surgical shoe with a protective dressing


Explanation

Ambulatory treatment for a patient with diabetes is always the preferable treatment. In this patient, there is no evidence of infection. Unless drainage is purulent and the ulcer is in contact with bone, there should be minimal concern for infection. Reconstruction of a Charcot deformity of the midfoot is only indicated following repeated failure of nonoperative treatments.

Question 434

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 63-year-old patient underwent a triple arthrodesis for correction of flatfoot deformity. He presents with continued ankle pain, as well as a hindfoot valgus deformity. The ankle deformity is flexible, and the joint can be reduced. All of the following are reasonable surgical alternatives as a single or staged procedure with the exception of:

. Ankle arthrodesis
. Revision of the triple arthrodesis and translational osteotomy of the calcaneus
. Total ankle replacement
. Deltoid ligament repair
. Peroneal tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deltoid ligament repair


Explanation

Repair of a chronically torn deltoid ligament is not sufficient to correct this type of deformity. The ligament has degenerated, and the quality of the ligament is insufficient. Each of the other alternatives is reasonable either performed as the sole or adjunctive procedure.C orrect Answer: Deltoid ligament repair

Question 435

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 34-year-old patient presents for treatment of painful ankle arthritis. Deformity of the ankle is present with posttraumatic arthritis and 20° of varus deformity as a result of erosion of the distal tibial plafond. There is minimal motion of the subtalar joint, and the forefoot is plantigrade. You plan an ankle arthrodesis. In addition to the position of the ankle arthrodesis, what additional procedure should you consider:

. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Ankle ligament reconstruction
. Medial translational calcaneus osteotomy
. First metatarsal dorsal wedge osteotomy
. Triple arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First metatarsal dorsal wedge osteotomy


Explanation

This patient has a fixed deformity of the ankle, as well as the hindfoot. The subtalar joint has adapted to the varus position of the ankle but is stiff. Following the ankle arthrodesis, which has to be performed by bringing the ankle into a few degrees of varus, the forefoot will not be able to compensate for the fixed changes that have taken place in the hindfoot. To keep the forefoot plantigrade, a dorsal wedge osteotomy of the first metatarsal should be performed to keep the foot plantigrade.

Question 436

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 26-year-old woman presents for treatment of ankle arthritis following trauma. She is an active individual despite her arthritis. On examination, her foot is fixed in equinus, no ankle motion is present, and the motion in the subtalar joint is normal. Ankle arthritis is noted radiographically. In a preoperative discussion, she states the desire to have as mobile a foot as possible, wear high heel shoes, and participate in realistic exercise activities. You perform an ankle arthrodesis. What is the ideal position for the arthrodesis:

. 10° of dorsiflexion, 5° of valgus, and neutral rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 15° of valgus, and neutral rotation
. 10° of plantarflexion, 10° of valgus, and neutral rotation
. 10° of plantarflexion, neutral valgus, and 10° of external rotation
. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5° of valgus, and neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutral dorsiflexion, 5° of valgus, and neutral rotation


Explanation

Regardless of patient activities, desire for shoe wear, and age, the ankle must be fused in a standard position of neutral dorsiflexion and slight valgus. This is important because any deviation of this position, particularly in equinus, will increase th likelihood of arthritis in the talonavicular and subtalar joint.

Question 437

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old man has experienced pain in his foot and ankle for 10 years. His radiographs are presented (Slide 1 and Slide 2). The foot is flexible, and pain is present in the sinus tarsi and along the medial border of the foot. With the subtalar joint held in a reduced neutral position, the forefoot is in 15° of supination. You attempt orthotic arch supports and when these do not alleviate his pain, a brace is suggested. He refuses to wear a brace. You plan an osteotomy of the calcaneus with lengthening bone graft at the neck of the calcaneus (lateral column lengthening). The most common complication following this procedure is:

. C alcaneocuboid joint arthritis
. Subtalar arthritis
. Persistent sinus tarsi pain
. Equinus deformity
. Elevation of the first metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elevation of the first metatarsal


Explanation

This patient demonstrates the common finding of fixed forefoot varus associated with a flexible flatfoot deformity. It is likely that a gastrocnemius contracture is also present, but this is not always the case. Arthritis of the calcaneocuboid joint rarely occurs following a lengthening calcaneal osteotomy in an adult. C orrection of the forefoot varus is best accomplished with an opening wedge osteotomy of the medial cuneiform. Arthrodesis of the first tarsometatarsal joint may be performed in selected patients with noted instability at this joint.C orrect Answer: Elevation of the first metatarsal

Question 438

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 44-year-old obese man presents for treatment of acute ankle pain. He does not have a history of trauma or a systemic history of note. His opposite foot has had multiple episodes of acute pain in the past, lasting from 3 to 5 days. On examination, the ankle is warm, swollen, and exquisitely tender to palpation and any range of motion (Slide1, Slide 2, and Slide 3). Concerned about the source of pain, you aspirate the joint and send the sample for analysis. You expect to find:

. Gram-positive cocci
. Gram-negative rods
. Normal joint fluid
. Sodium monourate crystals
. A high red cell count

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sodium monourate crystals


Explanation

This patient most likely has an acute attack of gout. The prior episodes of foot pain and the sudden onset lasting 5 days for each bout is characteristic. The ankle is not a common location for gout (the most frequent site is the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint). The treatment should consist of injection of a corticosteroid into the joint and administration of appropriate oral anti-inflammatory medication.

Question 439

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

This patient presents for treatment of a painful hallux varus deformity following correction of hallux valgus deformity (Slide). All of the following procedures may be acceptable surgical alternatives for correction of deformity with the exception of:

. Split extensor hallucis longus tendon transfer
. Abductor hallucis transfer
. Extensor hallucis brevis tendon transfer
. First metatarsal osteotomy
. Hallux metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First metatarsal osteotomy


Explanation

The extensor hallucis longus or the extensor hallucis brevis (rarely the abductor hallucis) may be used as a tendon transfer for correction. Arthrodesis of the hallux interphalangeal joint may be performed forcorrection of a fixed claw deformity of the interphalangeal joint, usually in conjunction with a tendon transfer. Arthrodesis of the metatarsophalangeal joint is a reasonable alternative provided there is no fixed deformity of the interphalangeal joint present and when arthritis or fixed deformity of the metatarsophalangeal joint is present.C orrect Answer: First metatarsal osteotomy

Question 440

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following is true concerning Achilles tendon ruptures:

. More common in women than men
. More common on the right side compared to the left
. More common in patients using cephalosporins
. A common mechanism of injury is sudden forced foot plantarflexion
. Occurs most commonly in normal tendons

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A common mechanism of injury is sudden forced foot plantarflexion


Explanation

Important points to remember about Achilles tendon ruptures: A. Most common in middle-aged men B. Often intermittent sports activity C . Left more than right D. Often the tendon is abnormal (degenerative) E. Mechanism 1. Sudden forced plantarflexion 2. Unexpected dorsiflexion 3. Violent dorsiflexion of the plantar flexed foot Factors which may make the patient more prone to rupture: A. Steroids B. Fluoroquinolones