This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4241
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old male presents with a suspected syndesmotic injury following an external rotation ankle injury. During intraoperative assessment, a hook test reveals significant diastasis. Biomechanically, which of the following ligaments provides the greatest resistance to diastasis of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
Biomechanical studies have shown that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) provides the greatest resistance to syndesmotic diastasis, accounting for approximately 42% of the strength. The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) provides about 35%.
Question 4242
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An orthopedic surgeon is performing an extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture. During the inferior horizontal limb of the incision, which neurological structure is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep peroneal nerve
Explanation
The extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus places the sural nerve at risk, particularly during the inferior horizontal limb of the incision. Utilizing full-thickness subperiosteal flaps and "no-touch" retraction techniques minimizes the risk of nerve injury and skin flap necrosis.
Question 4243
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 22-year-old competitive skier presents with chronic posterolateral ankle pain and a snapping sensation behind the lateral malleolus. Examination demonstrates visible anterior subluxation of the retromalleolar tendons during resisted dorsiflexion and eversion. Attenuation or rupture of which structure is the primary cause of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneofibular ligament
Explanation
Anterior subluxation or dislocation of the peroneal tendons over the distal fibula pathognomonically indicates attenuation or rupture of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR). Surgical treatment typically involves primary SPR repair and, if necessary, deepening of the retro-malleolar fibular groove.
Question 4244
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 60-year-old male presents with dorsal foot pain and stiffness of the great toe. Radiographs show a dorsal osteophyte at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, but the joint space is relatively preserved with minimal subchondral sclerosis. Pain is reproduced strictly at terminal dorsiflexion. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First MTP arthrodesis
Explanation
This patient has early-stage (Grade 1 or 2) hallux rigidus, characterized by dorsal osteophytosis with preserved joint space and pain primarily at terminal dorsiflexion. A cheilectomy, which removes the dorsal third of the metatarsal head and the dorsal osteophyte, effectively eliminates impingement and preserves motion.
Question 4245
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy presents with recurrent ankle sprains and a rigid, painful flatfoot. A lateral weight-bearing radiograph of the foot reveals a continuous bony bridge outlining the posterior talar dome and sustentaculum tali, often referred to as the 'C-sign'. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical resection of the coalition
Explanation
The 'C-sign' on a lateral ankle radiograph strongly suggests a talocalcaneal coalition involving the medial facet. Initial management for symptomatic, uncomplicated tarsal coalitions is non-operative, typically consisting of immobilization in a short leg cast or CAM boot for 4 to 6 weeks.
Question 4246
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old female track athlete complains of vague dorsal midfoot pain that worsens with running. Radiographs are normal, but an MRI demonstrates an incomplete fracture through the central third of the navicular body. The pathophysiology of this fracture is heavily influenced by the region's blood supply. Which of the following best describes the vascularity of the navicular?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Robust dual blood supply from the dorsalis pedis and medial plantar arteries throughout the bone
Explanation
The tarsal navicular has a precarious blood supply, with vessels entering the dorsal and plantar non-articular surfaces and branching inward. This leaves a central hypovascular 'watershed' zone, making the middle third highly susceptible to stress fractures and delayed union.
Question 4247
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old male undergoes surgery for severe insertional Achilles tendinopathy and a large Haglund's deformity. Intraoperatively, after aggressive debridement of calcific tendinosis, approximately 60% of the Achilles tendon insertion is detached. What is the most appropriate next step in surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary repair with heavy nonabsorbable suture anchors alone
Explanation
When more than 50% of the Achilles tendon insertion must be debrided or detached to treat insertional tendinopathy, the remaining tendon is mechanically insufficient. Augmentation with a flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon transfer is the gold standard to restore plantarflexion strength and vascularize the area.
Question 4248
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a red, hot, and swollen right foot. Radiographs demonstrate periarticular debris, osseous fragmentation, and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. No ulcers or wounds are present. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what stage is this, and what is the best initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage 0; Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic findings of fragmentation, debris, and subluxation characterize Eichenholtz Stage 1 (developmental stage) of Charcot neuroarthropathy. The standard of care is immediate offloading and immobilization, typically using a total contact cast, to prevent further collapse.
Question 4249
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 16-year-old female ballet dancer presents with chronic pain localized to the plantar aspect of the second metatarsal head. Radiographs show flattening, sclerosis, and widening of the second metatarsal head. Which of the following is the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stress fracture of the diaphyseal shaft
Explanation
This patient has Freiberg's infraction, which most commonly affects the second metatarsal head in adolescent females. The pathophysiology involves repetitive microtrauma leading to avascular necrosis, subchondral collapse, and eventual flattening of the articular surface.
Question 4250
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old distance runner presents with chronic medial heel pain that radiates into the plantar-lateral foot. The pain worsens toward the end of the day and lacks the classic 'first-step' morning stiffness. MRI of the foot is notable for isolated fatty atrophy of the abductor digiti minimi muscle. Entrapment of which nerve is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial plantar nerve
Explanation
Entrapment of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve (Baxter's nerve) causes chronic heel pain distinct from typical plantar fasciitis. Because this nerve provides motor innervation to the abductor digiti minimi, chronic entrapment leads to the pathognomonic MRI finding of isolated fatty atrophy of this muscle.
Question 4251
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute complete Achilles tendon rupture. After discussing treatment options, he opts for nonoperative management. What is the primary advantage of utilizing an early functional rehabilitation protocol compared to traditional cast immobilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower rerupture rate than surgical repair
Explanation
Early functional rehabilitation with protected weight-bearing for acute Achilles ruptures yields rerupture rates comparable to operative management. This approach avoids the significant wound complications associated with open surgery.
Question 4252
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 52-year-old woman presents with medial ankle pain and a progressive flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals a flexible hindfoot with inability to perform a single-leg heel rise. Standing radiographs show greater than 40% uncoverage of the talonavicular joint. What is the best surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy
Explanation
This patient has a Stage IIb adult acquired flatfoot, characterized by a flexible deformity with severe forefoot abduction (>40% talonavicular uncoverage). It requires lateral column lengthening in addition to FDL transfer and a medial calcaneal displacement osteotomy to correct the severe abduction.
Question 4253
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 40-year-old manual laborer sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury involving the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal (TMT) joints. Which surgical treatment has shown superior long-term functional outcomes and lower reoperation rates for this specific injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
Explanation
Primary arthrodesis of the medial three rays provides superior short- and long-term functional outcomes with lower reoperation rates compared to ORIF for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries.
Question 4254
Topic: Forefoot
A 60-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Radiographs reveal an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 22 degrees, a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 55 degrees, and clinical hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal chevron osteotomy
Explanation
A first tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is indicated for severe hallux valgus deformities (IMA > 20 degrees), especially when accompanied by first ray hypermobility or TMT arthritis.
Question 4255
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old construction worker undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture using an extensile lateral approach. Postoperatively, he reports numbness along the lateral border of his foot. Which nerve was most likely injured during the exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sural nerve
Explanation
The sural nerve is at the greatest risk of injury during the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus. The vertical limb of the L-shaped incision must be placed carefully to avoid it.
Question 4256
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy presents with recurrent ankle sprains and rigid, painful flatfeet. Oblique radiographs demonstrate the "anteater nose" sign. Nonoperative management has failed. What is the best initial operative intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtalar arthrodesis
Explanation
The "anteater nose" sign indicates a calcaneonavicular coalition. The standard operative treatment for a symptomatic coalition without severe arthritis is resection with interposition of the extensor digitorum brevis (EDB) or fat pad.
Question 4257
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 65-year-old man with end-stage post-traumatic ankle osteoarthritis is being evaluated for a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). He has a well-aligned hindfoot but a history of prior osteomyelitis in the distal tibia that was successfully treated 10 years ago. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to total ankle arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Age greater than 60 years
Explanation
Active infection, Charcot neuroarthropathy, severe avascular necrosis of the talus, and severe uncorrectable malalignment are absolute contraindications to total ankle arthroplasty. Prior fracture and adjacent subtalar arthritis are common indications for TAA.
Question 4258
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old poorly controlled diabetic patient presents with a warm, swollen, and erythematous right foot. Elevation of the foot above the heart for 10 minutes results in complete resolution of the erythema.
Radiographs reveal early midfoot fragmentation. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical debridement of the midfoot
Explanation
Resolution of erythema with leg elevation is typical of acute Charcot neuroarthropathy, differentiating it from an acute infection. The gold standard initial treatment for acute (Eichenholtz Stage 0 or 1) Charcot is immediate offloading with a total contact cast.
Question 4259
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 48-year-old man undergoes a dorsal cheilectomy for Grade 2 hallux rigidus. He reports pain primarily with push-off during terminal stance. To achieve a successful outcome, approximately how much of the dorsal articular surface of the first metatarsal head is typically resected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10%
Explanation
During a cheilectomy for hallux rigidus, approximately 30% of the dorsal articular surface of the first metatarsal head is typically resected. This, along with removal of dorsal osteophytes, successfully restores functional dorsiflexion.
Question 4260
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old skier experiences a sudden forced dorsiflexion and inversion injury. He presents with pain posterior to the lateral malleolus and a snapping sensation when actively everting the foot. What anatomic structure is compromised in this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior talofibular ligament
Explanation
Peroneal tendon subluxation or dislocation classically results from a rupture or avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR). The mechanism is typically a forceful, sudden dorsiflexion with ankle inversion.
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