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Question 4201

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old construction worker falls from a roof, landing directly on his feet. He sustains a high-energy ankle injury characterized by severe coronal plane widening of the syndesmosis, an intact fibula, and impaction of the talus into the tibial plafond. What is the standard eponymous term for this injury pattern?

. Maisonneuve fracture
. Bosworth fracture-dislocation
. Logsplitter injury
. Tillaux fracture
. Cotton fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Maisonneuve fracture


Explanation

A "Logsplitter" injury results from a high-energy axial load that drives the talus upward into the distal tibiofibular joint, causing severe syndesmotic disruption and plafond impaction, frequently without a fibula fracture.

Question 4202

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During closed reduction of a medial subtalar dislocation in a 25-year-old patient, the joint is successfully reduced in the emergency department. Despite an anatomic reduction and appropriate rehabilitation, what is the most common long-term complication associated with this injury?

. Post-traumatic subtalar arthritis
. Avascular necrosis of the talus
. Chronic tarsal tunnel syndrome
. Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction
. Sural nerve entrapment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Post-traumatic subtalar arthritis


Explanation

Medial subtalar dislocations are the most common type and usually amenable to closed reduction. However, due to the high-energy cartilage impaction at the time of injury, post-traumatic subtalar arthritis is the most common long-term complication.

Question 4203

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When assessing the quality of syndesmotic reduction intraoperatively following fixation of a Weber C ankle fracture, which radiographic measurement is historically considered the most reliable parameter on standard AP and mortise fluoroscopic views?

. Tibiofibular clear space
. Tibiofibular overlap on the AP view
. Tibiofibular overlap on the Mortise view
. Talar tilt angle
. Medial clear space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibiofibular clear space


Explanation

The tibiofibular clear space (normally <5mm on both AP and mortise views) is the most reliable 2D radiographic measure of syndesmotic integrity because it is less dependent on rotation than tibiofibular overlap. However, bilateral CT remains the modern gold standard.

Question 4204

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old sustains an ankle fracture requiring syndesmotic fixation. Which of the following intraoperative imaging techniques is most sensitive for evaluating syndesmotic reduction?

. Standard AP radiograph
. Standard mortise radiograph
. Lateral radiograph
. Bilateral weight-bearing radiographs
. Contralateral fluoroscopic comparison

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Standard AP radiograph


Explanation

Intraoperative fluoroscopy comparing the injured to the uninjured contralateral ankle is the most accurate radiographic method to assess syndesmotic reduction, significantly reducing malreduction rates compared to standard mortise views alone.

Question 4205

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 42-year-old man undergoes percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness and burning pain along the lateral aspect of his foot. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Tibial nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve courses lateral to the Achilles tendon and crosses its lateral border approximately 10 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion. It is at the highest risk of injury during percutaneous or minimally invasive Achilles repairs.

Question 4206

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 35-year-old female sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury involving the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal joints. Which of the following surgical interventions provides superior functional outcomes and lower revision rates for purely ligamentous injuries?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with transarticular screws
. Primary arthrodesis of the medial column (1st, 2nd, and 3rd TMT joints)
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Dorsal bridge plating without joint decortication
. Spanning external fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with transarticular screws


Explanation

Prospective randomized trials demonstrate that primary arthrodesis of the medial rays in purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries yields better functional outcomes. It also significantly lowers hardware removal and revision rates compared to ORIF.

Question 4207

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During the surgical approach for a displaced talar neck fracture, an anteromedial approach is utilized. Which critical vascular structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during this specific approach, potentially worsening the risk of avascular necrosis?

. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Deltoid branch of the posterior tibial artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Peroneal artery
. Anterior tibial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the tarsal canal


Explanation

The deltoid branch of the posterior tibial artery supplies the medial body of the talus. Excessive soft tissue stripping during an anteromedial approach puts this critical remaining blood supply at risk, increasing the likelihood of avascular necrosis.

Question 4208

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and recurrent ankle sprains. CT imaging confirms a calcaneonavicular coalition. If conservative management fails, which of the following surgical procedures is considered the gold standard?

. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis
. Resection of the coalition with interposition of the extensor digitorum brevis muscle
. Calcaneal lengthening osteotomy
. Talonavicular arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar arthrodesis


Explanation

For symptomatic calcaneonavicular coalitions that fail conservative treatment, resection of the coalition with interposition of the extensor digitorum brevis (EDB) muscle or fat graft is the surgical treatment of choice. This prevents recurrence and restores motion.

Question 4209

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old female presents with stage IIB adult acquired flatfoot deformity. She has a flexible hindfoot but a fixed forefoot supinatus. Along with flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and a medializing calcaneal osteotomy, which additional procedure is required to address the fixed forefoot deformity?

. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Lateral column lengthening (Evans osteotomy)
. Plantar fascia release
. Cotton osteotomy (medial cuneiform dorsal opening wedge)
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar arthrodesis


Explanation

In stage II flatfoot deformity with forefoot varus (fixed supinatus) that does not correct with hindfoot realignment, a Cotton osteotomy or a first TMT joint arthrodesis is required. This plantarflexes the first ray and restores the tripod effect of the foot.

Question 4210

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old male with an uncorrected childhood clubfoot presents with localized medial ankle pain. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate varus alignment of the distal tibia and isolated medial tibiotalar joint space narrowing. Hindfoot mobility is preserved. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option?

. Ankle arthrodesis
. Total ankle arthroplasty
. Supramalleolar valgus-producing osteotomy
. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Pilon fracture malunion takedown

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankle arthrodesis


Explanation

A supramalleolar osteotomy is indicated for asymmetric ankle osteoarthritis with a correlative extra-articular deformity. It redistributes weight-bearing forces to the preserved cartilage, delaying the need for fusion or replacement in young, active patients.

Question 4211

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old male is involved in a crush injury to his foot. He develops severe pain out of proportion and tense swelling. The decision is made to perform a fasciotomy of the foot. How many distinct fascial compartments are generally recognized in the foot?

. 3
. 5
. 7
. 9
. 11

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3


Explanation

There are 9 clinically recognized distinct fascial compartments in the foot: medial, lateral, superficial central, deep central (calcaneal), four interosseous compartments, and the dorsal compartment. Release typically requires combined dorsal and medial approaches.

Question 4212

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 32-year-old female has persistent ankle pain following a severe sprain 1 year ago. MRI demonstrates a 1.2 cm x 1.0 cm posteromedial osteochondral lesion of the talus with subchondral cystic changes. The cartilage cap appears intact. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?

. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
. Retrograde drilling
. Total ankle arthroplasty
. Ankle arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)


Explanation

For an intact cartilage cap with an underlying cystic lesion in the talus, retrograde drilling is an excellent option. It decompresses the cyst and stimulates bone healing while preserving the intact articular cartilage.

Question 4213

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 25-year-old professional athlete sustains a twisting injury to his midfoot. Non-weight-bearing radiographs are normal. However, weight-bearing radiographs reveal a 3-mm diastasis between the base of the first and second metatarsals without any evidence of osseous avulsion fractures. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management to maximize his chances of returning to high-level athletics?

. Non-weight-bearing cast for 6 weeks
. Primary arthrodesis of the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal joints
. Open reduction and internal fixation with transarticular screws
. Carbon fiber shoe insert and weight-bearing as tolerated
. Excision of the base of the second metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-weight-bearing cast for 6 weeks


Explanation

Recent evidence favors primary arthrodesis for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries in high-level athletes. This approach reduces the need for hardware removal and avoids late post-traumatic arthritis seen frequently after ORIF.

Question 4214

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old man undergoes a percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness along the lateral border of his foot. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve crosses from the midline to the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 10 cm proximal to its calcaneal insertion. It is highly susceptible to iatrogenic injury during percutaneous Achilles tendon repairs.

Question 4215

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 50-year-old woman presents with medial ankle pain and an acquired flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals a flexible hindfoot valgus. Weight-bearing radiographs show greater than 30% uncoverage of the talar head on the AP view, indicating significant forefoot abduction. She has failed conservative management. Which surgical reconstruction is most appropriate for this Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?

. Medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy (MDCO) alone
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer, MDCO, and lateral column lengthening
. Triple arthrodesis
. Isolated subtalar arthrodesis
. Cotton osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy (MDCO) alone


Explanation

Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction is characterized by a flexible flatfoot with severe forefoot abduction (>30% talonavicular uncoverage). It is best addressed with FDL transfer, medializing calcaneal osteotomy, and a lateral column lengthening to correct the abduction.

Question 4216

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 60-year-old man presents with advanced ankle osteoarthritis and is inquiring about total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication for TAA?

. End-stage adjacent joint arthritis in the subtalar joint
. Patient age greater than 55 years
. Charcot neuroarthropathy with severe sensory neuropathy
. Prior open reduction and internal fixation of the ankle
. Mild coronal plane deformity of 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. End-stage adjacent joint arthritis in the subtalar joint


Explanation

Severe sensory neuropathy and Charcot neuroarthropathy are absolute contraindications to total ankle arthroplasty due to unacceptably high rates of implant failure, subsidence, and infection. In these patients, arthrodesis is the preferred surgical option.

Question 4217

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with a painful bunion. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 16 degrees and a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 38 degrees. Clinical examination demonstrates significant hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Scarf osteotomy
. Lapidus procedure (First TMT arthrodesis)
. Proximal phalanx osteotomy (Akin) alone
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for moderate-to-severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) accompanied by first TMT joint hypermobility. It effectively restores stability to the medial column.

Question 4218

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old construction worker falls from a ladder and sustains a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture. The surgeon plans an extensile lateral approach. Which vascular structure is most critical to the blood supply of the apex of the subperiosteal corner flap?

. Lateral calcaneal artery
. Sural nerve
. Peroneal artery
. Anterior tibial artery
. Medial plantar artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral calcaneal artery


Explanation

The lateral calcaneal artery supplies the apex of the corner flap in an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus. A full-thickness, subperiosteal "no-touch" dissection technique is vital to protect this vessel and prevent flap necrosis.

Question 4219

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old man requires surgery for chronic insertional Achilles tendinopathy with a large retrocalcaneal exostosis after failing conservative therapy. Intraoperatively, the diseased Achilles tendon is debrided. At what threshold of tendon detachment or debridement is a flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon transfer primarily indicated to augment the repair?

. 10%
. 25%
. 50%
. 75%
. 90%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10%


Explanation

Flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon transfer is indicated to augment an Achilles tendon repair when more than 50% of the diseased Achilles tendon is resected or detached. It provides vascularity and mechanical strength to the deficient insertion.

Question 4220

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic heel pain that worsens at the end of the day. He has focal tenderness over the medial calcaneal tuberosity, and compression reproduces radiating pain. EMG reveals denervation of the abductor digiti minimi muscle. Which nerve is most likely entrapped?

. Medial plantar nerve
. First branch of the lateral plantar nerve
. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial plantar nerve


Explanation

Baxter's nerve is the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. Entrapment of this nerve typically causes chronic heel pain mimicking severe plantar fasciitis and leads to selective denervation of the abductor digiti minimi.