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Question 4061

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

In the plantar aspect of the foot, the "Master Knot of Henry" is a critical anatomic landmark where which two structures cross?

. Flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus
. Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus
. Flexor hallucis longus and tibialis anterior
. Plantar fascia and flexor digitorum brevis
. Sural nerve and lesser saphenous vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus


Explanation

The Master Knot of Henry is located in the medial plantar midfoot. At this site, the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon crosses dorsal to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon.

Question 4062

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old man sustains a displaced fracture of the talar neck. Which of the following provides the primary blood supply to the body of the talus and is at greatest risk of disruption in this injury?

. Artery of the tarsal sinus
. Deltoid branches of the posterior tibial artery
. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Dorsalis pedis artery branches
. Peroneal artery branches

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the tarsal sinus


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, provides the dominant blood supply to the talar body. Disruption of this specific blood supply in talar neck fractures is a primary cause of subsequent avascular necrosis.

Question 4063

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During the normal human gait cycle, maximum dorsiflexion of the ankle occurs during which phase?

. Heel strike
. Midstance
. Terminal stance
. Pre-swing
. Initial swing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heel strike


Explanation

Maximum ankle dorsiflexion (approximately 10 degrees) occurs during terminal stance, just before heel-off, as the body's center of mass advances over the planted foot.

Question 4064

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 24-year-old athlete sustains an inversion ankle sprain. Biomechanical studies indicate that the primary ligamentous restraint to inversion of the talus when the ankle is placed in maximal dorsiflexion is the:

. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
. Posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)
. Deltoid ligament
. Cervical ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)


Explanation

The calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) becomes taut in dorsiflexion and acts as the primary restraint to inversion in this position. The ATFL is the primary restraint to inversion when the ankle is in plantarflexion.

Question 4065

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old female presents with progressive flattening of her longitudinal arch. Pathology of the posterior tibial tendon is suspected. Which associated ligamentous structure is most commonly attenuated and primarily responsible for supporting the head of the talus?

. Plantar aponeurosis
. Bifurcate ligament
. Long plantar ligament
. Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
. Short plantar ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantar aponeurosis


Explanation

The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament (spring ligament) forms a critical sling under the talar head. Its attenuation, often concurrent with posterior tibial tendon dysfunction, directly contributes to adult acquired flatfoot deformity.

Question 4066

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 19-year-old soccer player suffers an inversion ankle sprain. During the physical examination, the anterior drawer test is positive when the ankle is plantarflexed. Which ligament is primarily assessed, and what is its normal kinematic behavior?

. Calcaneofibular ligament, which is maximally taut in plantarflexion
. Anterior talofibular ligament, which is maximally taut in dorsiflexion
. Anterior talofibular ligament, which is maximally taut in plantarflexion
. Calcaneofibular ligament, which is maximally taut in dorsiflexion
. Posterior talofibular ligament, which is maximally taut in plantarflexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneofibular ligament, which is maximally taut in plantarflexion


Explanation

The anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) is the most commonly injured ankle ligament and is maximally taut in plantarflexion. The calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) becomes taut in dorsiflexion.

Question 4067

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient is evaluated for chronic ankle instability. Clinical examination includes the anterior drawer test and talar tilt test. Regarding the kinematics of the lateral ankle ligaments, in which position is the calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) under the greatest tension?

. Plantarflexion and inversion
. Plantarflexion and eversion
. Dorsiflexion and inversion
. Dorsiflexion and eversion
. Neutral sagittal alignment and eversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantarflexion and inversion


Explanation

The calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) becomes tightest in ankle dorsiflexion and inversion. Conversely, the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) is tightest in plantarflexion and inversion.

Question 4068

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

A 26-year-old soccer player sustains a high ankle sprain with widening of the tibiofibular clear space on radiographs. Which of the following ligaments of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis provides the greatest biomechanical strength and resistance to diastasis?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Interosseous ligament
. Interosseous membrane
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

The posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) is the strongest and thickest of the syndesmotic ligaments, providing the greatest stabilizing force against diastasis. The AITFL is the most commonly injured but is biomechanically weaker.

Question 4069

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 45-year-old woman is being evaluated for a custom orthosis to correct a flexible pes planovalgus deformity. Understanding normal hindfoot kinematics is essential. The axis of rotation of the subtalar joint is best described by which of the following orientations?

. 16 degrees superior to the horizontal plane and 42 degrees medial to the sagittal plane
. 42 degrees superior to the horizontal plane and 16 degrees medial to the sagittal plane
. Parallel to the transmalleolar axis
. 42 degrees inferior to the horizontal plane and 16 degrees lateral to the sagittal plane
. Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the tibia in all planes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 16 degrees superior to the horizontal plane and 42 degrees medial to the sagittal plane


Explanation

The subtalar joint functions as a mitered hinge with a complex axis of rotation. This axis deviates approximately 42 degrees superiorly from the horizontal plane and 16 degrees medially from the sagittal plane, allowing coupled triplanar motion.

Question 4070

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 32-year-old male sustains a highly comminuted talar neck fracture. The primary blood supply to the body of the talus, which is now critically disrupted, is derived from the artery of the tarsal canal. This vessel is an anatomic branch of which artery?

. Anterior tibial artery
. Posterior tibial artery
. Peroneal artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Medial plantar artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibial artery


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal is a branch of the posterior tibial artery and provides the dominant blood supply to the body of the talus. It enters inferiorly and forms an anastomosis with the artery of the sinus tarsi within the tarsal canal.

Question 4071

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient with a severely displaced fibular neck fracture presents with a new foot drop. Physical examination reveals weakness in both ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as numbness over the dorsum of the foot. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Common peroneal nerve
. Tibial nerve
. Sural nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial peroneal nerve


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and is highly susceptible to injury here. Injury results in deficits of both its deep (dorsiflexion) and superficial (eversion, dorsal sensation) branches.

Question 4072

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Surgical treatment of a highly comminuted talar neck fracture requires extensive dissection, increasing the risk of avascular necrosis. The dominant blood supply to the body of the talus arises from which of the following arteries?

. Artery of the tarsal sinus
. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Perforating peroneal artery
. Anterior tibial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the tarsal sinus


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, is the dominant blood supply to the body of the talus. It forms an anastomotic sling with the artery of the tarsal sinus beneath the talar neck.

Question 4073

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The deep peroneal nerve supplies the motor innervation to the anterior compartment of the leg. Which of the following muscles is also innervated by the deep peroneal nerve but resides anatomically outside the anterior compartment of the leg?

. Peroneus longus
. Peroneus brevis
. Peroneus tertius
. Extensor digitorum brevis
. Flexor hallucis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus longus


Explanation

The deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg and then continues onto the dorsum of the foot. In the foot, its lateral terminal branch innervates the extensor digitorum brevis and extensor hallucis brevis muscles.

Question 4074

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

At the anatomically critical "Master Knot of Henry" in the plantar midfoot, which of the following relationships is correct?

. The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon
. The FDL tendon crosses dorsal (deep) to the FHL tendon
. The posterior tibial tendon crosses plantar to the FHL tendon
. The medial plantar nerve crosses dorsal to the FHL tendon
. The FHL tendon crosses superficial (plantar) to the FDL tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon


Explanation

The Master Knot of Henry is located in the medial plantar midfoot. At this intersection, the FHL tendon courses medially from its lateral fibular origin, passing deep (dorsal) to the medially originating FDL tendon.

Question 4075

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

In a severe external rotation ankle injury, the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis may be completely disrupted. Which of the following syndesmotic ligaments provides the greatest mechanical resistance to lateral translation of the fibula?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Interosseous ligament
. Transverse tibiofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

The posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) is the strongest component of the syndesmosis. Biomechanical studies indicate it provides approximately 42% of the resistance to lateral fibular displacement, more than any other syndesmotic structure.

Question 4076

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Entrapment of the deep peroneal nerve beneath the inferior extensor retinaculum (anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome) typically results in sensory loss in which of the following distributions?

. Plantar aspect of the heel
. Lateral border of the foot
. Dorsum of the first web space
. Medial aspect of the great toe
. Dorsal aspect of the fifth toe

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantar aspect of the heel


Explanation

The deep peroneal nerve provides motor innervation to the short toe extensors and sensory innervation strictly to the first dorsal web space of the foot.

Question 4077

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The 'master knot of Henry' is a surgically important anatomical landmark in the plantar aspect of the foot. It is characterized by the crossing of which two tendons?

. Flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus
. Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus
. Peroneus longus and flexor digitorum longus
. Flexor hallucis longus and tibialis anterior
. Extensor hallucis longus and flexor hallucis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus


Explanation

The master knot of Henry is located at the level of the navicular bone, where the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon.

Question 4078

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a lateral extensile approach to the calcaneus for fracture fixation, the sural nerve is at risk. What is its typical anatomical location relative to the lateral malleolus?

. 1 cm anterior
. 2 cm anterior
. Posterior and inferior
. Directly over the tip of the malleolus
. Deep to the peroneal tendons

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 cm anterior


Explanation

The sural nerve travels posterior and inferior to the lateral malleolus alongside the short saphenous vein. It provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the foot and ankle.

Question 4079

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old male sustains a severe knee trauma resulting in a proximal fibula fracture and complete common peroneal nerve palsy. On physical examination, which of the following specific sensory deficits is expected alongside a foot drop?

. Loss of sensation over the medial aspect of the foot
. Loss of sensation on the plantar aspect of the heel
. Loss of sensation in the first dorsal web space and dorsolateral foot
. Loss of sensation exclusively on the lateral border of the foot
. Sensation remains entirely intact

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of sensation over the medial aspect of the foot


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and bifurcates into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves. Injury here causes foot drop (motor) and sensory loss over the dorsolateral foot (superficial) and first dorsal web space (deep).

Question 4080

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 25-year-old male sustains a traumatic anterior knee dislocation. Upon closed reduction, his Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is 0.7, and a CT angiogram confirms a popliteal artery occlusion. What is the maximum recommended warm ischemia time before irreversible muscle necrosis begins in the lower extremity?

. 2 hours
. 4 hours
. 6 hours
. 8 hours
. 12 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 hours


Explanation

Irreversible muscle necrosis and nerve damage in the lower extremity begin after 6 hours of warm ischemia. Emergent vascular shunting or repair must be completed within this timeframe to minimize the risk of amputation.