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Question 4021

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 60-year-old patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a unilaterally swollen, red, and warm foot without any open ulceration or history of trauma. Radiographs reveal fragmentation and periarticular debris around the tarsometatarsal joints.

What is the gold standard initial management?

. Total contact casting and non-weight-bearing
. Immediate intravenous antibiotics and operative debridement
. Primary midfoot arthrodesis with robust internal fixation
. Below-knee amputation
. Custom accommodative shoe wear and immediate physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total contact casting and non-weight-bearing


Explanation

The patient is presenting with acute Eichenholtz stage I (fragmentation) Charcot neuroarthropathy. The gold standard initial treatment to prevent progressive collapse is immobilization in a total contact cast with strict non-weight-bearing.

Question 4022

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old alpine skier reports a painful "snapping" sensation behind his lateral malleolus during a run. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness posterior to the lateral malleolus, with visible subluxation of tendons upon resisted foot eversion. Which retinacular structure is most likely disrupted?

. Superior peroneal retinaculum
. Inferior peroneal retinaculum
. Superior extensor retinaculum
. Inferior extensor retinaculum
. Flexor retinaculum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior peroneal retinaculum


Explanation

Peroneal tendon subluxation or dislocation is typically caused by a sudden force of dorsiflexion and inversion, leading to avulsion or disruption of the superior peroneal retinaculum from the fibula.

Question 4023

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old woman complains of burning pain in the third web space of her foot, which radiates into her toes. A "click" is palpated when compressing the metatarsal heads together (Mulder's sign). She has failed conservative management. When proceeding with surgical excision, what is the primary advantage of a dorsal approach over a plantar approach?

. It allows for earlier return to weight-bearing activities.
. It avoids the creation of a potentially painful plantar scar.
. It eliminates the risk of transecting the deep transverse metatarsal ligament.
. It preserves the vascular supply to the metatarsal heads better.
. It provides a more extensive view of the plantar aponeurosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It allows for earlier return to weight-bearing activities.


Explanation

The primary advantage of the dorsal approach for excising a Morton's neuroma is avoiding a plantar incision, which can result in a painful, functionally limiting plantar scar on a weight-bearing surface.

Question 4024

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old runner presents with deep, aching ankle pain 6 months after a severe ankle sprain. MRI confirms an osteochondral lesion on the posteromedial aspect of the talar dome. Based on classic descriptions of injury mechanics, this specific lesion is most commonly caused by which of the following mechanisms?

. Inversion and dorsiflexion
. Inversion and plantarflexion
. Eversion and plantarflexion
. External rotation and dorsiflexion
. Axial compression and eversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inversion and dorsiflexion


Explanation

Posteromedial osteochondral defects (OCDs) of the talus are classically caused by an inversion injury while the ankle is in plantarflexion. Anterolateral lesions are typically associated with inversion and dorsiflexion.

Question 4025

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient presents with burning and tingling on the plantar aspect of the foot, which worsens at night. Tinel's sign is positive over the posteromedial ankle. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is suspected. This syndrome is caused by entrapment of which nerve beneath which anatomic structure?

. Posterior tibial nerve beneath the flexor retinaculum
. Sural nerve beneath the superior peroneal retinaculum
. Deep peroneal nerve beneath the inferior extensor retinaculum
. Medial plantar nerve beneath the abductor hallucis fascia
. Saphenous nerve beneath the superficial fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior tibial nerve beneath the flexor retinaculum


Explanation

Tarsal tunnel syndrome is a compressive neuropathy of the posterior tibial nerve (or its branches) as it passes through the tarsal tunnel, which is roofed by the flexor retinaculum posterior to the medial malleolus.

Question 4026

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old boy presents with bilateral cavovarus feet. A Coleman block test is performed by placing his heel and lateral border of the foot on a block, allowing the first metatarsal to hang free. Upon doing so, his hindfoot varus corrects to neutral. What does this test result indicate regarding his deformity?

. He has a rigid, arthritic subtalar joint.
. His hindfoot varus is forefoot-driven by a plantarflexed first ray.
. His tibialis posterior tendon is ruptured or incompetent.
. His deformity requires a calcaneal closing wedge osteotomy.
. His varus deformity is primarily originating from the ankle joint.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. He has a rigid, arthritic subtalar joint.


Explanation

The Coleman block test evaluates hindfoot flexibility. If a hindfoot varus corrects to neutral when the plantarflexed first ray is allowed to hang free, it indicates the varus is secondary (flexible) and driven by the forefoot deformity.

Question 4027

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 68-year-old man with end-stage post-traumatic ankle arthritis is discussing surgical options with his orthopedic surgeon. He is considering a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA) versus an ankle arthrodesis. Which of the following conditions is considered an absolute contraindication to performing a total ankle arthroplasty?

. Patient age over 65 years
. Charcot neuroarthropathy
. Concomitant subtalar joint arthritis
. History of lateral ankle ligament reconstruction
. Mild associated osteopenia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient age over 65 years


Explanation

Charcot neuroarthropathy, active infection, absent leg sensation, and avascular necrosis of the talus (>50%) are absolute contraindications to total ankle arthroplasty due to unacceptably high rates of failure.

Question 4028

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a high-energy axial load injury to his plantarflexed foot. Weight-bearing radiographs and MRI confirm a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury with 3 mm of widening between the medial and middle cuneiforms. What is the most appropriate surgical management to minimize the risk of long-term disability and reoperation?

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with transarticular screws
. Primary arthrodesis of the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal joints
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning (CRPP)
. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with dorsal bridge plating
. Non-weight-bearing cast immobilization for 8 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with transarticular screws


Explanation

Recent literature demonstrates that primary arthrodesis yields superior functional outcomes and a lower reoperation rate compared to ORIF for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries. ORIF is typically reserved for injuries with significant bony fracture involvement.

Question 4029

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old man sustains a Hawkins Type III talar neck fracture following a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following blood vessels, which provides the dominant blood supply to the talar body, is most likely disrupted in this injury?

. Artery of the sinus tarsi
. Deltoid branch of the posterior tibial artery
. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Peroneal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the sinus tarsi


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, provides the dominant blood supply to the talar body. It is highly susceptible to disruption in displaced talar neck fractures, leading to a high risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 4030

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with a symptomatic hallux valgus deformity. Clinical examination reveals profound hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to address both the deformity and the underlying pathomechanics?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy
. First tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Modified Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

The modified Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is the procedure of choice for moderate to severe hallux valgus associated with first ray hypermobility. It stabilizes the medial column and effectively corrects the intermetatarsal angle.

Question 4031

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old aggressive skier experiences a sudden "pop" behind her lateral malleolus while aggressively edging. She now reports a painful snapping sensation over the lateral ankle with active dorsiflexion and eversion. Disruption of which of the following structures is the primary cause of this condition?

. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
. Inferior extensor retinaculum
. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Peroneus brevis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneofibular ligament


Explanation

The patient is presenting with peroneal tendon subluxation, which is caused by a tear or avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) from the lateral malleolus. Surgical repair with or without groove deepening is often required for active individuals.

Question 4032

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 55-year-old woman presents with progressive medial ankle pain and a new-onset flatfoot deformity. She is unable to perform a single-limb heel rise on the affected side, but her hindfoot remains passively correctable to neutral. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer to the navicular and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy
. Triple arthrodesis
. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Gastrocnemius recession alone
. Tibialis anterior tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer to the navicular and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy


Explanation

The patient has Stage II adult-acquired flatfoot deformity (flexible, unable to perform single-heel rise). The gold standard surgical treatment consists of an FDL tendon transfer to substitute for the incompetent posterior tibial tendon, combined with a medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy to correct hindfoot valgus.

Question 4033

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

An 18-year-old man with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with bilateral progressive cavovarus foot deformities. A Coleman block test demonstrates that the hindfoot varus is fully correctable. Which of the following muscle imbalances is the primary driver of the plantarflexed first ray in this patient?

. Tibialis posterior overpowers the peroneus brevis
. Peroneus longus overpowers the tibialis anterior
. Gastrocnemius overpowers the soleus
. Extensor hallucis longus overpowers the flexor hallucis longus
. Tibialis anterior overpowers the peroneus longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis posterior overpowers the peroneus brevis


Explanation

In Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, the typical cavovarus deformity is driven by the relatively preserved peroneus longus overpowering the weak tibialis anterior, causing a plantarflexed first ray. The Coleman block test confirms that the hindfoot varus is flexible and secondary to this forefoot driven deformity.

Question 4034

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 50-year-old man undergoes surgical debridement for chronic, refractory insertional Achilles tendinopathy with a prominent Haglund's deformity. Intraoperatively, extensive calcifications are removed, resulting in detachment of 60% of the Achilles tendon insertion. What is the most appropriate next step in the procedure?

. V-Y fractional lengthening of the gastrocnemius
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon transfer
. Flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon transfer
. Primary repair with suture anchors alone
. Achilles tendon allograft reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. V-Y fractional lengthening of the gastrocnemius


Explanation

When debridement of insertional Achilles tendinopathy requires detachment of more than 50% of the tendon footprint, augmentation with a Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) transfer is recommended to provide vascularity and biomechanical strength.

Question 4035

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a pronation-external rotation (PER) injury of the ankle, the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is subjected to significant stress. Which of the following syndesmotic ligaments is typically the first to rupture in this sequence?

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Interosseous membrane
. Transverse tibiofibular ligament
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)


Explanation

In external rotation injuries of the ankle involving the syndesmosis, the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is typically the first structure to fail, followed by the interosseous ligament and finally the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL).

Question 4036

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 60-year-old man presents with dorsal midfoot pain during push-off. Radiographs reveal a dorsal osteophyte at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, mild dorsal joint space narrowing, but preservation of the plantar articular cartilage (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 2). He has failed conservative management. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Cheilectomy of the first MTP joint
. Total joint arthroplasty
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Moberg dorsal closing wedge osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

For early-to-mid stage hallux rigidus (Grades 1 and 2) where the plantar cartilage is preserved and pain is primarily at the extremes of dorsiflexion, a cheilectomy (excision of the dorsal osteophyte and dorsal one-third of the metatarsal head) is the procedure of choice.

Question 4037

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 55-year-old patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a unilaterally swollen, erythematous, and warm foot. There are no skin breaks or ulcers, and inflammatory markers are normal. Radiographs demonstrate fragmentation, periarticular debris, and subluxation at the tarsometatarsal joints. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

. Intravenous antibiotics and urgent surgical debridement
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the midfoot
. Primary midfoot arthrodesis with a rigid plate
. Immobilization in a total contact cast and non-weight-bearing
. Below-knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous antibiotics and urgent surgical debridement


Explanation

The presentation is classic for acute Eichenholtz Stage I Charcot arthropathy (fragmentation stage). The mainstay of initial treatment to prevent progressive deformity is rigid immobilization, typically with a total contact cast, and strict non-weight-bearing.

Question 4038

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During the surgical reconstruction of a severe Lisfranc injury, anatomic restoration of the primary Lisfranc ligament is essential. What are the correct anatomical attachments of this ligament?

. Medial aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the 1st metatarsal
. Lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the 2nd metatarsal
. Medial aspect of the intermediate cuneiform to the medial base of the 2nd metatarsal
. Lateral aspect of the intermediate cuneiform to the medial base of the 3rd metatarsal
. Plantar aspect of the medial cuneiform to the plantar base of the 3rd metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the 1st metatarsal


Explanation

The primary Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that runs from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal.

Question 4039

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe hallux valgus. Clinical examination reveals hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Radiographs show an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 19 degrees and a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy alone
. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Proximal phalangeal hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

In patients with severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) and first TMT hypermobility, a first TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) provides powerful correction and stabilizes the medial column.

Question 4040

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 55-year-old woman presents with a flexible flatfoot deformity, marked forefoot abduction, and an inability to perform a single-leg heel raise. Radiographs demonstrate more than 40% uncoverage of the talar head. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?

. Medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and FDL transfer
. Lateral column lengthening, medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy, and FDL transfer
. Talonavicular arthrodesis alone
. Triple arthrodesis
. Subtalar arthroereisis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and FDL transfer


Explanation

Stage IIb PTTD is characterized by a flexible deformity with significant forefoot abduction. Treatment requires an FDL transfer, a medialuating calcaneal osteotomy for valgus, and a lateral column lengthening (Evans osteotomy) to correct the forefoot abduction.