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Question 3761

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

In severe rotational ankle fractures, the deltoid ligament may be disrupted. Which component of the deltoid ligament complex is the primary static restraint to lateral displacement and external rotation of the talus?

. Superficial tibiocalcaneal ligament
. Tibionavicular ligament
. Deep posterior tibiotalar ligament
. Anterior tibiotalar ligament
. Tibiospring ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial tibiocalcaneal ligament


Explanation

The deep posterior tibiotalar ligament is the strongest component of the deltoid ligament complex. It acts as the primary restraint against lateral shift and external rotation of the talus within the mortise.

Question 3762

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Fractures of the talar neck frequently lead to avascular necrosis of the talar body. The body of the talus receives its major blood supply from the artery of the tarsal canal, which is a direct branch of the:

. Anterior tibial artery
. Posterior tibial artery
. Peroneal artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Sural artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibial artery


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal arises from the posterior tibial artery and provides the dominant blood supply to the talar body. It forms an anastomotic sling with the artery of the sinus tarsi.

Question 3763

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon is performing a posterolateral approach to the ankle for fixation of a posterior malleolus fracture. During the superficial dissection, the sural nerve must be protected. The sural nerve runs in close proximity to which structure?

. Great saphenous vein
. Small saphenous vein
. Posterior tibial artery
. Peroneal artery
. Achilles tendon insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Great saphenous vein


Explanation

The sural nerve provides sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the distal third of the leg and lateral foot. It travels alongside the small saphenous vein in the posterolateral ankle.

Question 3764

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During an anterolateral approach to the distal tibia, the superficial peroneal nerve must be identified and protected. At what approximate level does this nerve typically pierce the deep fascia to become subcutaneous?

. 2-3 cm proximal to the ankle joint
. 10-15 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus
. At the level of the fibular neck
. 5 cm distal to the knee joint
. It does not pierce the deep fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2-3 cm proximal to the ankle joint


Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve provides motor innervation to the lateral compartment before piercing the deep crural fascia approximately 10 to 15 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus to provide dorsal foot sensation.

Question 3765

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The primary bony stabilizer of the Lisfranc joint complex is the base of the second metatarsal.

Which of the following accurately describes its articulation with the cuneiforms?

. Articulates with the middle cuneiform only
. Articulates with the medial and middle cuneiforms only
. Articulates with the middle and lateral cuneiforms only
. Articulates with the medial, middle, and lateral cuneiforms
. Articulates with the medial cuneiform and cuboid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Articulates with the middle cuneiform only


Explanation

The base of the second metatarsal forms a keystone that is recessed between the medial and lateral cuneiforms, articulating proximally with the middle cuneiform and medially/laterally with the medial and lateral cuneiforms, respectively.

Question 3766

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is commonly torn in syndesmotic ankle sprains. Where does this ligament primarily insert on the tibia?

. Gerdy's tubercle
. Chaput's tubercle
. Wagstaffe's tubercle
. Volkmann's tubercle
. Lister's tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gerdy's tubercle


Explanation

The AITFL inserts anteriorly on the tibia at Chaput's tubercle and on the fibula at Wagstaffe's tubercle. Volkmann's tubercle is the posterior tibial insertion for the PITFL.

Question 3767

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Following a proximal fibular fracture, a patient develops a deep peroneal nerve palsy. On physical examination, where would sensation most likely be decreased?

. Lateral aspect of the foot
. Plantar aspect of the foot
. First dorsal web space
. Dorsum of the foot excluding the first web space
. Medial aspect of the lower leg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the foot


Explanation

The deep peroneal nerve provides motor innervation to the anterior compartment of the leg. Its sensory distribution is exclusively limited to the first dorsal web space of the foot.

Question 3768

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When performing a lateral approach to the fibula, the superficial peroneal nerve is at risk as it exits the deep fascia to become subcutaneous. At approximately what distance proximal to the lateral malleolus does this typically occur?

. 2 to 3 cm
. 5 to 7 cm
. 10 to 12 cm
. 15 to 18 cm
. It remains subfascial until the foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 3 cm


Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve pierces the crural fascia to become subcutaneous in the lateral leg approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus.

Question 3769

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The spring ligament is a critical static stabilizer of the longitudinal arch of the foot, often implicated in adult acquired flatfoot deformity. What are its precise anatomical attachments?

. Calcaneus to cuboid
. Sustentaculum tali to the navicular
. Talus to navicular
. Medial malleolus to talus
. Anterior process of calcaneus to the medial cuneiform

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneus to cuboid


Explanation

The spring ligament, or plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, is a major support for the talar head. It originates from the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus and inserts onto the plantar-medial navicular.

Question 3770

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a percutaneous repair of an Achilles tendon rupture, the sural nerve is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury. At approximately what distance proximal to the calcaneal tuberosity does the sural nerve typically cross the lateral border of the Achilles tendon?

. 2 cm
. 5 cm
. 10 cm
. 15 cm
. 18 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 cm


Explanation

The sural nerve crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 9.8 to 10 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion. Sutures placed at this level or more proximally on the lateral side must be placed with caution.

Question 3771

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is a critical stabilizer of the ankle syndesmosis. It originates from the Chaput tubercle on the tibia and inserts onto which bony landmark on the fibula?

. Gerdy's tubercle
. Wagstaffe tubercle
. Lister's tubercle
. Volkmann's triangle
. Sustentaculum tali

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gerdy's tubercle


Explanation

The AITFL courses obliquely from the anterolateral tibial prominence (Chaput's tubercle) to the anterior fibular tubercle (Wagstaffe's tubercle). Avulsion fractures can occur at either of these insertions during syndesmotic injuries.

Question 3772

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Talar neck fractures are notorious for causing avascular necrosis of the talar body. The dominant blood supply to the body of the talus is provided by the artery of the tarsal canal, which is a branch of which major artery?

. Anterior tibial artery
. Posterior tibial artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Peroneal artery
. Medial plantar artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibial artery


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal is typically a branch of the posterior tibial artery and provides the dominant blood supply to the talar body. It forms an anastomotic sling with the artery of the sinus tarsi under the talar neck.

Question 3773

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old sustains a displaced talar neck fracture. The primary blood supply to the body of the talus, which is at highest risk of disruption in this injury, is provided by the artery of the tarsal canal. This artery is a direct branch of which of the following?

. Anterior tibial artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Peroneal artery
. Posterior tibial artery
. Medial plantar artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibial artery


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal provides the dominant blood supply to the body of the talus. It arises as a branch from the posterior tibial artery, usually about 1 cm proximal to its bifurcation.

Question 3774

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon is performing an open reduction and internal fixation of a calcaneus fracture via an extensile lateral approach. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the full-thickness subperiosteal dissection of the posterior vertical limb?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Medial plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve runs posterior to the lateral malleolus alongside the small saphenous vein. It is at significant risk of injury during the posterior vertical limb of the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus.

Question 3775

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

An extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus is planned for an intra-articular fracture. The surgeon must elevate a full-thickness flap to avoid wound necrosis. Which nerve is most at risk during the initial incision and flap elevation?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve travels posterior to the lateral malleolus and courses along the lateral aspect of the hindfoot. It must be included within the full-thickness flap to prevent iatrogenic transection or neuroma formation.

Question 3776

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon is performing an extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus for an intra-articular fracture. Retraction of the full-thickness inferior flap places which of the following structures at highest risk?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Medial plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve and lesser saphenous vein are located in the lateral subcutaneous tissues of the hindfoot. They must be carefully elevated and protected within the full-thickness inferior flap during an extensile lateral approach.

Question 3777

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

In a patient with a suspected ankle syndesmotic injury, which ligament serves as the primary restraint to anterior translation of the distal fibula relative to the tibia?

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
. Interosseous ligament
. Deltoid ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament


Explanation

The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) is the primary restraint against anterior translation of the distal fibula. It is frequently the first structure torn in external rotation injuries of the syndesmosis.

Question 3778

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a posterolateral approach to the distal fibula for fracture fixation, a cutaneous nerve is identified and protected. What is the standard anatomical course of this nerve at the level of the ankle?

. Anterior to the medial malleolus
. Posterior to the medial malleolus
. Anterior to the lateral malleolus
. Posterior to the lateral malleolus
. Superficial to the anterior tibial tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the medial malleolus


Explanation

The sural nerve provides sensory innervation to the lateral foot and travels posterior to the lateral malleolus alongside the small saphenous vein.

Question 3779

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Following a traumatic knee dislocation, a patient is noted to have a dense foot drop and inability to evert the foot. The injured nerve is most vulnerable as it courses around the fibular neck. Between which two structures does this nerve pass as it enters the anterior compartment of the leg?

. Soleus and gastrocnemius
. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus
. Peroneus longus and the fibula
. Lateral gastrocnemius and biceps femoris
. Tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Soleus and gastrocnemius


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck, passing between the peroneus longus muscle and the fibula before dividing into its deep and superficial branches.

Question 3780

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old man sustains an anterior knee dislocation (Schenck KD III) during a motorcycle accident. Following closed reduction in the emergency department, ankle-brachial indices (ABI) are calculated at 0.85. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Routine clinical observation and serial neurovascular checks
. CT angiography of the lower extremity
. Immediate surgical exploration of the popliteal artery
. Duplex ultrasonography of the deep venous system
. Prophylactic four-compartment fasciotomies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT angiography of the lower extremity


Explanation

In cases of knee dislocations, an Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) less than 0.9 is highly suspicious for a vascular injury. This mandates immediate advanced imaging, typically CT angiography, to evaluate the integrity of the popliteal artery.