This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3461
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During the extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the surgeon must be careful to protect a neurovascular structure located immediately deep to the peroneal tendons at the level of the calcaneocuboid joint. What is this structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sural nerve
Explanation
The sural nerve courses along the lateral aspect of the foot, typically just posterior and inferior to the lateral malleolus. It must be carefully mobilized and protected during the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus.
Question 3462
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 52-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a red, hot, swollen left foot for 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. Radiographs show fragmentation, periarticular debris, and subluxation at the midfoot. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total contact casting and non-weight bearing
Explanation
This patient is presenting in Eichenholtz stage I (acute/fragmentation) of Charcot arthropathy. The mainstay of initial treatment is immobilization and offloading, typically with a total contact cast, until the acute inflammatory phase resolves.
Question 3463
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 60-year-old woman complains of progressive medial left ankle pain and a collapsing arch. On examination, she is unable to perform a single-leg heel raise on the left. Radiographs show a talonavicular uncoverage of 30% but preserved joint spaces and flexible hindfoot valgus. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy
Explanation
The patient has Stage II posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (flexible flatfoot). The gold standard surgical treatment involves soft tissue reconstruction (FDL transfer) combined with a bony procedure (calcaneal osteotomy) to correct the deformity.
Question 3464
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 15-year-old boy with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with bilateral cavovarus foot deformities. A Coleman block test is performed and the hindfoot corrects to neutral. What does this indicate about his deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The hindfoot varus is driven by a plantarflexed first ray
Explanation
The Coleman block test evaluates hindfoot flexibility. If the hindfoot varus corrects when the first ray is allowed to drop off the block, the varus is flexible and primarily driven by a rigid plantarflexed first ray.
Question 3465
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 13-year-old boy presents with frequent ankle sprains and rigid flatfeet. Radiographs reveal an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus (the "anteater nose" sign). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
Explanation
The "anteater nose" sign on a lateral foot radiograph is classic for a calcaneonavicular coalition. A talocalcaneal coalition may show the "C-sign" on the lateral view.
Question 3466
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old skier presents with lateral ankle pain and a snapping sensation behind the fibula following an acute dorsiflexion injury. Examination reveals apprehension and palpable subluxation of tendons over the lateral malleolus with resisted eversion. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
Explanation
The superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) restrains the peroneal tendons within the retromalleolar groove. Injury to the SPR leads to peroneal tendon subluxation or dislocation, which is common in skiing injuries.
Question 3467
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During fixation of a pronation-external rotation ankle fracture, the surgeon performs a Cotton test which demonstrates widening of the medial clear space and the tibiofibular clear space. A syndesmotic screw is planned. Which of the following statements regarding syndesmotic screw fixation is most accurate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Routine removal of asymptomatic syndesmotic screws is not required
Explanation
Current evidence indicates that routine removal of syndesmotic screws is not necessary unless they are symptomatic. Broken screws do not adversely affect functional outcomes and often indicate restored syndesmotic micro-motion.
Question 3468
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The Lisfranc ligament complex is critical for midfoot stability. Which of the following correctly describes the anatomical attachments of the primary interosseous Lisfranc ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament crucial for midfoot stability. It originates from the medial cuneiform and inserts onto the base of the second metatarsal.
Question 3469
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 42-year-old man sustains a complete acute rupture of the Achilles tendon. The injury occurred in the hypovascular "watershed" region. At what distance proximal to the calcaneal insertion does this hypovascular zone typically occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 to 6 cm
Explanation
The Achilles tendon has a hypovascular watershed region that makes it vulnerable to rupture and poor healing. This zone is typically located 2 to 6 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus.
Question 3470
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old professional rugby player sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury after an axial load to a plantarflexed foot. He elects to undergo surgical intervention. According to recent literature, which of the following is the primary advantage of primary arthrodesis over open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) for this specific injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased rate of secondary surgeries for hardware removal
Explanation
Primary arthrodesis for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries results in comparable functional outcomes to ORIF but significantly decreases the need for secondary surgeries. ORIF often requires planned hardware removal and has a higher rate of subsequent midfoot arthritis requiring salvage arthrodesis.
Question 3471
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old woman presents with progressive medial foot pain and a "fallen arch." Examination reveals a flexible flatfoot deformity with an inability to perform a single-leg heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs show 45% uncovering of the talonavicular joint. Which of the following surgical combinations is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. FDL transfer, MDCO, and lateral column lengthening
Explanation
This patient has Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD), characterized by a flexible flatfoot with significant forefoot abduction (>30% talonavicular uncovering). Management requires FDL transfer, MDCO to correct hindfoot valgus, and lateral column lengthening (e.g., Evans osteotomy) to correct the severe forefoot abduction.
Question 3472
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 16-year-old boy with Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease presents with bilateral progressive cavovarus foot deformities. A Coleman block test normalizes the hindfoot varus. Which of the following muscle imbalances is the primary initiator of this deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Strong peroneus longus overpowering a weak tibialis anterior
Explanation
In CMT, the classical muscle imbalance involves a strong peroneus longus overpowering a weak tibialis anterior, causing plantarflexion of the first ray. This drives forefoot pronation and a compensatory, flexible hindfoot varus that corrects on a Coleman block test.
Question 3473
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 32-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute mid-substance Achilles tendon rupture. He elects to undergo percutaneous surgical repair to minimize scar size. During this procedure, which of the following structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sural nerve
Explanation
The sural nerve crosses from medial to lateral posterior to the Achilles tendon and is highly vulnerable during percutaneous or minimally invasive Achilles tendon repairs. Surgeons must carefully spread the soft tissues down to the paratenon when placing percutaneous sutures laterally.
Question 3474
Topic: Forefoot
A 52-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Clinical examination demonstrates gross sagittal plane hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Radiographs show a hallux valgus angle of 42 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to minimize recurrence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
Explanation
A first TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is indicated for severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) in the presence of first ray hypermobility. This procedure corrects the intermetatarsal angle while simultaneously stabilizing the hypermobile first TMT joint, preventing deformity recurrence.
Question 3475
Topic: Forefoot
A trauma surgeon is performing a transolecranon approach for the open reduction and internal fixation of an intercondylar distal humerus fracture (AO type 13-C3). To optimize healing and joint stability, what is the preferred osteotomy shape and orientation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Chevron osteotomy with the apex directed distally
Explanation
A chevron-shaped osteotomy with the apex directed distally is preferred. This shape maximizes the surface area for healing and provides intrinsic rotational stability to the osteotomy site upon repair.
Question 3476
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During a tarsal tunnel release, the surgeon sequentially identifies structures from anteromedial to posterolateral behind the medial malleolus. Which structure lies immediately posterior to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior tibial artery
Explanation
The structures of the tarsal tunnel from anterior to posterior are the Tibialis posterior, flexor Digitorum longus, posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, tibial Nerve, and flexor Hallucis longus (Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry). Thus, the artery is immediately posterior to the FDL.
Question 3477
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When harvesting an autogenous structural bone graft from the medial distal tibia, a longitudinal incision is typically made over the medial aspect of the medial malleolus. Which structure is most susceptible to iatrogenic injury during the superficial exposure in this region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Saphenous nerve
Explanation
The saphenous nerve and great saphenous vein run superficially along the anteromedial aspect of the leg and medial malleolus. They are highly susceptible to injury during medial approaches to the distal tibia, which can result in medial foot numbness or neuromas.
Question 3478
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient undergoes a minimally invasive percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture using a specialized passing jig. Following surgery, the patient reports severe lateral foot numbness and radiating pain. Entrapment of which nerve by a proximolateral locking suture most likely occurred?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sural nerve
Explanation
The sural nerve courses laterally to the Achilles tendon in the distal third of the leg. It is highly vulnerable to iatrogenic capture or injury during percutaneous Achilles tendon repairs, particularly by proximolateral stab incisions and suture passes.
Question 3479
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When performing an extensile lateral approach for an intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the peroneal tendons must be mobilized in the full-thickness flap. At the level of the fibular tubercle (trochlea) on the lateral calcaneus, what is the anatomical relationship of the peroneal tendons?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneus brevis is superior to the tubercle and Peroneus longus is inferior
Explanation
The peroneus brevis passes superior to the fibular tubercle to insert on the base of the 5th metatarsal. The peroneus longus passes inferior to the tubercle before entering the cuboid groove to cross the plantar foot.
Question 3480
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient requires a surgical release for tarsal tunnel syndrome. The flexor retinaculum is divided. What is the correct anterior-to-posterior (medial-to-lateral) order of the structures passing behind the medial malleolus?
The order of structures in the tarsal tunnel from anterior to posterior is: Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, posterior tibial Artery, tibial Nerve, Flexor Hallucis Longus. This is remembered by the mnemonic 'Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry'.
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