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Question 3461

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During the extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the surgeon must be careful to protect a neurovascular structure located immediately deep to the peroneal tendons at the level of the calcaneocuboid joint. What is this structure?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Lateral plantar nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Medial plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve courses along the lateral aspect of the foot, typically just posterior and inferior to the lateral malleolus. It must be carefully mobilized and protected during the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus.

Question 3462

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 52-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a red, hot, swollen left foot for 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. Radiographs show fragmentation, periarticular debris, and subluxation at the midfoot. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Urgent irrigation and debridement
. Total contact casting and non-weight bearing
. Midfoot arthrodesis with robust fixation
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Below knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total contact casting and non-weight bearing


Explanation

This patient is presenting in Eichenholtz stage I (acute/fragmentation) of Charcot arthropathy. The mainstay of initial treatment is immobilization and offloading, typically with a total contact cast, until the acute inflammatory phase resolves.

Question 3463

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 60-year-old woman complains of progressive medial left ankle pain and a collapsing arch. On examination, she is unable to perform a single-leg heel raise on the left. Radiographs show a talonavicular uncoverage of 30% but preserved joint spaces and flexible hindfoot valgus. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Talonavicular arthrodesis
. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy
. Triple arthrodesis
. Tibiotalocalcaneal (TTC) arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy


Explanation

The patient has Stage II posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (flexible flatfoot). The gold standard surgical treatment involves soft tissue reconstruction (FDL transfer) combined with a bony procedure (calcaneal osteotomy) to correct the deformity.

Question 3464

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 15-year-old boy with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with bilateral cavovarus foot deformities. A Coleman block test is performed and the hindfoot corrects to neutral. What does this indicate about his deformity?

. The hindfoot varus is rigid and requires a calcaneal osteotomy
. The hindfoot varus is driven by a plantarflexed first ray
. There is an isolated Achilles tendon contracture
. He requires a triple arthrodesis
. The deformity is primarily driven by anterior tibial tendon weakness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The hindfoot varus is driven by a plantarflexed first ray


Explanation

The Coleman block test evaluates hindfoot flexibility. If the hindfoot varus corrects when the first ray is allowed to drop off the block, the varus is flexible and primarily driven by a rigid plantarflexed first ray.

Question 3465

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 13-year-old boy presents with frequent ankle sprains and rigid flatfeet. Radiographs reveal an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus (the "anteater nose" sign). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Accessory navicular syndrome
. Muller-Weiss disease
. Kohler's disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular coalition


Explanation

The "anteater nose" sign on a lateral foot radiograph is classic for a calcaneonavicular coalition. A talocalcaneal coalition may show the "C-sign" on the lateral view.

Question 3466

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old skier presents with lateral ankle pain and a snapping sensation behind the fibula following an acute dorsiflexion injury. Examination reveals apprehension and palpable subluxation of tendons over the lateral malleolus with resisted eversion. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Superior extensor retinaculum
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
. Inferior peroneal retinaculum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior peroneal retinaculum


Explanation

The superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) restrains the peroneal tendons within the retromalleolar groove. Injury to the SPR leads to peroneal tendon subluxation or dislocation, which is common in skiing injuries.

Question 3467

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During fixation of a pronation-external rotation ankle fracture, the surgeon performs a Cotton test which demonstrates widening of the medial clear space and the tibiofibular clear space. A syndesmotic screw is planned. Which of the following statements regarding syndesmotic screw fixation is most accurate?

. Screws must be removed prior to weight bearing to prevent syndesmotic widening
. A single 3.5 mm screw is biomechanically superior to a single 4.5 mm screw
. Routine removal of asymptomatic syndesmotic screws is not required
. Screws should be placed parallel to the ankle joint and strictly in the coronal plane
. Fixation should always engage exactly four cortices

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Routine removal of asymptomatic syndesmotic screws is not required


Explanation

Current evidence indicates that routine removal of syndesmotic screws is not necessary unless they are symptomatic. Broken screws do not adversely affect functional outcomes and often indicate restored syndesmotic micro-motion.

Question 3468

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The Lisfranc ligament complex is critical for midfoot stability. Which of the following correctly describes the anatomical attachments of the primary interosseous Lisfranc ligament?

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the first metatarsal
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Middle cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Lateral cuneiform to the base of the third metatarsal
. Cuboid to the base of the fourth metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament crucial for midfoot stability. It originates from the medial cuneiform and inserts onto the base of the second metatarsal.

Question 3469

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 42-year-old man sustains a complete acute rupture of the Achilles tendon. The injury occurred in the hypovascular "watershed" region. At what distance proximal to the calcaneal insertion does this hypovascular zone typically occur?

. 0 to 2 cm
. 2 to 6 cm
. 6 to 10 cm
. 10 to 14 cm
. Proximal to the musculotendinous junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 6 cm


Explanation

The Achilles tendon has a hypovascular watershed region that makes it vulnerable to rupture and poor healing. This zone is typically located 2 to 6 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus.

Question 3470

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old professional rugby player sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury after an axial load to a plantarflexed foot. He elects to undergo surgical intervention. According to recent literature, which of the following is the primary advantage of primary arthrodesis over open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) for this specific injury pattern?

. Higher rate of returning to pre-injury level of sport
. Decreased rate of secondary surgeries for hardware removal
. Better preservation of physiologic midfoot motion
. Significantly lower risk of post-operative infection
. Shorter required period of non-weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased rate of secondary surgeries for hardware removal


Explanation

Primary arthrodesis for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries results in comparable functional outcomes to ORIF but significantly decreases the need for secondary surgeries. ORIF often requires planned hardware removal and has a higher rate of subsequent midfoot arthritis requiring salvage arthrodesis.

Question 3471

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 55-year-old woman presents with progressive medial foot pain and a "fallen arch." Examination reveals a flexible flatfoot deformity with an inability to perform a single-leg heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs show 45% uncovering of the talonavicular joint. Which of the following surgical combinations is most appropriate?

. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer to the navicular alone
. FDL transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy (MDCO) only
. FDL transfer, MDCO, and lateral column lengthening
. Isolated triple arthrodesis
. Isolated talonavicular arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. FDL transfer, MDCO, and lateral column lengthening


Explanation

This patient has Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD), characterized by a flexible flatfoot with significant forefoot abduction (>30% talonavicular uncovering). Management requires FDL transfer, MDCO to correct hindfoot valgus, and lateral column lengthening (e.g., Evans osteotomy) to correct the severe forefoot abduction.

Question 3472

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 16-year-old boy with Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease presents with bilateral progressive cavovarus foot deformities. A Coleman block test normalizes the hindfoot varus. Which of the following muscle imbalances is the primary initiator of this deformity?

. Strong tibialis posterior overpowering a weak peroneus brevis
. Strong peroneus longus overpowering a weak tibialis anterior
. Weak gastrocnemius overpowering a strong soleus
. Strong tibialis anterior overpowering a weak peroneus longus
. Strong extensor hallucis longus overpowering a weak flexor hallucis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Strong peroneus longus overpowering a weak tibialis anterior


Explanation

In CMT, the classical muscle imbalance involves a strong peroneus longus overpowering a weak tibialis anterior, causing plantarflexion of the first ray. This drives forefoot pronation and a compensatory, flexible hindfoot varus that corrects on a Coleman block test.

Question 3473

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 32-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute mid-substance Achilles tendon rupture. He elects to undergo percutaneous surgical repair to minimize scar size. During this procedure, which of the following structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Saphenous nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve crosses from medial to lateral posterior to the Achilles tendon and is highly vulnerable during percutaneous or minimally invasive Achilles tendon repairs. Surgeons must carefully spread the soft tissues down to the paratenon when placing percutaneous sutures laterally.

Question 3474

Topic: Forefoot

A 52-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Clinical examination demonstrates gross sagittal plane hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Radiographs show a hallux valgus angle of 42 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to minimize recurrence?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. First TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)


Explanation

A first TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is indicated for severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) in the presence of first ray hypermobility. This procedure corrects the intermetatarsal angle while simultaneously stabilizing the hypermobile first TMT joint, preventing deformity recurrence.

Question 3475

Topic: Forefoot

A trauma surgeon is performing a transolecranon approach for the open reduction and internal fixation of an intercondylar distal humerus fracture (AO type 13-C3). To optimize healing and joint stability, what is the preferred osteotomy shape and orientation?

. Chevron osteotomy with the apex directed distally
. Chevron osteotomy with the apex directed proximally
. Transverse osteotomy exactly at the bare area
. Oblique osteotomy from medial to lateral
. Oblique osteotomy from lateral to medial

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chevron osteotomy with the apex directed distally


Explanation

A chevron-shaped osteotomy with the apex directed distally is preferred. This shape maximizes the surface area for healing and provides intrinsic rotational stability to the osteotomy site upon repair.

Question 3476

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During a tarsal tunnel release, the surgeon sequentially identifies structures from anteromedial to posterolateral behind the medial malleolus. Which structure lies immediately posterior to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon?

. Tibialis posterior tendon
. Posterior tibial artery
. Tibial nerve
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
. Saphenous vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior tibial artery


Explanation

The structures of the tarsal tunnel from anterior to posterior are the Tibialis posterior, flexor Digitorum longus, posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, tibial Nerve, and flexor Hallucis longus (Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry). Thus, the artery is immediately posterior to the FDL.

Question 3477

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When harvesting an autogenous structural bone graft from the medial distal tibia, a longitudinal incision is typically made over the medial aspect of the medial malleolus. Which structure is most susceptible to iatrogenic injury during the superficial exposure in this region?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Saphenous nerve


Explanation

The saphenous nerve and great saphenous vein run superficially along the anteromedial aspect of the leg and medial malleolus. They are highly susceptible to injury during medial approaches to the distal tibia, which can result in medial foot numbness or neuromas.

Question 3478

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient undergoes a minimally invasive percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture using a specialized passing jig. Following surgery, the patient reports severe lateral foot numbness and radiating pain. Entrapment of which nerve by a proximolateral locking suture most likely occurred?

. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Sural nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve courses laterally to the Achilles tendon in the distal third of the leg. It is highly vulnerable to iatrogenic capture or injury during percutaneous Achilles tendon repairs, particularly by proximolateral stab incisions and suture passes.

Question 3479

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When performing an extensile lateral approach for an intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the peroneal tendons must be mobilized in the full-thickness flap. At the level of the fibular tubercle (trochlea) on the lateral calcaneus, what is the anatomical relationship of the peroneal tendons?

. Peroneus brevis is superior to the tubercle and Peroneus longus is inferior
. Peroneus longus is superior to the tubercle and Peroneus brevis is inferior
. Both tendons pass superior to the tubercle
. Both tendons pass inferior to the tubercle
. Both pass medially through the tarsal tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus brevis is superior to the tubercle and Peroneus longus is inferior


Explanation

The peroneus brevis passes superior to the fibular tubercle to insert on the base of the 5th metatarsal. The peroneus longus passes inferior to the tubercle before entering the cuboid groove to cross the plantar foot.

Question 3480

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient requires a surgical release for tarsal tunnel syndrome. The flexor retinaculum is divided. What is the correct anterior-to-posterior (medial-to-lateral) order of the structures passing behind the medial malleolus?

. Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, Tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, Flexor Hallucis Longus
. Tibialis posterior, Flexor Hallucis Longus, Tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, Flexor Digitorum Longus
. Flexor Digitorum Longus, Tibialis posterior, Tibial Nerve, Tibial Artery, Flexor Hallucis Longus
. Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, Tibial Nerve, Tibial Artery, Flexor Hallucis Longus
. Flexor Hallucis Longus, Tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, Flexor Digitorum Longus, Tibialis posterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, Tibial Artery, Tibial Nerve, Flexor Hallucis Longus


Explanation

The order of structures in the tarsal tunnel from anterior to posterior is: Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, posterior tibial Artery, tibial Nerve, Flexor Hallucis Longus. This is remembered by the mnemonic 'Tom, Dick, And Very Nervous Harry'.