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Question 3361

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following statements correctly differentiates the typical characteristics of anterolateral versus posteromedial osteochondral lesions of the talus (OCD)?

. Anterolateral lesions are typically deep and cup-shaped
. Posteromedial lesions are typically larger, more symptomatic, and superficial
. Anterolateral lesions are highly associated with a clear history of trauma
. Posteromedial lesions are universally associated with lateral ligamentous instability
. Anterolateral lesions frequently heal spontaneously without intervention

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral lesions are highly associated with a clear history of trauma


Explanation

Anterolateral talar dome lesions are characteristically shallow, wafer-shaped, and usually associated with acute trauma (e.g., ankle sprain). Posteromedial lesions are typically deeper, cup-shaped, and often insidious or atraumatic in nature.

Question 3362

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old professional football player sustains a turf toe injury while pushing off the line of scrimmage. Examination shows localized tenderness over the plantar aspect of the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint and pain with passive motion. What is the primary mechanism resulting in tearing of the plantar plate complex?

. Hyperflexion of the first MTP joint
. Hyperextension of the first MTP joint
. Axial loading with the ankle in maximal dorsiflexion
. Varus stress to the first MTP joint
. Valgus stress to the first MTP joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperextension of the first MTP joint


Explanation

Turf toe is an injury to the plantar plate and capsuloligamentous complex of the first MTP joint. It is classically caused by forced hyperextension of the MTP joint while the foot is fixed in equinus, often on artificial playing surfaces.

Question 3363

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle



In a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the anteromedial (sustentaculum tali) fragment typically remains in its anatomic position relative to the talus despite severe displacement of the tuberosity. Which structure is primarily responsible for securing this 'constant' fragment to the talus?

. Bifurcate ligament
. Cervical ligament
. Interosseous talocalcaneal ligament
. Deltoid ligament
. Plantar fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deltoid ligament


Explanation

The sustentaculum tali is often referred to as the 'constant fragment' in calcaneus fractures because it is tightly bound to the talus by the strong deep deltoid ligament (tibiocalcaneal fibers) and medial talocalcaneal ligaments.

Question 3364

Topic: Forefoot

A 65-year-old male presents with severe pain and stiffness in his right great toe. Clinical examination reveals palpable dorsal osteophytes and pain throughout the arc of first MTP joint motion. Radiographs show complete joint space obliteration and dorsal osteophytosis. What is the most reliable definitive surgical treatment?

. Cheilectomy
. Moberg osteotomy
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Silicone implant arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

The patient has end-stage (Grade 3 or 4) hallux rigidus with diffuse pain and joint space obliteration. Arthrodesis is the gold standard and most reliable procedure for pain relief and functional restoration in severe hallux rigidus.

Question 3365

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 58-year-old patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a chronic, non-healing neuropathic ulcer on the plantar forefoot. Which of the following non-invasive vascular studies indicates the highest likelihood of successful wound healing?

. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) of 0.35
. Toe systolic pressure > 40 mm Hg
. Transcutaneous oxygen tension (TcPO2) of 15 mm Hg
. Loss of triphasic waveforms on Doppler ultrasound
. Serum albumin of 2.8 g/dL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Toe systolic pressure > 40 mm Hg


Explanation

Wound healing in diabetic patients is highly dependent on adequate perfusion. A toe systolic pressure greater than 40 mm Hg or a TcPO2 greater than 30-40 mm Hg are excellent predictors of healing potential in distal lower extremity amputations and ulcers.

Question 3366

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old female complains of sharp, burning pain radiating to her 3rd and 4th toes, worsening with tight-fitting shoes. A positive Mulder's click is elicited. If the offending lesion is surgically excised, what is the classic histologic finding on pathology?

. Proliferation of atypical Schwann cells
. Epithelioid cells with prominent nucleoli
. Perineural fibrosis and nerve degeneration
. Granulomatous inflammation with giant cells
. Demyelination with extensive lymphocytic infiltration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perineural fibrosis and nerve degeneration


Explanation

Morton's neuroma is not a true neoplasm but rather a compressive neuropathy. Histology classically demonstrates perineural fibrosis, endoneurial edema, and nerve fiber degeneration secondary to repetitive microtrauma and compression.

Question 3367

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient presents with burning pain and numbness on the plantar aspect of the foot that worsens with prolonged standing. Tinel's sign is positive when percussing the retromalleolar groove behind the medial malleolus. Which nerve is compressed within the tarsal tunnel?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Tibial nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial nerve


Explanation

Tarsal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the posterior tibial nerve or its branches (medial/lateral plantar nerves) beneath the flexor retinaculum at the medial ankle.

Question 3368

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a hyperplantarflexion injury to his foot. On examination, he has significant swelling over the midfoot and plantar ecchymosis. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a 2.5 mm diastasis between the bases of the first and second metatarsals. What is the primary stabilizing structure of the disrupted joint complex?

. Dorsal Lisfranc ligament
. Plantar Lisfranc ligament
. Interosseous Lisfranc ligament
. Spring ligament
. Plantar fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interosseous Lisfranc ligament


Explanation

The interosseous Lisfranc ligament connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal and is the strongest, primary stabilizer of the Lisfranc complex. Plantar ecchymosis is considered a pathognomonic clinical sign for a Lisfranc injury.

Question 3369

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old man falls from a height and sustains a Hawkins type II fracture of the talar neck. Which of the following best describes the disruption of blood supply associated with this specific injury pattern?

. Artery of the tarsal canal is intact
. Branches from the dorsalis pedis are typically intact
. Disruption of blood supply from the deltoid branches only
. Disruption of the artery of the tarsal canal and branches of the dorsalis pedis
. Disruption of all three major blood supplies to the talus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Disruption of the artery of the tarsal canal and branches of the dorsalis pedis


Explanation

A Hawkins II fracture is a talar neck fracture associated with subtalar subluxation or dislocation. This displacement typically disrupts the blood supply from both the artery of the tarsal canal and the branches of the dorsalis pedis, while the deltoid branches usually remain intact.

Question 3370

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

In adult acquired flatfoot deformity (posterior tibial tendon dysfunction), the spring ligament complex is often attenuated. Which specific band of the spring ligament is the primary static stabilizer of the talonavicular joint and is most commonly torn?

. Inferomedial calcaneonavicular ligament
. Superomedial calcaneonavicular ligament
. Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
. Medioplantar oblique ligament
. Dorsal talonavicular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superomedial calcaneonavicular ligament


Explanation

The superomedial calcaneonavicular ligament is the most robust component of the spring ligament complex. It acts as the primary static stabilizer of the talonavicular joint and is the most frequently attenuated or torn band in adult acquired flatfoot deformity.

Question 3371

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 50-year-old woman presents with dorsal forefoot pain and limited hallux extension. Radiographs show a dorsal osteophyte on the first metatarsal head and joint space narrowing on the dorsal half of the joint, but preservation of the plantar joint space. She has 30 degrees of dorsiflexion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention if conservative management fails?

. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. First MTP joint arthroplasty
. Cheilectomy
. Proximal phalanx osteotomy (Moberg)
. Keller arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cheilectomy


Explanation

This presentation is consistent with Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 2 hallux rigidus (preserved plantar joint space, moderate dorsal osteophytes). A cheilectomy, which involves excision of the dorsal osteophyte and dorsal 30% of the metatarsal head, is highly successful for Grades 1 and 2 hallux rigidus.

Question 3372

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When performing an extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, full-thickness flaps are developed. Which nerve is most at risk of iatrogenic injury if the vertical limb of the incision is placed too anteriorly?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Lateral plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve courses posterior to the lateral malleolus and provides sensation to the lateral foot. It is at high risk of injury during the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus, particularly if the vertical limb is placed too anteriorly or if the flap is not raised full-thickness to bone.

Question 3373

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 22-year-old dancer undergoes a modified Broström procedure for chronic lateral ankle instability. The Gould modification of this procedure specifically involves the mobilization and advancement of which structure to augment the primary repair?
. Plantaris tendon
. Peroneus brevis tendon
. Inferior extensor retinaculum
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
. Anterior talofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior extensor retinaculum


Explanation

The classic Broström procedure involves direct anatomic repair of the anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments. The Gould modification reinforces this repair by mobilizing the lateral root of the inferior extensor retinaculum and suturing it over the repaired ligaments to the distal fibula.

Question 3374

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old woman complains of burning pain in her forefoot that radiates into her toes, exacerbated by wearing tight shoes. A clinical diagnosis of Morton's neuroma is established. This pathology most commonly occurs in the third intermetatarsal space because:

. It is the narrowest intermetatarsal space.
. The interdigital nerve here typically receives anastomotic branches from both the medial and lateral plantar nerves.
. The third metatarsal head has an increased plantar prominence.
. There is a lack of a deep transverse metatarsal ligament in this space.
. It is highly susceptible to avascular necrosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The interdigital nerve here typically receives anastomotic branches from both the medial and lateral plantar nerves.


Explanation

Morton's neuroma most frequently affects the third web space. Anatomically, the third common digital nerve often receives communicating branches from both the medial and lateral plantar nerves, making it thicker and more prone to compression beneath the deep transverse metatarsal ligament.

Question 3375

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A collegiate football player presents with severe pain at the base of his great toe after being tackled while his foot was planted and his heel raised. MRI confirms a severe "Turf Toe" injury. Which of the following anatomic structures is primarily disrupted in this condition?

. Dorsal capsule of the first MTP joint
. Plantar plate of the first MTP joint
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
. Extensor hallucis longus tendon
. Abductor hallucis insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantar plate of the first MTP joint


Explanation

"Turf toe" is a hyperextension (hyper-dorsiflexion) injury to the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. The primary pathology is a sprain or complete tear of the plantar plate and the capsuloligamentous complex of the first MTP joint.

Question 3376

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During surgical fixation of a lateral malleolus fracture, the orthopedic surgeon performs a "Cotton test" to dynamically evaluate the integrity of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis. This intraoperative test involves:

. External rotation of the foot with the ankle fully dorsiflexed.
. Squeezing the tibia and fibula together at the mid-calf.
. Applying a lateral pulling force to the fibula using a bone hook.
. Translating the talus anteriorly within the ankle mortise.
. Assessing medial clear space widening with weight-bearing views.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Applying a lateral pulling force to the fibula using a bone hook.


Explanation

The intraoperative Cotton test involves placing a bone hook or reduction clamp around the fibula and applying a direct lateral, outward force. Widening of the syndesmosis observed under fluoroscopy indicates instability requiring syndesmotic screw or button fixation.

Question 3377

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 65-year-old man undergoes surgical debridement for chronic insertional Achilles tendinopathy with a large Haglund's deformity. Intraoperatively, the surgeon must detach 60% of the Achilles tendon insertion to completely resect the diseased tendinosis and the calcaneal exostosis. What is the most appropriate next step in surgical management?

. Primary repair of the remaining Achilles tendon using heavy non-absorbable suture anchors alone.
. Augmentation of the repair with a Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) tendon transfer.
. Augmentation of the repair with a Peroneus Brevis tendon transfer.
. Gastrocnemius recession alone to offload the remaining tendon.
. Calcaneal closing wedge osteotomy (Zadek procedure).

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Augmentation of the repair with a Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) tendon transfer.


Explanation

When more than 50% of the Achilles tendon insertion must be detached to adequately debride insertional tendinopathy, the primary repair should be augmented. A Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) transfer is the gold standard augmentation due to its robust strength, anatomic proximity, and in-phase firing.

Question 3378

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Figures 17a through 17c show the radiographs of a 38-year-old man following a motorcycle accident. The posterior portion of the talus extruded through a posterolateral wound. The extruded talar body is visible in the wound along with some road debris. Management should now consist of surgical irrigation, debridement, and

. removal of the extruded talus and placement of an external fixator.
. immediate tibiocalcaneal fusion.
. reimplantation of the talus, external fixation, and/or open reduction and internal fixation of the talar neck fracture.
. reimplantation followed by primary tibiotalar arthrodesis.
. Syme amputation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. reimplantation of the talus, external fixation, and/or open reduction and internal fixation of the talar neck fracture.


Explanation

The extruded talus should be placed in sterile bacitracin solution, irrigated thoroughly, gently debrided, and immediately replanted in the OR. Open reduction and internal fixation of the talar fracture may be attempted immediately depending on the soft-tissue envelope, or delayed after soft-tissue stabilization with an external fixator. A retrospective study of 19 patients with an extruded talus reported that 12 patients had no subsequent surgery after definitive fixation, 7 had subsequent procedures, and 2 patients developed infections that were treated successfully at an average of 42-month follow-up. Successful outcome in this series was attributed to multiple debridements, soft-tissue stabilization, and primary wound closure. Smith CS, Nork SE, Sangeorzan BJ: The extruded talus: Results of reimplantation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:2418-2424. Brewster NT, Maffulli N: Reimplantation of the totally extruded talus. J Orthop Trauma 1997;11:42-45.

Question 3379

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive medial foot pain and loss of her arch. On examination, she has a flexible valgus hindfoot and pronounced forefoot abduction. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate greater than 40% talonavicular uncoverage. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Posterior tibial tendon debridement
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy (MDCO) only
. FDL transfer, MDCO, and lateral column lengthening
. Triple arthrodesis
. Isolated subtalar arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. FDL transfer, MDCO, and lateral column lengthening


Explanation

This patient has Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction, characterized by a flexible flatfoot with significant forefoot abduction (>40% TN uncoverage). Correcting the pronounced forefoot abduction requires a lateral column lengthening (e.g., Evans osteotomy) in addition to an FDL transfer and MDCO.

Question 3380

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old woman presents with pain and progressive medial deviation of her great toe one year following a distal chevron osteotomy and lateral soft tissue release for hallux valgus. What intraoperative technical error most commonly contributes to this complication?

. Under-resection of the medial eminence
. Excessive lateral translation of the metatarsal head
. "Staking" (excessive resection) of the first metatarsal head
. Inadequate release of the adductor hallucis tendon
. Failure to perform an Akin osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. "Staking" (excessive resection) of the first metatarsal head


Explanation

"Staking" the first metatarsal head by resecting the medial eminence past the sagittal sulcus removes the bony block to medial subluxation. Combined with a lateral release and medial capsular plication, this frequently leads to iatrogenic hallux varus.