This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3221
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 8a and 8b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 4-month-old infant who has a left foot deformity. Examination reveals that the foot deformity is an isolated entity, and the infant has no known neuromuscular conditions or genetic syndromes. Which of the following studies will best confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral radiograph of the foot in maximum plantar flexion
Explanation
The clinical photograph shows a rocker-bottom deformity, and the lateral radiograph suggests a congenital vertical talus deformity. A lateral radiograph of the foot in maximum plantar flexion is needed to demonstrate the fixed position of the deformity with malalignment of the talar-metatarsal axis. A fixed dislocation of the navicular on the talus differentiates a congenital vertical talus from the oblique talus with talonavicular subluxation. Kumar SJ, Cowell HR, Ramsey PL: Vertical and oblique talus. Instr Course Lect 1982;31:235-251. Kodros SA, Dias LS: Single-stage correction of congenital vertical talus. J Pediatr Orthop 1999;19:42-48.
Question 3222
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old man sustains the closed injury shown in Figures 3a through 3c after falling 8 feet while rock climbing. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. open reduction and internal fixation via a medial malleolar osteotomy and limited anterior lateral arthrotomy.
Explanation
The radiographs show a comminuted talar body fracture. The goal of treatment is to minimize the risks of posttraumatic arthrosis of the ankle and subtalar joint and to maintain vascularity. Open reduction and internal fixation with an attempt at anatomic reduction will lead to improved outcomes. Attempting to repair this fracture via an arthrotomy only is extremely difficult, and the addition of a medial malleolar osteotomy is warranted. A limited anterior lateral arthrotomy with minimal soft-tissue stripping may assist with fixation of anterior-lateral and lateral fragments and allow better assessment of reduction of the major fracture line. Nonsurgical care would lead to inadequate reduction and increased risk of both ankle and hindfoot arthrosis. Talectomy and primary ankle and hindfoot arthrodesis should not be performed as primary surgical reconstructive options in this closed injury pattern. Sanders R: Fractures and fracture-dislocations of the talus, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 1465-1518.
Question 3223
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 77-year-old man with diabetes mellitus has had a nonhealing Wagner grade I ulcer under the medial sesamoid for the past 3 months. He smokes tobacco regularly. He has undergone several debridements and total contact casting. Examination reveals no palpable pulses. He has no erythema or purulence, and he is afebrile. Radiographs reveal no abnormalities. What is the best initial diagnostic test to help determine why the ulcer has failed to heal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Noninvasive vascular studies
Explanation
The best initial test for this patient is to assess the vascular supply to the foot. An elderly smoker with diabetes mellitus has a high risk of peripheral vascular disease. Decreased weight bearing has not been successful. Although a bone scan might be helpful, it would take secondary consideration to the patient's vascular supply, especially in the absence of any acute infection. Monofilament testing would help diagnosis neuropathy, which is a root cause behind the ulcer forming, but does not prevent it from healing. The Thompson's test is used to diagnosis an Achilles tendon rupture.
Question 3224
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 46-year-old man sustains a calcaneal fracture in a fall off a scaffold. During surgical reconstruction using an extended lateral incision, the fracture is reduced and fixed with a plate and screws. One of the posterior facet screws is found to be 5 mm out of the bone on the Harris view. What structure is most likely at risk because of this finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
Explanation
The abductor hallucis muscle is the most medial structure. The posterior tibial tendon and the flexor digitorum longus tendon lie more cephalad to the sustentaculum tali. There is a groove under the sustentaculum for the flexor hallucis longus tendon. Subchondral lag screws placed across the posterior facet exit the medial side of the calcaneus in this groove. Just medial to the flexor hallucis longus tendon is the neurovascular bundle. A screw that is out of the bone a short distance can cause triggering of the flexor hallucis longus tendon. Patients will report loss of great toe excursion in the early postoperative period. Accurate measurement of subchondral lag screw length avoids this complication. Hollinshead WH: Anatomy for Surgeons, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, pp 802-852. Rosenberg AS, Cheung Y: Diagnostic imaging of the ankle and foot, in Jahss MH (ed): Disorders of the Foot and Ankle, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 109-154.
Question 3225
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 16-year-old snowboarder has significant pain and is still unable to bear weight after sustaining a lateral ankle injury in a fall 1 week ago. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness in the sinus tarsi. AP, lateral, and mortise radiographs of the ankle are unremarkable. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. non-weight-bearing and a CT scan of the talus.
Explanation
Because there is a significant possibility that the patient may have a fracture of the lateral process of the talus, there is some disagreement as to the best radiographic study to identify this injury. A CT scan is an appropriate diagnostic tool to visualize the fracture and identify any displacement. Displaced lateral process fractures are best treated surgically. Kirkpatrick DP, Hunter RE, Janes PC, Mastrangelo J, Nicholas RA: The snowboarder's foot and ankle. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:271-277.
Question 3226
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The oblique radiograph of the foot and the CT scan shown in Figures 10a and 10b show a patient whose symptoms have failed to respond to rest and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. What is the best course of action?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excision of the damaged portion of the peroneus longus with possible transfer of the proximal peroneus longus into the peroneus brevis
Explanation
The radiograph and MRI scan show elongation and fragmentation of the os peroneum. Although casting, orthoses, and steroid injection may relieve symptoms, excision of the os peroneum and primary repair when necessary, with or without tenodesis of the peroneus longus to the peroneus brevis, have been shown to produce excellent results. Haddad SL: Disorders of tendons: Peroneal tendon dysfunction, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 812-817.
Question 3227
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 20-year-old football player has immediate pain in the midfoot and is unable to bear weight after an opposing player lands on the back of his plantar flexed foot. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. open reduction and internal fixation.
Explanation
The history and radiographs indicate a Lisfranc fracture-dislocation of the foot. The radiographs show the classic "fleck sign," which is an avulsion of the Lisfranc ligament from the base of the second metatarsal. Most authors recommend open reduction and internal fixation of this injury. Closed reduction can be attempted, but anatomic reduction is unlikely because of the interposed bone fragments and soft tissues. Standard radiographs are not reliable in identifying 1 to 2 mm of subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joint. The tarsometatarsal joint has a poor tolerance to even mild subluxation, and the resulting decrease in joint contact area increases the likelihood of posttraumatic arthritis. Open reduction with the joint visible allows more anatomic reduction and internal fixation of larger osteochondral fragments or excision of smaller interposed fragments. Bellabarba C, Sanders R: Dislocations of the foot, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, vol 2, pp 1539-1558.
Question 3228
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 23-year-old man sustained an injury to his left foot when a forklift rolled over it at work. Examination reveals marked swelling of the midfoot and forefoot, with tenderness to palpation over the medial hindfoot and dorsomedial forefoot. The distal dorsalis pedis pulse is audible on Doppler examination, and his sensation is intact to touch. Radiographs are shown in Figures 33a and 33b. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. open reduction and internal fixation of the Lisfranc joint, the tarsal navicula, and second metatarsal neck fractures.
Explanation
The best results after dislocations of the tarsometatarsal joints are seen with anatomic reduction; this is best achieved by open reduction and maintained with internal fixation with either pins or screws. Open reduction provides a means of debriding small bony fragments from the joint and allowing direct inspection of the reduction. Associated crush or shearing fractures of the cuboid or tarsal navicula are signs that suggest a Lisfranc injury. Because patients can function quite well despite the development of arthrosis in the Lisfranc joint, primary arthrodesis is not indicated in the management of this injury. Resch S, Stenstrom A: The treatment of tarsometatarsal injuries. Foot Ankle 1990;11:117-123. Schenck RC Jr, Heckman JD: Fractures and dislocations of the forefoot: Operative and nonoperative treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:70-78.
Question 3229
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 56-year-old man sustained a nondisplaced extra-articular fracture of the proximal aspect of the third metatarsal after dropping a heavy object on his left foot. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. weight bearing in a walking boot or walking cast.
Explanation
This injury pattern is one of a direct trauma to the mid aspect of the foot. Without additional forces involved, capsular ligamentous injury is not anticipated; therefore, the injury should be a stable pattern. Treatment should consist of protected weight bearing as tolerated in a walking boot or walking cast. Surgical intervention with open reduction and internal fixation, percutaneous pinning, or open reduction and internal fixation with primary tarsometatarsal joint fusion is not indicated with this pattern of injury. The use of external bone stimulation in this acute fracture setting is not indicated. With injuries to the midfoot area where the exact mechanism of injury is uncertain, there should be a high index of suspicion for an associated injury to the tarsometatarsal joint, and standing radiographs or stress radiographs should be obtained. Myerson MS: Foot and Ankle Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 1265-1296.
Question 3230
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 32-year-old man who sustained a tarsometatarsal (Lisfranc) injury 3 years ago now reports increasing pain in the left foot. Orthotics, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and injections have provided only temporary relief. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness over the tarsometatarsal joints. Radiographs show advanced arthrosis of the first and second tarsometatarsal joints. Management should now include
Correct Answer & Explanation
. midfoot arthrodesis.
Explanation
The patient has advanced arthrosis of the midfoot, and orthotic management has failed to provide relief. Therefore, the treatment of choice is midfoot arthrodesis. Shock wave treatment has not been shown to be beneficial for arthritis. An ankle-foot orthosis would not be appropriate based on findings of a normal ankle joint. Triple arthrodesis would not be helpful because the hindfoot joint is not affected in a Lisfranc injury. Sangeorzan BJ, Veith GR, Hansen ST Jr: Salvage of Lisfranc's tarsometatarsal joints by arthrodesis. Foot Ankle 1990;10:193-200.
Question 3231
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old man reports forefoot pain with weight-bearing activities. He reports that he has had high arches since adolescence but has never been treated. Examination reveals stiff cavus feet. He has no plantar callus or hammer toe formation. The ankle can be passively dorsiflexed 10 degrees. Initial management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. a molded orthosis.
Explanation
The patient has cavus feet with minimal clinical symptoms. At this stage, conservative management is preferred. The use of a molded orthosis will allow better support of the midfoot and provide cushioning of the forefoot. This will most likely result in long-term relief. In more advanced cases with forefoot callus formation, Achilles tendon lengthening or calcaneal osteotomy and Steindler stripping are effective in correcting the cavus deformity. In the presence of arthritic changes in the hindfoot, a triple arthrodesis with corrective bone resection may be necessary. Janisse DJ: Indications and prescriptions for orthoses in sports. Orthop Clin North Am 1994;25:95-107.
Question 3232
Topic: Forefoot
A 61-year-old woman has increasing pain in her left great toe. She states that she has had discomfort for years but now has pain with all shoe wear. A radiograph is shown in Figure 35. To provide the most predictable pain-free result, treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.
Explanation
Because the patient has a hallux valgus with increased intermetatarsal and hallux valgus angles and advanced degenerative arthritis of the joint, arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint will provide the most predictable pain-free result. An attempt to correct the bunion with a bunionectomy or osteotomy would most likely fail. The hallux valgus and advanced degenerative changes put the foot beyond the indications for a cheilectomy. Long-term results with silicone arthroplasty have been disappointing. Mann RA: Disorders of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:34-43.
Question 3233
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 32-year-old woman sustained a closed calcaneus fracture 2 years ago and was treated nonsurgically. She now reports a 6-month history of progressively worsening pain over the anterior ankle and lateral hindfoot. Climbing stairs and ascending slopes is particularly difficult for her. Bracing and intra-articular corticosteroid injections have not provided sufficient relief. Figure 36 shows a weight-bearing lateral radiograph. What is the most appropriate surgical option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distraction subtalar arthrodesis with a corticocancellous bone block autograft
Explanation
Intra-articular fractures of the calcaneus often include depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint. This can lead to dorsiflexion of the talus because of diminished height posteriorly. In a weight-bearing position, the dorsal surface of the talar neck can impinge against the distal tibia, causing anterior ankle pain. In addition, posttraumatic arthritis of the subtalar joint typically occurs after a calcaneus fracture. The patient's symptoms are consistent with both anterior ankle impingement and subtalar degenerative arthritis. The Bohler angle, approximately 15 degrees, confirms depression of the posterior facet. Distraction subtalar arthrodesis with a corticocancellous bone block autograft will improve talar declination, decrease anterior impingement, and address the subtalar degenerative arthritis simultaneously. Rammelt S, Grass R, Zawadski T, et al: Foot function after subtalar distraction bone-block arthrodesis: A prospective study. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2004;86:659-668.
Question 3234
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 48a and 48b show the radiographs of a 26-year-old woman who fell down two steps and twisted her foot and ankle. What is the most appropriate treatment for this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hard-soled shoe and weight bearing as tolerated
Explanation
The patient has a zone 1 base of the fifth metatarsal fracture (Pseudojones) that represents a less serious injury compared to zone 2 and 3 fractures with regard to healing potential. Treatment is symptomatic and casting is not necessary. These fractures are well treated with a hard-soled shoe for comfort and weight bearing as tolerated. Surgical intervention is not warranted. Vorlat P, Achtergael W, Haentjens P: Predictors of outcome of non-displaced fractures of the base of the fifth metatarsal. Int Orthop 2007;31:5-10. Wiener BD, Linder JF, Giattini JF: Treatment of fractures of the fifth metatarsal: A prospective study. Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:267-269.
Question 3235
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old man who runs on the weekends reports a 1-year history of continued pain directly posteriorly in the heel. Management consisting of anti-inflammatory drugs, icing techniques, a heel-counter in his shoe split, and physical therapy consisting of stretching, contrast baths, custom orthotics, and iontophoresis has failed to provide relief. Not only is his lifestyle disrupted with respect to running, but he now has pain with normal ambulation with all forms of shoe wear. He is not necessarily concerned with returning to running; he is primarily seeking pain relief. A lateral radiograph and clinical photograph are shown in Figures 32a and 32b. Treatment should now consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. a central-splitting surgical approach through the tendon, excision of the Haglund's exostosis and the insertional calcifications, bursectomy, flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer to the posterior tuberosity, and attachment of the tendon to the calcaneus.
Explanation
The patient has severe calcifications at the insertion of the Achilles tendon. Failure to address the Haglund's exostosis and the calcifications will leave the patient with persistent pain. Steroids should not be injected directly into the tendon because of the increased risk of tendon rupture. Shock wave treatment may have some value in treating plantar fasciitis, but its efficacy has not been documented with insertional calcifications and Haglund's exostosis treatment. Brisement is injection of saline solution around the Achilles tendon in an attempt to decompress the peritenon. This may be valuable in intrasubstance Achilles tendinosis or peritendinitis but has no value with insertional disease. Symptoms persisting beyond 6 months are difficult to treat nonsurgically; therefore, the appropriate treatment protocol is aggressive and must address all pathology. The patient may not be able to run at the level achieved prior to surgery, but the goal of the surgery is pain relief. Clain M, Baxter D: Achilles tendinitis. Foot Ankle 1992;13:482-487. Schepsis A, Wagner C, Leach R: Surgical management of Achilles tendon overuse injuries: A long-term follow-up study. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:611-619. Schepsis A, Leach R: Surgical management of Achilles tendinitis. Am J Sports Med 1987;15:308-315.
Question 3236
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 23-year-old woman has had a 14-month history of ankle pain after surgical treatment of multiple injuries resulting from a motor vehicle accident. Weight bearing began 4 months after surgery. The pain occurs with weight bearing and motion, but there is very little pain at rest. She has no pertinent medical history and does not smoke. Figures 23a and 23b show current radiographs. What is the most appropriate surgical option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with bone grafting
Explanation
The radiographs reveal nonunion of a talar neck fracture. There is no radiographic evidence of osteonecrosis or significant degenerative arthritis. The results of talectomy are suboptimal. Arthrodesis would be indicated for degenerative arthritis. Revision ORIF is feasible and preserves motion. A vascularized graft should be considered whenever osteonecrosis is present, but the talar body appears viable in this case. Calvert E, Younger A, Penner M: Post talus neck fracture reconstruction. Foot Ankle Clin 2007;12:137-151.
Question 3237
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 60-year-old man reports increasing pain in his right foot with limited ankle dorsiflexion and anterior ankle pain after sustaining a fracture of the calcaneus in a fall several years ago. Bracing, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and cortisone injections have failed to provide significant relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 19a and 19b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtalar distraction arthrodesis
Explanation
Following a calcaneal fracture, the patient has severe subtalar arthritis with loss of talar declination and shortening of the heel; therefore, the treatment of choice is subtalar distraction arthrodesis. Orthotics will not provide significant relief as bracing has failed. Ankle arthrodesis will not be beneficial because the arthritis is in the subtalar joint. Subtalar arthroscopy would only be helpful for a small area of arthrosis, and calcaneal osteotomy would not be beneficial given the extent of the arthritis of the subtalar joint.
Question 3238
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 25-year-old woman with a healed proximal tibiofibular fracture treated with an intramedullary nail 2 years ago is currently wearing an ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) and reports a persistent foot drop. She is unhappy with the AFO and has not seen any functional improvement despite months of physical therapy. Serial electromyograms (EMG) show no recent change over the past year. Examination and EMG findings are consistent with a tibialis anterior 1/5, extensor hallucis longus 2/5, extensor digitorum longus 2/5, posterior tibial tendon (PTT) 5/5, peroneals 3/5, flexor hallucis longus 5/5, and gastrocsoleus 5/5. No discrete nerve lesion was identified. The patient has a flexible equinovarus contracture. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transfer of the PTT through the interosseous membrane with attachment to the tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius above the level of the ankle, debridement of the anterior compartment, and Achilles tendon lengthening
Explanation
This pattern of injury is consistent with an unrecognized compartment syndrome of the anterior and lateral compartments. Transfer of the PTT through a long incision in the interosseous membrane corrects the foot drop deformity and allows adequate dorsiflexion provided that the tendon to be transferred has a strength of 5/5. Muscles/tendons typically lose one grade of strength after transfer. Transfer into the tendons at the level of the ankle prevents overtensioning or pullout of a PTT tendon that is not long enough. Debridement of the scarred muscle in the anterior compartment decreases the risk of scarring down to the tendon transfer. Transfer of the peroneus longus is not preferred given its relative lack of strength and line of pull. Continued therapy and bracing are unlikely to lead to further improvement at 2 years after injury. An ankle fusion would correct the foot drop but would not address the tendon imbalances between the tibialis anterior and the peroneus longus, and the PTT and the peroneus brevis.
Question 3239
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 47a and 47b show the CT scans of a patient who reports persistent pain in the sinus tarsi following a fall. The avulsion fracture fragment remains attached to what ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bifurcate
Explanation
The bifurcate ligament bifurcates to connect the dorsal aspect of the anterior process of the calcaneus to both the cuboid and the navicular. Inversion injuries on the side of the foot can result in avulsion fractures (arrow) of the anterior process of the calcaneus. Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle: Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2. New York, NY, Lippincott, 1993, p 192.
Question 3240
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Following a fall from a height of 5 feet, a patient reports pain along the lateral border of the foot. The CT scan shown in Figure 54 indicates what pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avulsion injury of the bifurcate (Y) ligament
Explanation
The CT scan reveals an avulsion of the dorsal beak of the anterior process of the calcaneus. This common fracture is an avulsion of the origin of the bifurcate ligament, which runs from the anterior calcaneal process to both the cuboid and the lateral aspect of the navicular. An inversion mechanism is common, and the fracture is often missed in evaluation for a suspected ankle sprain. MRI may be useful in the diagnosis of these occult injuries, and suspicion should be present when tenderness exists over the superior portion of the anterior process of the calcaneus.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.