This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3041
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The Lisfranc ligament is a critical stabilizing structure of the midfoot. Between which two osseous structures does the primary, strongest band of the Lisfranc ligament course?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament courses from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal. It is the strongest of the tarsometatarsal ligaments and is crucial for the stability of the second tarsometatarsal joint and the midfoot arch. There is no direct transverse ligamentous connection between the first and second metatarsal bases.
Question 3042
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 28-year-old female twists her ankle. Radiographs show a short oblique fracture of the lateral malleolus at the level of the syndesmosis and a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, what is the mechanism of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supination-External Rotation
Explanation
The injury described is a Supination-External Rotation (SER) type fracture, which is the most common ankle fracture pattern. It progresses in stages: (1) Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament rupture, (2) Short oblique/spiral fracture of the distal fibula at the syndesmosis, (3) Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament rupture or posterior malleolus fracture, (4) Medial malleolus transverse fracture or deltoid ligament rupture.
Question 3043
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old overweight female presents with medial foot pain and a progressive flatfoot deformity. On examination, she is unable to perform a single-leg heel rise on the affected side. Her hindfoot is in valgus, but the deformity is flexible and passively correctable. According to the Johnson and Strom classification for posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD), what stage does this represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage II
Explanation
The patient has Stage II PTTD. Stage I is characterized by tenosynovitis with pain but no deformity, and a preserved single-leg heel rise. Stage II involves a flexible flatfoot deformity, and the patient is unable to perform a single-leg heel rise. Stage III is a rigid, fixed flatfoot deformity. Stage IV involves deltoid ligament compromise with ankle joint involvement (valgus tilt of the talus).
Question 3044
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old male presents with midfoot pain after a twisting injury. AP radiographs demonstrate a small bony avulsion between the medial and middle cuneiforms, commonly referred to as the 'fleck sign'. The primary ligament avulsed in this injury connects which two osseous structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the 2nd metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament that runs from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is vital for midfoot stability. Its avulsion frequently produces the classic 'fleck sign' on radiographs.
Question 3045
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 58-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a swollen, warm, and erythematous left foot. X-rays show pronounced osteopenia, extensive periarticular bony fragmentation, subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints, and debris. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what stage of Charcot arthropathy does this represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage 1
Explanation
The Eichenholtz classification stages Charcot arthropathy: Stage 0 (Inflammation without radiographic changes), Stage 1 (Development/Fragmentation: osteopenia, bony fragmentation, joint subluxation/dislocation, debris), Stage 2 (Coalescence: absorption of debris, early sclerosis, fusion of fragments), and Stage 3 (Reconstruction: rounding of bone ends, decreased sclerosis, permanent deformity). This patient's fragmentation and debris indicate Stage 1.
Question 3046
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The primary stabilizing ligament of the Lisfranc joint complex (the Lisfranc ligament) anatomically connects which two bones?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that runs obliquely from the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal. It is critical for the stability of the tarsometatarsal joint complex.
Question 3047
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 62-year-old male with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a swollen, warm, and erythematous foot without ulceration. Radiographs show extensive periarticular fragmentation, debris, and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. According to the Eichenholtz classification of Charcot arthropathy, what stage does this represent, and what is the primary initial treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage 1; total contact casting and strict non-weight bearing
Explanation
The patient is presenting with Eichenholtz Stage 1 (Developmental/Fragmentation stage) Charcot arthropathy, characterized clinically by acute inflammation (erythema, warmth, swelling) and radiographically by osteopenia, bony fragmentation, and joint subluxation/dislocation. The gold standard initial treatment is strict immobilization and offloading using a total contact cast (TCC) to prevent further deformity until the acute inflammatory phase resolves and bone consolidation begins.
Question 3048
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The Lisfranc ligament is a critical intra-articular stabilizer of the tarsometatarsal joint complex. What are the exact anatomic attachments of this ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that runs obliquely from the lateral surface of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is critical for the stability of the midfoot because there is no direct transverse ligamentous connection between the bases of the first and second metatarsals.
Question 3049
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During an open repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture using a posteromedial approach, the surgeon must be cautious to avoid injury to the sural nerve. At approximately what distance proximal to the calcaneal insertion does the sural nerve typically cross the lateral border of the Achilles tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 9-12 cm
Explanation
The sural nerve is at significant risk during Achilles tendon surgery, especially during percutaneous repairs or lateral approaches. Anatomic studies show that the sural nerve crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon at an average of 9 to 12 cm (roughly 10 cm) proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus.
Question 3050
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 30-year-old construction worker sustains a crush injury to his left foot. Radiographs and CT demonstrate lateral subluxation of the second, third, fourth, and fifth metatarsals relative to the cuneiforms and cuboid, while the first metatarsal remains anatomically aligned with the medial cuneiform. According to the Myerson classification of Lisfranc injuries, what type of injury pattern is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type B2
Explanation
In the Myerson classification of Lisfranc injuries: Type A is total incongruity (homolateral displacement of all 5 metatarsals). Type B is partial incongruity; Type B1 is isolated medial displacement of the 1st metatarsal, whereas Type B2 is lateral displacement of one or more of the lesser metatarsals (2nd-5th) with an anatomically aligned 1st metatarsal. Type C involves divergent displacement (C1 is partial, C2 is complete).
Question 3051
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 52-year-old male with long-standing, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a diffusely swollen, erythematous, and warm right foot. There is no history of trauma and no open ulcers. Radiographs reveal prominent periarticular debris, fragmentation of the tarsometatarsal joints, and subluxation. Based on the Eichenholtz classification, what is the current stage of this patient's disease and the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage 1 (Development); immediate non-weight bearing in a total contact cast
Explanation
The patient is presenting with acute Charcot arthropathy. Eichenholtz Stage 1 (Development) is characterized by clinical warmth, erythema, and swelling, with radiographic findings of bony fragmentation, subluxation, and periarticular debris. The mainstay of treatment in the acute phase (Stage 1) is strict immobilization and offloading, typically utilizing a total contact cast until the acute inflammation subsides and the bones begin to coalesce (transition to Stage 2). Surgery is generally avoided in the acute fragmentation phase.
Question 3052
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old male sustains an acute knee dislocation (KD-III). Following closed reduction, the patient has asymmetric pedal pulses but an ABI (Ankle-Brachial Index) of 0.95. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CT angiography of the lower extremity
Explanation
While an ABI > 0.9 is often considered reassuring, the presence of asymmetric pedal pulses following a high-energy knee dislocation mandates a CT angiography to rule out an intimal tear or flow-limiting popliteal artery injury, as pulses can be misleadingly present initially due to collateral flow or partial occlusion.
Question 3053
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a swollen, warm, and erythematous left foot. Radiographs show dissolution, fragmentation, and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what is the current stage of his Charcot neuroarthropathy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage I
Explanation
Eichenholtz Stage I is the development/fragmentation stage, characterized clinically by acute swelling and erythema, and radiographically by osteopenia, periarticular fragmentation, joint subluxation, and debris. Stage II is coalescence. Stage III is reconstruction. Stage 0 is clinical warmth and swelling with normal radiographs.
Question 3054
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In an intra-articular calcaneus fracture, a decreased Bohler's angle on the lateral radiograph primarily indicates which of the following deformities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of calcaneal height
Explanation
Bohler's angle (normally 20-40 degrees) is formed by a line drawn from the highest point of the anterior process to the highest point of the posterior facet, and a second line from the posterior facet to the superior edge of the tuberosity. A decrease in this angle indicates collapse of the posterior facet and loss of calcaneal height.
Question 3055
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 60-year-old female presents with medial ankle pain and a flatfoot deformity. She has a flexible hindfoot valgus and is unable to perform a single-leg heel rise. Clinical examination also reveals > 40% uncoverage of the talonavicular joint on the AP radiograph. This presentation is most consistent with which stage of Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction (PTTD)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage IIb
Explanation
Stage II indicates a flexible flatfoot deformity. Stage IIa has minimal forefoot abduction, while Stage IIb is characterized by significant forefoot abduction ('too many toes' sign) and > 30-40% talonavicular uncoverage on AP radiograph. Stage III is a rigid deformity.
Question 3056
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old patient with long-standing diabetes presents with a plantar midfoot ulcer over a bony prominence. Radiographs show a fused midfoot with a large plantar exostosis. There is no clinical or laboratory evidence of infection, and vascular supply is adequate. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plantar exostectomy
Explanation
In a patient with a stable, quiescent Charcot deformity and a plantar ulcer secondary to a bony prominence, a plantar exostectomy is the treatment of choice. Reconstruction is unnecessary if the foot is stable, and amputation is overly aggressive without infection or ischemia.
Question 3057
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy presents with rigid flatfeet and a history of recurrent ankle sprains. Radiographs are obtained. The 'anteater nose' sign is observed on which of the following radiographic views, and what coalition does it represent?
The 'anteater nose' sign refers to an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus, which is indicative of a calcaneonavicular coalition. It is best visualized on a 45-degree internal rotation oblique radiograph of the foot. The C-sign on a lateral view suggests a talocalcaneal coalition.
Question 3058
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When performing a distal metatarsal osteotomy for hallux valgus, the surgeon must avoid extensive lateral capsular stripping to prevent avascular necrosis. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the first metatarsal head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. First plantar metatarsal artery
Explanation
The first metatarsal head receives its primary blood supply from the first plantar metatarsal artery, which gives off a crucial branch entering the head at the plantar-lateral aspect of the surgical neck. Extensive lateral capsular stripping jeopardizes this vessel.
Question 3059
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 54-year-old diabetic patient presents with a swollen, warm, erythematous right foot. Radiographs show extensive bone fragmentation, periarticular debris, and joint subluxation at the tarsometatarsal joints. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what stage of Charcot arthropathy is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage I (Development/Fragmentation)
Explanation
Eichenholtz Stage I is the Development/Fragmentation stage, characterized radiographically by bone debris, fragmentation, joint subluxation, and fractures. Stage II (Coalescence) shows absorption of debris and early fusion. Stage III (Consolidation) shows remodeling and a stable but deformed foot.
Question 3060
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The 'watershed' area of the Achilles tendon is the most common site for spontaneous rupture. Approximately where is this zone of relative hypovascularity located relative to its insertion on the calcaneus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 to 6 cm proximal to the insertion
Explanation
The 'watershed' area of the Achilles tendon is located approximately 2 to 6 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus. This region has a relatively poor blood supply (hypovascularity), which contributes to its susceptibility to degeneration and rupture. The blood supply to the tendon comes from the musculotendinous junction proximally, the osteotendinous junction distally, and anteriorly via the paratenon.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.