This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2621
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Back pain and ipsilateral knee pain are common long-term sequelae of hip arthrodesis. To limit these problems, what position should be avoided during fusion of the hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. External rotation
Explanation
The recommended position for a hip fusion is flexion of 20 degrees to 30 degrees, slight adduction (5 degrees) or neutral, and 10 degrees of external rotation. In long-term follow-up, patients who underwent fusion in abduction had more ipsilateral knee and low back pain than patients who were positioned in adduction. Internal rotation should be avoided to prevent interference with the opposite foot during gait. External rotation facilitates the application of shoe wear. Callaghan JJ, Brand RA, Pederson DR: Hip arthrodesis: A long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:1328-1335.
Question 2622
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old girl has progressive development of cavus feet. Examination reveals slightly diminished vibratory sensation on the bottom of the foot. Reflexes are 1+ at the knees and ankles. Motor examination shows that all muscles are 5/5 in the foot, except the peroneal and anterior tibial muscles are rated as 4+/5. Which of the following studies is considered most diagnostic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. DNA testing
Explanation
The patient most likely has a form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, or hereditary motor sensory neuropathy (HMSN). The most common varieties can now be diagnosed by DNA testing. Mutations have been detected in the peripheral myelin protein-22 (PMP-22) gene in HMSN type IA and in the connexin gene in the x-linked HMSN. Specific DNA diagnosis is useful in genetic counseling. Routine chromosomal testing most likely would not detect these mutations. Nerve conduction velocity study results are normal in some types of HMSN, and delayed nerve conduction, when found, indicates a peripheral neuropathy but does not specify the type or inheritance pattern. Biopsy of the sural nerve or of the quadriceps can be informative in some patients, but is not as specific as DNA testing. These procedures are most often reserved for patients with negative DNA test results. Chance PF: Molecular genetics of hereditary neuropathies. J Child Neurol 1999;14:43-52.
Question 2623
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 68-year-old woman stepped on a needle while walking barefoot 10 days ago. She is not certain but thinks it is imbedded in her foot, and she notes local tenderness at the puncture site and drainage. Her primary care physician has been treating her with oral antibiotics. A plain radiograph is shown in Figure 38. What is the best course of action?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Removal of the foreign body in the surgical suite with fluoroscopy
Explanation
Based on the radiographic findings, the patient has a metallic foreign body in her foot that is consistent with a needle. She has local infection secondary to the continued presence of the foreign body. CT is not necessary to localize the foreign body as it is adequately visualized on the plain radiographs. The infection cannot be adequately treated until the foreign body is removed. Attempted removal of foreign bodies without proper anesthesia and fluoroscopy frequently results in frustration because of the inability to localize the foreign body. Removal in a surgical suite with proper anesthesia and fluoroscopy is the preferred option. Once the foreign body is removed, the local infection will resolve rapidly. Combs AH, Kernek CB, Heck DA: Orthopedic grand rounds: Retained wooden foreign body in the foot detected by computed tomography. Orthopedics 1986;9:1434-1435.
Question 2624
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 30 shows the radiograph of a 38-year-old man who reports persistent pain laterally and plantarly about the fifth metatarsal head. Examination reveals calluses dorsolaterally and plantarly about the fifth metatarsal head. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Surgical treatment should include
Correct Answer & Explanation
. oblique mid-diaphyseal osteotomy of the fifth metatarsal.
Explanation
The patient has painful lateral and plantar keratoses with metatarsus quintus valgus deformity. This combination of problems is best addressed with an oblique mid-diaphyseal osteotomy that allows the distal metatarsal to be displaced medially and dorsally. Lateral eminence resection alone will not address the painful plantar keratosis. A distal chevron osteotomy has a more limited ability to address the plantar keratosis (if translated medially and slight dorsally). Proximal diaphyseal osteotomies of the fifth metatarsal are associated with an increased risk of delayed union or nonunion secondary to the relative hypovascularity in the proximal diaphysis. Excision of the fifth metatarsal head can result in a floppy fifth toe and transfer metatarsalgia. Coughlin MJ: Treatment of bunionette deformity with longitudinal diaphyseal osteotomy with distal soft tissue repair. Foot Ankle 1991;11:195-203.
Question 2625
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 62-year-old man with diabetes mellitus has had a persistent 2-cm ulcer under the third metatarsal head for the past 4 months. He reports that he has had similar ulcers twice before, and both healed with nonsurgical management. He has used multiple types of commercial walking braces, shoes, and commercial dressings without resolution. He is insensate to the Semmes-Weinstein 5.07 monofilament. When the wound is probed with culture swab, there is no communication with the metatarsal head. Radiographs, bone scans, and laboratory studies reveal no evidence of osteomyelitis. What is the most predictable method of accomplishing wound healing without recurrence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening and a total contact cast
Explanation
The patient has a persistent diabetic foot ulcer without evidence of osteomyelitis. He has evidence of a sensory peripheral neuropathy and a concomitant motor neuropathy, leading to a dynamic motor imbalance. Use of a total contact cast would offer a high probability of healing the resistant ulcer but with a high potential for recurrence. Combining the total contact cast with Achilles tendon lengthening allows wound healing without a high risk for recurrence. Excision of the noninfected metatarsal head would make the patient vulnerable to the development of a transfer lesion under one of the remaining metatarsal heads. Robertson DD, Mueller MJ, Smith KE, et al: Structural changes in the forefoot of individuals with diabetes and a prior plantar ulcer. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1395-1404.
Question 2626
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old dancer reports posterior ankle pain when in the "en pointe" position. Examination reveals posteromedial tenderness, no pain reproduction with passive forced planter flexion, and pain with motion of the hallux. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor hallucis longus tendinitis
Explanation
Flexor hallucis longus tendinitis is a common cause of posterior ankle pain in dancers. It tends to be more posteromedial and is characterized by a clicking or catching sensation posteromedially with motion of the great toe. A painful os trigonum typically causes more posterolateral ankle pain and may occur after an ankle sprain or plantar flexion injury where there may be a fracture of the os trigonum. Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 249-261.
Question 2627
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 47-year-old woman has a right bunion that has been symptomatic despite modifications in shoe wear. She requests surgical correction. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 37. Treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. osteotomy of the proximal first metatarsal with distal soft-tissue realignment.
Explanation
Because the radiograph reveals an intermetatarsal angle of greater than 15 degrees and an incongruent metatarsophalangeal joint, the treatment of choice is a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft-tissue realignment. A distal chevron procedure would not correct this degree of deformity. A Keller procedure is reserved for a less active elderly individual. Arthrodesis is appropriate for a patient with advanced arthritis of the metatarsophalangeal joint. The double osteotomy is reserved for the congruent metatarsophalangeal joint with hallux valgus. Coughlin MJ, Carlson RE: Treatment of hallux valgus with an increased distal metatarsal articular angle: Evaluation of double and triple first ray osteotomies. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:762-770.
Question 2628
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 5a and 5b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a patient who has difficulty wearing shoes and has persistent symptoms medially and laterally at the first and fifth metatarsophalangeal joints. Because shoe modifications have failed to provide relief, management should now consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. bunionette repair only with lateral condylectomy.
Explanation
A significant bunionette deformity that fails to respond to conservative management is best addressed surgically, in this case with the bunion deformity. The radiograph reveals a prominent lateral condyle at the fifth metatarsal head without a significant increase in the intermetatarsal angle. Simple exostectomy is preferred with less risk of complications. Complete excision would risk transfer lesions to the medial metatarsals. Mann RA, Coughlin MJ: Adult hallux valgus, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 415-435.
Question 2629
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Removal of both hallucal sesamoids should be reserved as a salvage procedure because of the high incidence of which of the following postoperative complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cock-up deformity of the great toe and hallux valgus
Explanation
Removal of both sesamoids is associated with a high incidence of postoperative hallux valgus and cock-up deformity of the great toe because of weakening of the flexor hallucis brevis tendon. The sesamoids lie within these tendons and require meticulous repair following excision. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2003, pp 17-25.
Question 2630
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old man has had a 2-year history of progressive lateral ankle pain. History reveals that he underwent a triple arthrodesis at age 13 for a tarsal coalition. The pain has been refractory to braces, custom inserts, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Weight-bearing radiographs of the ankle and foot are shown in Figures 3a through 3d. Surgical management should include which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneal osteotomy and transverse tarsal osteotomy
Explanation
The patient has a valgus-supination triple arthrodesis malunion. Weight-bearing radiographs show excessive residual valgus through the subtalar joint, producing lateral subfibular impingement, and residual forefoot abduction and midfoot supination through the talonavicular joint, lateralizing the weight-bearing forces through the foot. The deformity is best managed with a medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and transverse tarsal derotational osteotomy. Ankle arthroscopy and lateral ligament reconstruction are indicated in the event of ligament instability. Tendon transfer, lateral column lengthening, and heel cord lengthening are used for treatment of adult flatfoot from posterior tibial tendon insufficiency. Ankle arthrodesis and ankle arthroplasty are not indicated in this patient because the lateral ankle symptoms are the result of the underlying deformity in the hindfoot, the patient is young, and the ankle joint is relatively normal. Haddad SL, Myerson MS, Pell RF IV: Clinical and radiographic outcome of revision surgery for failed triple arthrodesis. Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:489-499.
Question 2631
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 42-year-old man has a symptomatic flatfoot deformity and walks with a slight limp after falling off a scaffold 9 months ago. He also reports that he has had difficulty returning to work. Orthotics have failed to provide relief. Current radiographs are shown in Figures 19a and 19b. To relieve his pain and return the patient to work, treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. tarsometatarsal arthrodesis.
Explanation
Because the patient has sustained a tarsometatarsal injury with midfoot sag, the treatment of choice is a tarsometatarsal arthrodesis. The cause of his flatfoot deformity is secondary to the tarsometatarsal injury and not from posterior tibialis tendon deficiency. Lateral column lengthening, double arthrodesis, and calcaneal osteotomy are not indicated. Although open reduction and internal fixation may be performed late when arthritis is present, these procedures are less likely to succeed. Komenda GA, Myerson MS, Biddinger KR: Results of arthrodesis of the tarsometatarsal joints after traumatic injury. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1665-1676.
Question 2632
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 65-year-old woman with a history of diabetes mellitus and plantar ulcers has an erythematous and swollen right foot and ankle. Despite IV antibiotics, the erythema spreads to her lower calf within 24 hours. She has a systolic blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120. Laboratory studies show a creatinine level of 1.5 mg. Initial management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. surgical debridement.
Explanation
Necrotizing fasciitis is an aggressive and rapidly spreading soft-tissue infection, usually caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes. Presentation is typical of a rapidly ascending cellulitis, recalcitrant to antibiotic treatment. Differentiation between cellulitis and impetigo is difficult, and success depends on a high level of suspicion. The skin and subcutaneous tissues are affected, with sparing of the muscles. Septic shock and multi-organ system failure can be fatal. Treatment is aggressive surgical debridement with broad-spectrum antibiotics. Repeat irrigation and debridement may be necessary. Hyperbaric oxygen studies have shown inconsistent results. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2003, pp 199-205.
Question 2633
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 83-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has a history of recurrent infection over the medial aspect of her great toe and has had a painless bunion for the past 45 years. Shoe wear modifications have failed to provide relief. Pedal pulses are palpable. Figures 30a and 30b show the clinical photograph and radiograph. Management should now consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. observation.
Explanation
The presence of recurrent breakdown over the medial eminence despite shoe wear modifications is an indication for surgery. A number of factors must be considered when deciding on an appropriate course of treatment. These include age, activity level, joint congruency, joint degeneration, and the patient's symptoms and expectations. The indications for a simple bunionectomy are rather limited. In this patient, the goal of surgery is to alleviate the recurrent infection by removal of a large medial eminence. Because the bunion is painless and long-standing, it does not warrant treatment. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 123-134.
Question 2634
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 41a and 41b show the radiographs of a 22-year-old woman who has a bunion on her left foot. She denies pain in the foot, but she reports increasing difficulty with shoe wear. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. shoe wear modifications.
Explanation
Surgery is not indicated in a patient who has a mild deformity and no pain. Shoe wear modifications should be recommended.
Question 2635
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 36-year-old woman is wearing an ankle-foot orthosis for a foot drop secondary to spastic hemiplegia following a postpartum stroke 2 years ago. Knee and hip motion and strength are within normal ranges. She has undergone multiple rounds of physical therapy but has seen no improvement over the past several months. No improvement has been recorded by electromyography (EMG) studies over the past year. Examination reveals a 5-degree plantar flexion contracture with clonus, heel varus, and compensatory knee hyperextension when standing. She has 4/5 power in the tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius soleus complex with resistance testing. Everters are 2/5 to resistance testing. EMG gait studies show that the tibialis anterior demonstrates activity during both swing and stance phase that is increased during swing phase. Premature firing of the triceps surae is noted when positioning the foot in equinus prior to floor contact. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening and split tibialis anterior transfer to the lateral cuneiform
Explanation
The patient has a dynamic varus deformity secondary to spasticity of the tibialis anterior during stance phase with inverter/everter imbalance. The patient still has active motion of the tibialis anterior; therefore, an out-of-phase posterior tibial tendon transfer should not be performed. The same is true of the Bridle procedure. Transfer of the posterior tibialis in this patient may also result in subsequent planovalgus deformity. Lengthening of the Achilles tendon through a percutaneous tenotomy will restore dorsiflexion and decrease clonus from the stretch response. If adequate dorsiflexion is not obtained intraoperatively, then posterior tibialis tendon lengthening may be considered. A split tibialis anterior tendon transfer to the lateral cuneiform, or, transfer of the entire tendon to the cuneiform should correct the varus component and compensate for the weakened peroneals. Yamamoto H, Okumura S, Morita S, et al: Surgical correction of foot deformities after stroke. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1992;282:213-218. Piazza SJ, Adamson RL, Moran MF, et al: Effects on tensioning errors in split transfers of tibialis anterior and posterior tendons. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:858-865.
Question 2636
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 35-year-old woman states that she stepped on a piece of glass 6 months ago and reports numbness and shooting pain along the plantar lateral forefoot. She had previously received steroid injections in the 3 to 4 webspace. Examination reveals mild tenderness along the plantar fascia; no Tinel's sign is noted plantar medially and no Mulder's click is noted distally. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 7. What is the most likely cause of the numbness?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral plantar nerve laceration
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a laceration through the abductor hallucis musculature and lateral plantar nerve, producing numbness along its distribution. There is no evidence of a foreign body on the MRI scan. Baxter's nerve, or nerve to the abductor digiti quinti muscle, is the first branch off the lateral plantar nerve and impingement of this nerve typically produces a Tinel's sign along the nerve branch deep to the abductor hallucis muscle. Interdigital neuroma would be suggested by the presence of a Mulder's click. A digital nerve laceration would exhibit isolated numbness more distally. Baxter DE, Pfeffer GB: Treatment of chronic heel pain by surgical release of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1992;279:229-236.
Question 2637
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 5a and 5b show axial and coronal MRI images of the left ankle of a patient with lateral ankle pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneus brevis tendon tear
Explanation
The figures show a longitudinal split within the peroneus brevis tendon as it courses posterior to the fibula. The peroneus longus tendon has been driven between the medial and lateral components of the peroneus brevis tendon. Peroneal split syndrome is a cause of lateral ankle pain but may be less asymptomatic in the elderly. It may be associated with tendon subluxation following a tear of the superior peroneal retinaculum.
Question 2638
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old girl who plays softball has chronic lateral hindfoot aching pain that is aggravated by weight-bearing activity. She reports that the pain has recurred after initial improvement with cast immobilization, and it continues to limit her overall level of activity. Radiographs are seen in Figures 40a through 40c. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excision of the tarsal coalition
Explanation
The patient has a calcaneonavicular tarsal coalition. Symptoms of calcaneonavicular coalitions typically are seen between the ages of 10 and 14 years. The cause of pain has not been clearly established. It has been postulated that the coalition stiffens with maturity and microfractures can result, producing pain. Resection of a calcaneonavicular coalition generally has been associated with a satisfactory result. Soft-tissue interposition, most commonly using the extensor digitorum brevis muscle, appears to be helpful. A hindfoot arthrodesis (usually triple) would be reserved if coalition resection proves to be unsuccessful. Achilles tendon lengthening and orthotic support, as well as debridement of the sinus tarsi, are not expected to result in a satisfactory outcome. The patient does not have a flatfoot deformity. Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 757-765.
Question 2639
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 18a and 18b show the radiographs of a patient who has pain with walking. On careful questioning, it is determined that the discomfort occurs at push-off, or when the patient attempts to climb stairs. What nonsurgical option is most likely to ameliorate the symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Shoe modification with a cushioned heel and rocker sole
Explanation
The patient has a malunion of an attempted open reduction of a Lisfranc dislocation. The pain occurs during the terminal stance phase of gait as load is being transferred from the hindfoot to the forefoot. The bending moment can be best neutralized with shoe modification with a cushioned heel and rocker sole, which best unloads the tarsal-metatarsal junction. Bono CM, Berberian WS: Orthotic devices: Degenerative disorders of the foot and ankle. Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:329-340.
Question 2640
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 7 shows the MRI scan of a 23-year-old competitive rugby player who has anterior ankle pain and swelling. He states that he has been playing for many years and has sprained his ankle several times. Examination will reveal what specific hallmark feature?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with forced dorsiflexion
Explanation
The history and MRI findings indicate the presence of anterior tibiotalar osteophytes. This is frequently observed in soccer, rugby, and football athletes who play on grass or turf surfaces and repetitively push off and change directions. Examination may reveal an effusion but no loss of subtalar motion. A positive external rotation (Klieger) test is described as pain at the distal ankle with external rotation of the foot and is observed in patients with syndesmosis sprains. This patient may have an increased anterior drawer because of a history of sprains; however, this finding is not specific for anterior impingement of tibiotalar osteophytes. The most specific finding on physical examination is pain with forced dorsiflexion. Ogilvie-Harris DJ, Mahomed N, Demaziere A: Anterior impingement of the ankle of the ankle treated by arthroscopic removal of bony spurs. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:437-440.
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