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Question 2281

Topic: Forefoot

A 30-year-old female presents with severe bunion pain. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle of 45 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle of 18 degrees, and clinical hypermobility of the first ray. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to provide durable correction?

. Akin osteotomy
. Distal chevron osteotomy
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis
. First tarsometatarsal joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First tarsometatarsal joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)


Explanation

The Lapidus procedure (arthrodesis of the first tarsometatarsal joint) is specifically indicated for severe hallux valgus (IMA >15 degrees) accompanied by first ray hypermobility. It stabilizes the medial column and prevents recurrence.

Question 2282

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 62-year-old male with end-stage ankle arthritis presents to discuss surgical options. He has a history of type II diabetes and peripheral neuropathy. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to primary total ankle arthroplasty (TAA) in this patient?

. End-stage osteoarthritis secondary to previous pilon fracture
. Patient age less than 65 years
. Mild anterior translation of the talus on weight-bearing radiographs
. Charcot neuroarthropathy with loss of protective sensation
. A preoperative coronal plane deformity of 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Charcot neuroarthropathy with loss of protective sensation


Explanation

Active or historical Charcot neuroarthropathy with loss of protective sensation is an absolute contraindication to total ankle arthroplasty due to unacceptably high rates of catastrophic failure, loosening, and infection.

Question 2283

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 25-year-old competitive athlete sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury. He undergoes operative stabilization. Compared to open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with screws, what is the primary advantage of performing a primary arthrodesis for this specific injury pattern?

. Decreased risk of adjacent segment arthritis
. Lower rate of subsequent hardware removal and revision surgery
. Superior postoperative athletic sprint speed
. Faster time to initial weight-bearing
. Reduced risk of deep vein thrombosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower rate of subsequent hardware removal and revision surgery


Explanation

Primary arthrodesis for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries demonstrates similar functional outcomes to ORIF but significantly reduces the need for hardware removal and revision surgeries.

Question 2284

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 32-year-old male undergoes ORIF for a Hawkins Type II talar neck fracture. At his 8-week follow-up, an AP radiograph of the ankle demonstrates a distinct subchondral lucency in the talar dome. What does this radiographic finding signify?

. Subchondral sclerosis indicating impending collapse
. Intact vascularity and bone resorption
. Osteophyte formation at the talonavicular joint
. Early avascular necrosis of the talar body
. Medial translation of the talar head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intact vascularity and bone resorption


Explanation

The Hawkins sign presents as a subchondral lucency in the talar dome on an AP ankle radiograph at 6-8 weeks post-injury. It indicates intact vascularity and active bone resorption, signaling a low risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 2285

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old weekend warrior opts for a minimally invasive repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture. To avoid injury to the sural nerve during percutaneous suture passage, the surgeon must be especially cautious to avoid which quadrant of the proximal tendon stump?

. Anteromedial
. Anterolateral
. Posteromedial
. Posterolateral
. Directly midline

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral


Explanation

The sural nerve crosses from midline to the lateral border of the Achilles tendon roughly 10 cm proximal to its insertion. Minimally invasive repairs risk capturing the nerve, particularly when passing sutures in the posterolateral quadrant.

Question 2286

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 50-year-old female presents with Stage IIb adult acquired flatfoot deformity, characterized by a flexible hindfoot and greater than 40% talonavicular uncoverage on radiographs. Which combination of procedures is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Isolated talonavicular arthrodesis
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy alone
. FDL transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and lateral column lengthening
. Triple arthrodesis
. Subtalar arthrodesis with spring ligament repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. FDL transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and lateral column lengthening


Explanation

Stage IIb adult acquired flatfoot deformity involves a flexible hindfoot with significant forefoot abduction. Management typically requires an FDL transfer, a medializing calcaneal osteotomy, and a lateral column lengthening to correct the forefoot abduction.

Question 2287

Topic: Forefoot

A 60-year-old male with Coughlin Grade 3 hallux rigidus undergoes a first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis. What is the optimal position for the arthrodesis to maximize postoperative function and footwear compatibility?

. Neutral dorsiflexion and neutral valgus
. 10-15 degrees dorsiflexion and 10-15 degrees valgus
. 25-30 degrees dorsiflexion and neutral valgus
. 5 degrees plantarflexion and 15 degrees valgus
. Neutral dorsiflexion and 20 degrees varus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10-15 degrees dorsiflexion and 10-15 degrees valgus


Explanation

The optimal position for a first MTP joint arthrodesis is 10-15 degrees of valgus and 10-15 degrees of dorsiflexion relative to the floor. This position restores normal push-off mechanics and accommodates standard footwear.

Question 2288

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

In the surgical treatment of Stage IIb adult-acquired flatfoot deformity, an Evans lateral column lengthening osteotomy is performed. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this procedure on the adjacent midfoot joints?

. Decreases talonavicular joint contact pressures
. Increases medial column instability
. Increases calcaneocuboid joint contact pressures
. Decreases stress on the spring ligament complex
. Increases tibiotalar joint dorsal impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases calcaneocuboid joint contact pressures


Explanation

The Evans lateral column lengthening osteotomy effectively corrects forefoot abduction but significantly increases contact pressures across the calcaneocuboid joint. This can predispose the patient to early calcaneocuboid arthritis.

Question 2289

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a pure ligamentous Lisfranc injury with instability of the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal joints. Based on prospective randomized data, which of the following provides the most reliable long-term functional outcome?

. Primary arthrodesis of the involved tarsometatarsal joints
. Open reduction and rigid screw fixation with planned removal at 4 months
. Open reduction and flexible Kirschner wire fixation
. Closed reduction and casting for 8 weeks
. Dorsal bridge plating spanning the midfoot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary arthrodesis of the involved tarsometatarsal joints


Explanation

For primarily ligamentous Lisfranc injuries, prospective randomized studies (e.g., Ly and Coetzee) have demonstrated that primary arthrodesis of the medial columns (TMT 1-3) yields superior functional outcomes and lower reoperation rates compared to ORIF.

Question 2290

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When utilizing the extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the vascular supply to the full-thickness lateral flap is primarily provided by which of the following?

. Lateral calcaneal artery
. Medial calcaneal artery
. Sural artery
. Anterior tibial artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral calcaneal artery


Explanation

The full-thickness lateral flap used in the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus is primarily supplied by the lateral calcaneal artery, a branch of the peroneal artery. Careful handling of this flap is critical to prevent marginal skin necrosis.

Question 2291

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When performing an arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint for end-stage hallux rigidus, what is the optimal position of fusion to ensure maximal postoperative walking function?

. Neutral valgus, 0 degrees of dorsiflexion
. 5 degrees of varus, 10 degrees of plantarflexion
. 10 to 15 degrees of valgus, 15 degrees of dorsiflexion relative to the floor
. 20 degrees of valgus, 30 degrees of dorsiflexion relative to the floor
. Neutral valgus, 25 degrees of dorsiflexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 15 degrees of valgus, 15 degrees of dorsiflexion relative to the floor


Explanation

The optimal position for first MTP arthrodesis is 10-15 degrees of valgus and 15 degrees of dorsiflexion relative to the floor (which equates to roughly 20-25 degrees relative to the first metatarsal). This allows for normal push-off and accommodates standard footwear.

Question 2292

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Recent randomized controlled trials comparing operative and non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures demonstrate that utilizing an early functional rehabilitation protocol in non-operatively managed patients results in:

. Significantly higher re-rupture rates than operative management
. Higher rates of deep vein thrombosis compared to operative management
. Re-rupture rates that are equivalent to operative management
. Decreased plantarflexion strength compared to prolonged casting
. Increased rates of sural nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Re-rupture rates that are equivalent to operative management


Explanation

Level I evidence indicates that when an early functional rehabilitation protocol (weight-bearing and early motion) is used, the re-rupture rates for non-operative management of Achilles tendon ruptures are equivalent to those of operative management, while avoiding surgical complications.

Question 2293

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 45-year-old runner presents with chronic medial heel pain. Examination reveals maximal tenderness over the medial calcaneal tuberosity and radiating pain along the course of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. This nerve primarily provides motor innervation to which muscle?

. Flexor digitorum brevis
. Quadratus plantae
. Adductor hallucis
. Abductor digiti minimi
. Flexor hallucis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abductor digiti minimi


Explanation

The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve, also known as Baxter's nerve, courses between the abductor hallucis and quadratus plantae. It provides motor innervation primarily to the abductor digiti minimi, and its entrapment is a classic cause of chronic heel pain.

Question 2294

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a red, hot, swollen foot without an open ulcer. Radiographs show periarticular debris, fragmentation, and subluxation of the midfoot. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what is the appropriate stage and initial management?

. Stage 0; immediate open reduction and internal fixation
. Stage 1; immediate application of a total contact cast
. Stage 2; custom orthotic shoe wear
. Stage 3; surgical arthrodesis of the midfoot
. Stage 1; intravenous antibiotics and surgical debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage 1; immediate application of a total contact cast


Explanation

Eichenholtz Stage 1 (development/fragmentation) is characterized by a red, hot, swollen foot with radiographic evidence of bone fragmentation and subluxation. The gold standard initial management is offloading via a total contact cast to prevent further deformity.

Question 2295

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old male presents with an acutely swollen knee after a severe hyperextension injury. Examination reveals a positive Lachman, positive posterior drawer, and gross varus/valgus instability. His ankle-brachial index (ABI) is measured at 0.85. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate surgical exploration of the popliteal artery
. CT angiography of the lower extremity
. Application of a spanning external fixator and re-evaluation in 24 hours
. Duplex ultrasonography of the lower extremity venous system
. Close observation with serial ABIs every 4 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT angiography of the lower extremity


Explanation

An ABI less than 0.9 in the setting of a knee dislocation is highly suspicious for a vascular injury. CT angiography is the gold standard next step to precisely localize the popliteal artery lesion before surgical intervention.

Question 2296

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 17a through 17c show the radiographs of a 38-year-old man following a motorcycle accident. The posterior portion of the talus extruded through a posterolateral wound. The extruded talar body is visible in the wound along with some road debris. Management should now consist of surgical irrigation, debridement, and
. removal of the extruded talus and placement of an external fixator.
. immediate tibiocalcaneal fusion.
. reimplantation of the talus, external fixation, and/or open reduction and internal fixation of the talar neck fracture.
. reimplantation followed by primary tibiotalar arthrodesis.
. Syme amputation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. reimplantation of the talus, external fixation, and/or open reduction and internal fixation of the talar neck fracture.


Explanation

The extruded talus should be placed in sterile bacitracin solution, irrigated thoroughly, gently debrided, and immediately replanted in the OR. Open reduction and internal fixation of the talar fracture may be attempted immediately depending on the soft-tissue envelope, or delayed after soft-tissue stabilization with an external fixator. Successful outcome in this series was attributed to multiple debridements, soft-tissue stabilization, and primary wound closure.

Question 2297

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 36-year-old woman is wearing an ankle-foot orthosis for a foot drop secondary to spastic hemiplegia following a postpartum stroke 2 years ago. Knee and hip motion and strength are within normal ranges. She has undergone multiple rounds of physical therapy but has seen no improvement over the past several months. No improvement has been recorded by electromyography (EMG) studies over the past year. Examination reveals a 5-degree plantar flexion contracture with clonus, heel varus, and compensatory knee hyperextension when standing. She has 4/5 power in the tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius soleus complex with resistance testing. Everters are 2/5 to resistance testing. EMG gait studies show that the tibialis anterior demonstrates activity during both swing and stance phase that is increased during swing phase. Premature firing of the triceps surae is noted when positioning the foot in equinus prior to floor contact. What is the most appropriate management?
. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening
. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening and split tibialis anterior transfer to the lateral cuneiform
. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening and interosseous posterior tibialis tendon transfer to the peroneus tertius
. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening and tenotomy of the long toe flexor tendons
. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening, tenotomy of the long toe flexors, and Bridle procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening and split tibialis anterior transfer to the lateral cuneiform


Explanation

The patient has a dynamic varus deformity secondary to spasticity of the tibialis anterior during stance phase with inverter/everter imbalance. The patient still has active motion of the tibialis anterior; therefore, an out-of-phase posterior tibial tendon transfer should not be performed. Lengthening of the Achilles tendon through a percutaneous tenotomy will restore dorsiflexion and decrease clonus from the stretch response. A split tibialis anterior tendon transfer to the lateral cuneiform should correct the varus component and compensate for the weakened peroneals.

Question 2298

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In the surgical management of a displaced Hawkins III talar neck fracture, the surgeon must be mindful of the blood supply to the talar body. Which of the following arteries provides the dominant blood supply to the body of the talus?
. Dorsalis pedis artery
. Artery of the tarsal canal
. Artery of the tarsal sinus
. Deltoid branch of the posterior tibial artery
. Peroneal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the tarsal canal


Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial artery, provides the dominant blood supply to the talar body. It forms an anastomotic sling with the artery of the tarsal sinus.

Question 2299

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 24-year-old collegiate offensive lineman sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury with 3 mm of displacement between the medial cuneiform and the base of the second metatarsal. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for 6 weeks
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with screws
. Primary arthrodesis of the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal joints
. Primary arthrodesis of the fourth and fifth tarsometatarsal joints

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary arthrodesis of the first, second, and third tarsometatarsal joints


Explanation

Primary arthrodesis of the medial columns (1st, 2nd, and 3rd TMT joints) is recommended over ORIF for purely ligamentous Lisfranc injuries due to better functional outcomes and lower reoperation rates. The 4th and 5th TMT joints should be left mobile to accommodate foot adaptation during gait.

Question 2300

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old roofer falls 15 feet, sustaining a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture. During the standard lateral extensile approach for open reduction and internal fixation, the surgeon must reduce the displaced fragments to the 'constant' fragment. Which anatomical structure is this fragment primarily attached to?

. Achilles tendon
. Plantar fascia
. Deltoid ligament
. Interosseous talocalcaneal ligament
. Spring ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interosseous talocalcaneal ligament


Explanation

The sustentacular (anteromedial) fragment is considered the 'constant' fragment because it remains strongly tethered to the talus by the interosseous talocalcaneal and deltoid ligaments. It serves as the anatomical foundation for reconstruction of the calcaneus.