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Question 2161

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old female presents with a progressively collapsing arch and medial ankle pain. Examination reveals a positive 'too many toes' sign and the inability to perform a single-leg heel rise. Radiographs demonstrate a talonavicular uncoverage angle of 35 degrees and >40% uncovering of the talonavicular joint. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this stage of adult acquired flatfoot deformity?
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy alone
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer, medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy, and lateral column lengthening
. Gastrocnemius recession and spring ligament repair
. Isolated subtalar arthrodesis
. Tibialis anterior transfer to the midfoot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer, medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy, and lateral column lengthening


Explanation

This patient has Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD), indicated by >30% talonavicular uncoverage. The addition of a lateral column lengthening (e.g., Evans osteotomy) is required to correct the significant forefoot abduction.

Question 2162

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 52-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous, and warm left foot without a history of trauma. Pedal pulses are bounding. Radiographs demonstrate fragmentation of the tarsometatarsal joints with bone debris and early subluxation. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?

. Urgent surgical debridement and antibiotic spacer placement
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the midfoot
. Total contact casting and strict non-weight-bearing
. Intravenous antibiotics and MRI of the foot
. Primary midfoot arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent surgical debridement and antibiotic spacer placement


Explanation

The presentation is classic for acute Eichenholtz Stage I (fragmentation stage) Charcot neuroarthropathy. The gold standard for initial management is strict immobilization and offloading, typically utilizing a total contact cast.

Question 2163

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 16-year-old male presents with bilateral progressive cavovarus foot deformities. A Coleman block test normalizes hindfoot alignment. Neurological examination reveals depressed deep tendon reflexes. The pathogenesis of this deformity in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is primarily driven by which of the following muscle imbalances?

. Overpowered tibialis anterior and peroneus brevis relative to weak plantar flexors
. Overpowered peroneus longus and tibialis posterior relative to weak tibialis anterior and peroneus brevis
. Spasticity of the flexor hallucis longus overriding the extensor hallucis longus
. Weakness of the intrinsic foot musculature with a preserved flexor digitorum longus
. Contracture of the Achilles tendon overriding isolated tibialis posterior weakness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overpowered tibialis anterior and peroneus brevis relative to weak plantar flexors


Explanation

In Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, foot deformity stems from the strong peroneus longus (plantarflexing the first ray) and tibialis posterior (inverting the hindfoot) overpowering the weak tibialis anterior and peroneus brevis.

Question 2164

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old elite track athlete develops focal midfoot pain over the dorsal 'N spot'. A CT scan confirms a non-displaced stress fracture of the central third of the tarsal navicular. The high risk of nonunion in this specific anatomic location is secondary to a vascular watershed zone formed between which two arteries?

. Medial plantar and lateral plantar arteries
. Dorsalis pedis and medial plantar arteries
. Posterior tibial and peroneal arteries
. Dorsalis pedis and lateral tarsal arteries
. Anterior tibial and dorsalis pedis arteries

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial plantar and lateral plantar arteries


Explanation

The central third of the tarsal navicular is relatively avascular. It represents a watershed area between the branches of the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal supply) and the medial plantar artery (plantar supply).

Question 2165

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 52-year-old female presents with progressive medial ankle pain and a severe flatfoot deformity. Clinical examination demonstrates a positive single-leg heel rise test on the affected side but she can perform a double-leg heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal >30% uncovering of the talonavicular joint and a talonavicular angle of 25 degrees. The hindfoot deformity is flexible. Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate for this stage of deformity?
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer to the navicular and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy
. FDL transfer to the navicular, medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy, and lateral column lengthening
. Triple arthrodesis
. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Spring ligament repair alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. FDL transfer to the navicular, medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy, and lateral column lengthening


Explanation

This patient has a Stage IIB adult acquired flatfoot deformity, characterized by a flexible hindfoot with significant forefoot abduction (>30% talonavicular uncovering). Correcting the severe forefoot abduction requires a lateral column lengthening in addition to a medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and FDL transfer.

Question 2166

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 14-year-old boy presents with recurrent ankle sprains and rigid flatfeet. A lateral weight-bearing radiograph demonstrates a prominent 'C-sign' and a talar beak.

Based on the most likely diagnosis, which specific anatomical structure is most commonly involved in this pathology?

. Anterior facet of the subtalar joint
. Middle facet of the subtalar joint
. Posterior facet of the subtalar joint
. Sustentaculum tali exclusively
. Naviculocuneiform joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior facet of the subtalar joint


Explanation

The clinical presentation and 'C-sign' on a lateral radiograph are classic for a talocalcaneal coalition. The middle facet of the subtalar joint is the most commonly involved facet in talocalcaneal coalitions.

Question 2167

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 68-year-old male is considering surgical intervention for end-stage ankle osteoarthritis. He has a history of well-controlled diabetes and hypertension. Which of the following conditions is considered an absolute contraindication for a primary total ankle arthroplasty (TAA)?

. End-stage osteoarthritis with 5 degrees of valgus deformity
. Rheumatoid arthritis with concurrent subtalar arthritis
. Charcot neuroarthropathy with severe talar body bone loss
. Age greater than 70 years
. Previous open reduction internal fixation of a bimalleolar ankle fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. End-stage osteoarthritis with 5 degrees of valgus deformity


Explanation

Active infection, Charcot neuroarthropathy with significant bone loss, and absent motor function are absolute contraindications for TAA. Rheumatoid arthritis and mild coronal plane deformities are generally acceptable indications, provided the deformity can be balanced.

Question 2168

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Based on recent Level I evidence comparing operative and non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures using early functional rehabilitation protocols, which of the following statements is most accurate?

. Operative treatment has a significantly lower rerupture rate.
. Non-operative treatment has a higher rerupture rate but better plantarflexion strength.
. Operative treatment offers similar rerupture rates but has a higher incidence of superficial soft tissue complications.
. Non-operative treatment has a markedly higher rate of deep vein thrombosis.
. Operative treatment allows for immediate unrestricted weight-bearing without a boot.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Operative treatment has a significantly lower rerupture rate.


Explanation

When utilizing early functional rehabilitation and early weight-bearing protocols, the rerupture rates between operative and non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures are statistically similar. However, operative management carries a higher risk of superficial complications, including wound breakdown and infection.

Question 2169

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 26-year-old female presents with progressive bilateral cavovarus foot deformity. A Coleman block test is performed. When her heel and lateral column are placed on the block while the first metatarsal is allowed to plantarflex freely, the hindfoot varus corrects to a neutral position. What is the primary initial step in the surgical reconstruction of this deformity?

. Peroneus brevis to peroneus longus transfer
. Lateralizing calcaneal osteotomy
. Dorsiflexion osteotomy of the 1st metatarsal
. Plantar fasciotomy alone
. Triple arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus brevis to peroneus longus transfer


Explanation

A positive Coleman block test (hindfoot corrects to neutral) indicates a flexible hindfoot driven by a rigidly plantarflexed first ray (forefoot-driven varus). The primary osseous correction required is a dorsiflexion closing wedge osteotomy of the first metatarsal.

Question 2170

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When performing a minimally invasive repair for an acute Achilles tendon rupture, the sural nerve is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury. At what approximate distance proximal to the calcaneal tuberosity insertion does the sural nerve cross the lateral border of the Achilles tendon?

. 2-3 cm
. 5-7 cm
. 9-12 cm
. 14-16 cm
. 18-20 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2-3 cm


Explanation

The sural nerve typically crosses from lateral to medial across the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 9 to 12 cm proximal to its calcaneal insertion. Sutures placed proximal to this level must be passed carefully to avoid nerve entrapment.

Question 2171

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 55-year-old diabetic patient presents with a swollen, erythematous, and warm unilateral foot without systemic signs of infection. Radiographs show periarticular fragmentation, subluxation, and bony debris around the midfoot. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what is the most appropriate initial management?

. Urgent surgical debridement and fusion
. Total contact casting and strict non-weight-bearing
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Excisional arthroplasty
. Midfoot arthrodesis with robust internal fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent surgical debridement and fusion


Explanation

This patient is in Eichenholtz Stage I (developmental/fragmentation phase) of Charcot arthropathy. The gold standard of treatment during this acute inflammatory phase is immobilization and offloading, typically with a total contact cast.

Question 2172

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 62-year-old female presents with flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals a flexible hindfoot valgus, but she is unable to perform a single-leg heel raise. Radiographs demonstrate significant forefoot abduction with a talonavicular uncoverage angle of 40 degrees. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?

. Isolated flexor digitorum longus (FDL) to navicular transfer
. FDL transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and lateral column lengthening
. Isolated subtalar arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis
. Talonavicular arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated flexor digitorum longus (FDL) to navicular transfer


Explanation

The patient has Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (flexible hindfoot valgus with greater than 30% talonavicular uncoverage). Treatment requires FDL transfer, medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy, and a lateral column lengthening to correct the severe forefoot abduction.

Question 2173

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old track athlete presents with insidious onset of vague dorsal midfoot pain. Examination reveals focal tenderness at the "N-spot". CT scan confirms an incomplete stress fracture in the central third of the tarsal navicular. What anatomic factor primarily contributes to the high risk of nonunion in this specific region?

. Excessive traction from the posterior tibial tendon insertion
. Relative avascularity of the central third
. Continuous shear stress from the talar head during propulsion
. Lack of dorsal periosteal coverage
. Hypertrophy of the spring ligament complex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Relative avascularity of the central third


Explanation

The central third of the tarsal navicular is a vascular watershed area between the medial and lateral blood supplies. This relative avascularity significantly increases the risk of stress fractures and subsequent nonunion.

Question 2174

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When utilizing the extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, preserving the blood supply to the lateral soft tissue flap is critical. Which artery provides the primary vascular supply to the apex of this flap?

. Sural artery
. Lateral tarsal artery
. Lateral calcaneal artery
. Peroneal artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral calcaneal artery


Explanation

The lateral calcaneal artery, a terminal branch of the peroneal artery, provides the primary blood supply to the apex of the extensile lateral flap. Full-thickness "no-touch" subperiosteal dissection is crucial to prevent flap necrosis.

Question 2175

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with a symptomatic cavovarus foot. A Coleman block test is performed, and the hindfoot varus corrects to a neutral alignment when the first metatarsal is allowed to plantarflex off the block. What does this indicate, and what surgical step is essential?

. The hindfoot varus is rigid; a subtalar fusion is required.
. The forefoot is the primary driver; a dorsiflexion osteotomy of the 1st metatarsal is indicated.
. The deformity is driven by an overactive Achilles; a percutaneous lengthening is indicated.
. The subtalar joint is arthritic; a triple arthrodesis is required.
. The deformity is driven by the peroneus longus; isolated peroneus brevis repair is needed.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The forefoot is the primary driver; a dorsiflexion osteotomy of the 1st metatarsal is indicated.


Explanation

A flexible hindfoot varus that corrects on a Coleman block test indicates that a plantarflexed first ray is driving the hindfoot into varus. Correction requires a dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal to elevate the medial column.

Question 2176

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old female dancer presents with pain and swelling over the second metatarsophalangeal joint. Radiographs show flattening, sclerosis, and early fragmentation of the second metatarsal head. What is the primary underlying pathophysiology of this condition?

. Repetitive traction apophysitis of the metatarsal base
. Avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head
. Synovial chondromatosis of the MTP joint
. Chronic tearing of the deep transverse metatarsal ligament
. Fatigue failure (stress fracture) of the metatarsal diaphysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head


Explanation

Freiberg's infraction is characterized by avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head, most frequently involving the second metatarsal in adolescent females. It is thought to result from repetitive microtrauma and subsequent vascular compromise.

Question 2177

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 65-year-old male with severe post-traumatic ankle osteoarthritis is evaluated for a total ankle arthroplasty (TAA). Which of the following conditions is generally considered an absolute contraindication for a primary TAA?

. Age greater than 60 years
. Body Mass Index (BMI) of 29
. Avascular necrosis affecting >50% of the talar body
. Concomitant subtalar arthritis
. Complete rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis affecting >50% of the talar body


Explanation

Significant avascular necrosis of the talus (typically >50% of the body) is an absolute contraindication for TAA. The necrotic bone cannot adequately support the talar component, leading to a high risk of catastrophic component subsidence.

Question 2178

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 30-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains an isolated lateral subtalar dislocation. Closed reduction in the emergency department under conscious sedation is unsuccessful. What anatomical structure is most likely blocking the reduction?

. Extensor digitorum brevis muscle
. Posterior tibial tendon
. Anterior tibial tendon
. Peroneus brevis tendon
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior tibial tendon


Explanation

Lateral subtalar dislocations are notorious for being irreducible by closed means. The posterior tibial tendon is the most common anatomic structure that incarcerates and blocks reduction in lateral dislocations.

Question 2179

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a severe traumatic knee dislocation resulting in a complete foot drop.

Given the mechanism and neurological deficit, which adjacent vascular structure is most critically at risk and requires emergent evaluation?

. Anterior tibial artery
. Popliteal artery
. Posterior tibial artery
. Superficial femoral artery
. Peroneal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteal artery


Explanation

Traumatic knee dislocations are highly associated with popliteal artery injuries due to the artery's anatomic tethering at the adductor hiatus proximally and the soleus arch distally. A concomitant common peroneal nerve injury (indicated by the foot drop) occurs in 15-40% of knee dislocations and typically results from a severe stretch injury. Emergent evaluation of the popliteal artery via ABI and/or CT angiography is mandatory.

Question 2180

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old construction worker drops a heavy steel beam on his midfoot, sustaining a severe Lisfranc fracture-dislocation.

In the emergency department, he complains of significant numbness over the dorsal aspect of the first web space of his foot. Which nerve is most likely compromised, and what is its anatomic course relative to the injury?

. Superficial peroneal nerve, coursing superficial to the extensor retinaculum.
. Sural nerve, coursing posterior to the lateral malleolus.
. Deep peroneal nerve, coursing alongside the dorsalis pedis artery over the tarsometatarsal joints.
. Medial plantar nerve, coursing distally through the tarsal tunnel.
. Saphenous nerve, coursing anterior to the medial malleolus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve, coursing alongside the dorsalis pedis artery over the tarsometatarsal joints.


Explanation

The deep peroneal nerve provides sensory innervation to the first dorsal web space of the foot. It courses dorsally over the midfoot (tarsometatarsal joints) in close proximity to the dorsalis pedis artery. In severe midfoot crush injuries or Lisfranc fracture-dislocations, this nerve is vulnerable to direct contusion, stretch, or compression from localized swelling and fracture displacement.