Question 561
Topic: Midfoot & HindfootWhich of the following ligaments is considered the strongest and primary stabilizer of the second tarsometatarsal joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Interosseous Lisfranc ligament
Practice Set 29 of 39
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Midfoot & Hindfoot. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Which of the following ligaments is considered the strongest and primary stabilizer of the second tarsometatarsal joint?
. Interosseous Lisfranc ligament
. Type IV: Displaced fracture with dislocation of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular joints
A 60-year-old woman presents with a progressive flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals a loss of the medial longitudinal arch and a positive too-many-toes sign. Which ligament is considered the primary static stabilizer of the talonavicular joint and medial longitudinal arch?
. Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
In a patient with acquired adult flatfoot deformity, progressive failure of the posterior tibial tendon often leads to attenuation of the plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament. Which of the following is the primary attachment site of the superomedial bundle of the spring ligament?
. Sustentaculum tali to the navicular tuberosity
A 30-year-old runner develops chronic medial heel pain. Entrapment of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve (Baxter's nerve) is suspected. This nerve is most commonly compressed between the deep fascia of the abductor hallucis and which other muscle?
. Quadratus plantae
A 55-year-old female presents with a progressive flatfoot deformity. MRI demonstrates severe tendinosis of the posterior tibial tendon. What primary static soft-tissue stabilizer of the medial longitudinal arch is most likely anatomically attenuated secondary to this tendon's failure?
. Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament
During a plantar approach to the midfoot for excision of a severe plantar fibroma, the surgeon must identify the "Master Knot of Henry" to protect the flexor tendons. Which of the following describes the correct anatomical relationship at this location?
. The flexor hallucis longus tendon crosses dorsal to the flexor digitorum longus tendon.
The myriad of orthopedic manifestations seen in Down syndrome, including patellofemoral instability, pes planus, and hip subluxation, are primarily attributed to which underlying pathophysiology?
. Generalized collagen defect leading to ligamentous laxity and hypotonia
A diabetic patient is found to have absent protective sensation on 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament testing. According to the literature, this patient is at increased risk for developing neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy. Which of the following best describes the neurovascular theory of this condition's pathogenesis?
. Autonomic neuropathy leading to bounding pulses and increased osteoclastic activity
In patients developing Charcot neuroarthropathy of the foot, which of the following anatomic locations is the most commonly affected (Brodsky Type 1)?
. Tarsometatarsal (Lisfranc) joint
Total Contact Casting (TCC) is a highly effective method for offloading plantar diabetic neuropathic ulcers. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to the use of a TCC?
. Deep infection or active osteomyelitis
. Stage III (Consolidation/Reconstruction)
A surgeon is planning a midfoot reconstruction for a diabetic patient with severe structural deformity from inactive Charcot arthropathy. Preoperative laboratory optimization is paramount. A Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) level persistently above what threshold is most strongly associated with exponentially increased rates of surgical site infection and poor wound healing?
. 8.0%
. Exostectomy of the bony prominence
A 45-year-old male presents with a painless, grossly swollen right shoulder. Examination reveals palpable crepitus, severe instability, and diminished pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremity.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

. Neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy secondary to syringomyelia
. Stage I (Developmental)
What is the most appropriate initial management for a patient presenting with an acute, non-ulcerated Eichenholtz Stage I Charcot arthropathy of the foot?
. Total contact casting (TCC)
A 55-year-old patient with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes presents with a warm, swollen, erythematous, and painless foot. Radiographs demonstrate periarticular debris, bony fragmentation, and midfoot subluxation. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what is the current stage and best initial management?
. Stage 1 / Total contact cast and non-weight bearing
The pathogenesis of Charcot arthropathy is classically described by two main theories. The "neurovascular theory" attributes the initial bone destruction and fragmentation to which of the following mechanisms?
. Autonomic neuropathy causing increased peripheral blood flow and active bone resorption
The neurotraumatic and neurovascular theories are postulated for the development of Charcot arthropathy. Which of the following best describes the core principle of the neurovascular theory?
. Autonomic neuropathy causing an exaggerated hyperemic response and osteoclastic resorption