This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Ankle Trauma & Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 101
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains an acute high ankle sprain. Examination reveals a positive external rotation stress test and positive squeeze test. An MRI confirms an isolated full-thickness tear of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) and the interosseous membrane up to 5 cm proximal to the joint line. Intraoperatively, the syndesmosis is unstable to the hook test. If dynamic suture-button fixation is chosen over static syndesmotic screw fixation, what is an established clinical advantage?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It requires routine removal prior to full weight-bearing
Explanation
Suture-button fixation for syndesmotic instability provides dynamic stabilization. Unlike static syndesmotic screws, the suture-button allows for normal, physiologic micro-motion (rotation and proximal-distal translation) of the fibula during the gait cycle. It also does not require routine removal and facilitates an earlier return to weight-bearing and functional activities. Current literature indicates equivalent or lower rates of malreduction compared to traditional screw fixation.
Question 102
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 26-year-old male sustains a pronation-external rotation ankle injury. Radiographs show a high fibular fracture (Maisonneuve). During surgical fixation, a syndesmotic injury is confirmed. The surgeon elects to use a flexible, suture-button construct rather than static syndesmotic screws. According to recent literature, what is the primary biomechanical and clinical advantage of using a suture-button construct for syndesmotic fixation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Complete rigid immobilization of the distal tibiofibular joint
Explanation
Flexible suture-button constructs have become popular for syndesmotic fixation. Their primary advantages include allowing for physiologic micromotion at the syndesmosis (dynamic stabilization), which more closely replicates native kinematics and may lead to earlier functional recovery. Additionally, it avoids the need for routine hardware removal, which is a common requirement or secondary procedure when using traditional rigid metal screws, as rigid screws can loosen, back out, or break upon weight-bearing.
Question 103
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A football player sustains a high ankle sprain. This injury typically involves damage to which of the following ligamentous complexes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
Explanation
A 'high ankle sprain' refers to an injury of the tibiofibular syndesmosis. The primary ligaments composing the syndesmosis are the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL), the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL), the transverse tibiofibular ligament (deep part of PITFL), and the interosseous membrane/ligament. Among the given options, the AITFL is the most commonly injured component in a high ankle sprain. The ATFL, CFL, and PTFL are components of the lateral ankle collateral ligament complex, involved in 'low' ankle sprains (inversion injuries). The deltoid ligament is the medial collateral ligament complex of the ankle.
Question 104
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A patient sustains an inversion ankle injury with associated avulsion fracture of the anterior aspect of the distal fibula. Which ligament is not considered part of the lateral collateral ligament complex of the ankle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
Explanation
The lateral collateral ligament complex of the ankle primarily consists of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL), the calcaneofibular ligament (CFL), and the posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL). These ligaments resist inversion. The posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) is a component of the tibiofibular syndesmosis, which stabilizes the distal tibiofibular joint, and is injured in 'high ankle sprains' (eversion and dorsiflexion injuries). The accessory lateral ligament is an anatomical variant sometimes found. Therefore, PITFL is the correct answer as it is not part of the lateral collateral ligament complex.
Question 105
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after sustaining a twisting injury to his right ankle while skateboarding. Radiographs and a subsequent CT scan demonstrate a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis.
Which of the following ligamentous structures is responsible for avulsing this bony fragment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
The patient has a Juvenile Tillaux fracture, which is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. This injury occurs in adolescents (typically ages 12-14) because the distal tibial physis closes in a predictable pattern: central -> anteromedial -> posteromedial -> anterolateral. During an external rotation injury, the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) becomes taut and avulses the unfused anterolateral epiphysis. The ATFL, CFL, and Deltoid ligaments do not attach to this specific fragment.
Question 106
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 14-year-old adolescent boy sustains an ankle injury. Radiographs and a CT scan reveal a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral aspect of the distal tibial epiphysis, displaced by 3 mm. Which ligament is primarily responsible for the avulsion of this fracture fragment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
A juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. It is caused by an avulsion force from the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) resulting from an external rotation mechanism.
Question 107
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 45-year-old woman with chronic lateral ankle instability is scheduled for a Brostrom-Gould procedure. This procedure involves direct repair of the anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments, augmented by mobilization and advancement of which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior extensor retinaculum
Explanation
The Gould modification of the Brostrom procedure involves mobilization and advancement of the inferior extensor retinaculum over the repaired lateral ligaments to reinforce the repair and limit inversion.
Question 108
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 25-year-old professional soccer player undergoes operative fixation for a syndesmotic injury utilizing a flexible suture-button construct. Compared to traditional rigid syndesmotic screw fixation, what is a recognized clinical or biomechanical advantage of the suture-button construct?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased need for routine implant removal
Explanation
Flexible suture-button constructs for syndesmotic injuries provide dynamic stabilization, allowing physiological micromotion at the distal tibiofibular joint during weight-bearing. This mimics the native syndesmosis better than rigid screws. A primary clinical advantage of the suture-button construct is the decreased need for routine implant removal. Traditional syndesmotic screws often require a second surgery for removal due to the risk of screw breakage or patient discomfort during the resumption of physiological motion with weight-bearing. Suture buttons do not promote 'primary bone healing' of the syndesmosis (which is a ligamentous structure) and do not have an inherent effect on medial malleolus bone healing.
Question 109
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 25-year-old male sustains a severe twisting injury to his ankle. Radiographs reveal a medial clear space of 6 mm and a tibiofibular clear space of 7 mm on the AP view. A fracture of the proximal third of the fibula is also noted. What is the diagnosis and most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Maisonneuve fracture; syndesmotic screw or suture button fixation
Explanation
A pronation-external rotation injury resulting in a proximal fibular fracture and disruption of the tibiofibular syndesmosis is known as a Maisonneuve fracture. The widening of the medial clear space indicates associated rupture of the deltoid ligament. This highly unstable injury pattern necessitates surgical reduction and stabilization of the syndesmosis, typically achieved with either syndesmotic screws or a dynamic suture-button construct.
Question 110
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
While operatively stabilizing a syndesmotic injury of the ankle, the surgeon places a syndesmotic screw from the fibula to the tibia. Anatomically, the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis relies on multiple ligamentous structures for stability. Which of the following is considered the strongest and thickest primary stabilizer of this complex?
The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is stabilized by the AITFL, PITFL, and the interosseous ligament/membrane. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) is the thickest and strongest component, providing approximately 42% of the strength of the syndesmosis and offering the greatest resistance to lateral displacement of the distal fibula.
Question 111
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old boy sustains an ankle injury while playing soccer. Radiographs reveal a Salter-Harris type III fracture of the anterolateral aspect of the distal tibial epiphysis. What structure avulses this bone fragment during the injury mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
This describes a juvenile Tillaux fracture, which occurs due to an external rotation force. The fragment is avulsed by the tension of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) on the unfused anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis.
Question 112
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old sustains a juvenile Tillaux fracture of the ankle. The specific mechanism involves an avulsion of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. Which ligament is responsible for the avulsive force causing this fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
The anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) attaches the distal fibula to the anterolateral distal tibia (Chaput's tubercle). In adolescents whose medial physis has closed but lateral physis remains open, external rotation forces cause the AITFL to avulse the anterolateral epiphysis.
Question 113
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is stabilized by a complex of multiple ligaments. Based on biomechanical sectioning studies, which structure provides the greatest resistance to lateral displacement of the fibula?
Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) is the strongest component of the syndesmosis, contributing approximately 42% of the resistance to lateral fibular displacement. The AITFL contributes roughly 35% of the total resistance.
Question 114
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 24-year-old rugby player sustains an external rotation injury to the ankle. Examination reveals tenderness over the anterior syndesmosis, and radiographs demonstrate widening of the tibiofibular clear space.
Which ligament provides the greatest absolute resistance to diastasis of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
Biomechanical studies show that the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) contributes approximately 42% of the resistance to syndesmotic diastasis, making it the strongest and most important individual stabilizer of the syndesmosis.
Question 115
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate soccer player presents with a high ankle sprain (syndesmotic injury) confirmed by an increased tibiofibular clear space. He undergoes dynamic fixation using a suture-button construct. Compared to traditional syndesmotic screw fixation, the suture-button construct has been shown to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Show a faster return to sport and lower rate of hardware-related complications
Explanation
Suture-button constructs for syndesmosis injuries offer dynamic stabilization mimicking physiologic motion. They demonstrate a faster return to sport and a lower need for routine hardware removal compared to rigid screw fixation.
Question 116
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
Intraoperatively, following fixation of a Weber C ankle fracture, the cotton test demonstrates widening of the syndesmosis. Which of the following radiographic parameters best assesses the adequacy of syndesmotic reduction on a standard AP or mortise radiograph?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibiofibular overlap
Explanation
Tibiofibular overlap is a key radiographic parameter to assess syndesmotic integrity. On a proper AP radiograph, it should be greater than 10 mm, and on a mortise view, greater than 1 mm.
Question 117
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
During the open reduction and internal fixation of a pronation-external rotation (Weber C) ankle fracture, the surgeon decides to place a syndesmotic position screw. Which of the following is the strongest predictor of long-term functional outcome in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anatomic reduction of the tibiofibular syndesmosis
Explanation
Multiple studies have shown that the anatomic reduction of the syndesmosis is the single most important factor determining functional outcomes in syndesmotic injuries. Screw size, number of cortices, and removal protocols do not significantly alter outcomes if reduction is perfect.
Question 118
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains an isolated lateral malleolus fracture with a syndesmotic rupture. Intraoperatively, after fibular fixation, the syndesmosis is reduced with a clamp. What is the most common malreduction of the distal fibula within the incisura if the clamp is placed too anteriorly on the tibia?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior translation
Explanation
Placing the reduction clamp too anteriorly on the tibia and posteriorly on the fibula forces the fibula to translate anteriorly within the incisura. Anatomic reduction requires the clamp to be oriented in the true transmalleolar axis.
Question 119
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 25-year-old soccer player sustains an ankle inversion and external rotation injury. Anteroposterior and mortise radiographs show no fracture, but the tibiofibular clear space is 7 mm. What ligament is primarily responsible for the anterior stability of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
The AITFL provides approximately 35% of the resistance to diastasis. It acts as the primary anterior stabilizer of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis.
Question 120
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 28-year-old athlete sustains an external rotation injury to the ankle. Intraoperatively, the syndesmosis is evaluated. Which of the following ligaments contributes the greatest percentage of mechanical stability to the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
The posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) is the strongest and provides the greatest mechanical stability to the syndesmosis, contributing approximately 42% of its resistance to diastasis.
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