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Question 1461

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
What artery provides the only direct vascularization to both the intraneural and extraneural blood supply of the ulnar nerve just proximal to the cubital tunnel?
. Superior ulnar collateral
. Inferior ulnar collateral
. Posterior ulnar recurrent
. Brachial
. Ulnar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior ulnar collateral


Explanation

The superior ulnar collateral, inferior ulnar collateral, and posterior ulnar recurrent arteries provide consistent vascular supply to the ulnar nerve. This supply is segmental in nature. The inferior ulnar collateral artery provides the only direct vascularization to the nerve and is located in the region just proximal to the cubital tunnel. The segmental nature of the blood supply to the ulnar nerve underscores the importance of its preservation during transposition.

Question 1462

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint should be flexed to what degree to properly assess ligamentous stability?
. 30 degrees of flexion to test the proper collateral ligament and full extension to test the accessory collateral ligament and the palmar plate
. 30 degrees of flexion to test the accessory collateral ligament and full extension to test the proper collateral ligament and the palmar plate
. 45 degrees of flexion to test the accessory collateral ligament, the proper collateral ligament, and the palmar plate
. 90 degrees of flexion to test the proper collateral ligament and full extension to test the accessory collateral ligament and the palmar plate
. 90 degrees of flexion to test the accessory collateral ligament and full extension to test the proper collateral ligament and the palmar plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30 degrees of flexion to test the proper collateral ligament and full extension to test the accessory collateral ligament and the palmar plate


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The collateral ligaments of the MCP joint of the thumb can be isolated by flexing the joint to 30 degrees. Full extension is best to assess the accessory collaterals and the palmar plate. The ulnar collateral ligament nearly always separates from the base of first phalanx of the thumb; it frequently becomes lodged between adductor pollicis aponeurosis and its normal position (Stener lesion). The creation of a Stener lesion requires significant radial deviation of the phalanx along with combined tears of the proper and accessory collateral ligaments in order for the ligament to be displaced above the adductor aponeurosis. REFERENCES: Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgery, 2002, pp 339-358. Stener B: Displacement of the ruptured ulnar collateral ligament of the MP joint of the thumb: A clinical and anatomical study. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1962;44:869-879.

Question 1463

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Which of the following best describes the course of the ulnar nerve in the midforearm?
. Travels deep to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, radial to the ulnar artery, superficial to the flexor digitorum profundus muscle
. Travels deep to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, radial to the ulnar artery, deep to the flexor digitorum profundus muscle
. Travels deep to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, ulnar to the ulnar artery, superficial to the flexor digitorum profundus muscle
. Travels superficial to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, ulnar to the ulnar artery, superficial to the flexor digitorum profundus muscle
. Travels superficial to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, radial to the ulnar artery, superficial to the flexor digitorum profundus muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Travels deep to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, ulnar to the ulnar artery, superficial to the flexor digitorum profundus muscle


Explanation

Discussion: In the midforearm, the ulnar nerve travels deep to the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle and ulnar to the ulnar artery as it lies on the flexor digitorum profundus muscle. In this region, the ulnar nerve and artery lie side-by-side, whereas more proximal in the forearm, the ulnar artery originates from the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa, and the ulnar nerve lies within the cubital tunnel.

Question 1464

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 25-year-old man has an isolated flexor digitorum profundus laceration just proximal to the distal interphalangeal (DIP) flexion crease of his ring finger. The tendon ends are trimmed, removing 10 mm from each end (secondary to fraying) and the tendon repaired. Four months later, he reports limited finger motion of the long, ring, and small fingers. He cannot fully extend his wrist and all joints of the 3 fingers simultaneously. He has full passive flexion but cannot actively completely close his fingers into a fist. What is the most likely cause?
. Quadrigia
. Intrinsic tightness
. Lumbrical plus deformity
. Disruption of the tendon repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrigia


Explanation

Explanation: If a single flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon is debrided more than 1 cm prior to repair, the tendon is advanced too far distally, essentially shortening the musculotendon unit. The finger will likely develop a flexion posture. Because of the common muscle belly and interconnections of the profundi, the long and small fingers adjacent to the injured finger will be affected because of loss of some of their normal proximal excursion. The result is an inability of the adjacent fingers to completely flex. This condition, known as quadrigia, is named after the Roman chariot driver who held control of the reins of 4 horses, forcing them to move as 1. Quadrigia occurs when the FDP tendon is advanced too far distally, when a tendon graft is too short, or when the profundus is sutured over the end of an amputated digit.

Question 1465

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 16-year-old high school football player has diffuse pain with attempted digital flexion after injuring the ring finger of the dominant hand 1 week ago. Examination reveals that he is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joint. Management should consist of
. surgical exploration and tendon reinsertion of the flexor digitorum profundus.
. surgical exploration and tendon reinsertion of the flexor digitorum superficialis.
. steroids and physical therapy.
. surgical release of the anterior interosseous nerve.
. surgical release of the median nerve.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical exploration and tendon reinsertion of the flexor digitorum profundus.


Explanation

The patient has an avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus. Treatment should include surgical exploration and tendon reinsertion. This is not an avulsion of the flexor digitorum superficialis because the patient’s deficiency is the inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint, not the proximal interphalangeal joint. Surgical release of the anterior interosseous nerve is not indicated because the flexor digitorum profundus of the ring finger is innervated by the ulnar nerve.

Question 1466

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The arrow in the axial T1-weighted MRI scan shown in Figure 18 is pointing to which of the following structures?
. Ulnar artery
. Ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal
. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve only
. Median nerve
. Radial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal


Explanation

The arrow is pointing to the ulnar nerve within Guyon’s canal. Guyon’s canal is approximately 4 cm long, beginning at the proximal extent of the transverse carpal ligament and ending at the aponeurotic arch of the hypothenar muscles. Within Guyon’s canal, the ulnar nerve bifurcates into the superficial and deep branches. The ulnar artery is immediately adjacent and radial to the ulnar nerve.

Question 1467

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 56-year-old mechanic has had pain in the hypothenar region of his dominant right hand for the past 6 months. He reports weakness in his grip and pain is worse with activity. Which of the following examination findings is most suggestive of a cervical etiology? Review Topic

. Relief of symptoms with shoulder abduction (placing hand over the head)
. Hypothenar atrophy
. Reproduction of pain with hyperflexion and contralateral rotation of the head
. Positive Tinel’s sign at the levator scapulae
. Subluxable ulnar nerve at the cubital tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Relief of symptoms with shoulder abduction (placing hand over the head)


Explanation

Hypothenar atrophy is a nonspecific sign that can be seen in ulnar neuropathy, C8 radiculopathy, or even cervical myelopathy; however, the atrophy usually is not unilateral and includes other muscle groups. The Spurling test is an excellent method of eliciting cervical radicular pain but involves hyperextension and ipsilateral rotation of the cervical spine, resulting in nerve root compression by reducing the cross-sectional area of the ipsilateral neuroforamen. Tinel’s sign at the levator scapulae, if present, is indicative of an upper cervical (C3 or C4) radiculopathy. A subluxable ulnar nerve at the cubital tunnel, while often asymptomatic, points toward cubital tunnel syndrome as an etiology for this patient’s pain. The shoulder abduction relief (SAR) sign (relief of upper extremity pain with shoulder abduction) is virtually pathognomic of cervical radiculopathy because this maneuver results in relaxation of a compressed and/or inflamed cervical nerve root. The SAR sign is the converse analog of the straight leg raising sign in the lumbar examination for lumbar radiculopathy, as it relieves tension in the nerve root, thereby relieving symptoms.

Question 1468

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 41-year-old man who plays golf regularly has had ulnar-sided wrist pain for the past several days after striking a tree root with a golf club. Examination reveals significant pain with resisted flexion of the ring and small fingers and tenderness over the hook of the hamate. Which of the following radiographic views would be most helpful in identifying the pathology of this injury?
. PA and lateral views of the wrist
. PA, lateral, and oblique views of the hand
. Scaphoid view
. Bruerton’s view
. Carpal tunnel view

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Carpal tunnel view


Explanation

The history and examination findings suggest an acute fracture of the hook of the hamate. The radiographic study considered most helpful in identifying this type of fracture is the carpal tunnel view.

Question 1469

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old man sustained a 1-inch stab incision in his proximal forearm while trying to use a screwdriver 2 weeks ago. The laceration was routinely closed, and no problems about the incision site were noted. He now reports that he has been unable to straighten his fingers or thumb completely since the injury. Clinical photographs shown in Figures 30a and 30b show the man passively flexing the wrist. What is the most appropriate management?
. Nerve conduction velocity studies and electromyography
. Extension splinting of the fingers
. Exploration and repair of the extensor tendon laceration
. Exploration and repair of the posterior interosseous nerve
. Observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Exploration and repair of the posterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The clinical photographs indicate that the tenodesis effect of digit flexion with passive wrist extension and digit extension with passive wrist flexion is intact, indicating no discontinuity of the extensor or flexor tendons. The most likely injury is a laceration of the posterior interosseous nerve.

Question 1470

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient is treated with volar plating for a distal radius fracture. The CT scan shown in Figure 15 is obtained after union of the fracture because the patient reports ongoing symptoms. The prominent hardware is most likely injuring what tendon?
. Extensor pollicis brevis (EPB)
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
. Extensor digitorum communis (EDC)
. Extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU)
. Extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor digitorum communis (EDC)


Explanation

The CT scan shows prominent dorsal hardware a few millimeters ulnar to Lister’s tubercle. The contents of the fourth dorsal compartment run just ulnar to Lister’s tubercle. The EDC tendon is likely irritated in this patient.

Question 1471

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A purulent flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb may communicate with the small finger flexor through which of the following structures?
. Hypothenar space
. Thenar space
. Midpalmar space
. Distal forearm (Parona’s space)
. Lumbrical canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal forearm (Parona’s space)


Explanation

Only the flexor sheaths of the thumb and small finger are continuous from the digit through the carpal canal and into the distal forearm. If one of the sheaths ruptures from synovitis, it may contaminate the other sheath through Parona’s space in the distal forearm.

Question 1472

Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 64-year-old female sustains a nondisplaced distal radius fracture and undergoes closed treatment using a cast. Three months after the fracture she reports an acute loss of her ability to extend her thumb. What is the most likely etiology of her new loss of function?
. Posterior interosseous nerve entrapment
. Extensor pollicis longus rupture
. Extensor pollicis longus entrapment
. Distal radius malunion
. Intersection syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor pollicis longus rupture


Explanation

According to the referenced article by Jupiter and Fernandez, the most common scenario of extensor pollicis longus rupture after a distal radius fracture is when the fracture is non or minimally displaced. The hypothesis is that the rupture happens at an area of relative hypovascularity and healing callus can aggravate this area, leading to a degenerative tear.

Question 1473

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man sustained a wound with a 1-cm by 1.5-cm soft-tissue loss over the volar aspect of the middle phalanx of his middle finger. After appropriate debridement and irrigation, the flexor digitorum profundus tendon and neurovascular bundles are visible. The wound should be treated with a:
. split-thickness skin graft.
. thenar flap.
. cross-finger flap.
. lateral arm flap.
. Moberg (volar advancement) flap.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. cross-finger flap.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The wound described indicates loss of soft tissue directly to the level of the tendon, precluding use of skin grafts if excursion of the tendon is desired. A cross-finger flap is ideal for small wounds on the volar aspect of digits. A thenar flap is suitable for tip injuries. A lateral arm flap will not reach the fingers. A Moberg flap is limited to distal injuries of the thumb.

Question 1474

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Figures 44a through 44c show the radiographs of an 18-year-old female soccer player who fell on her outstretched hand 1 day ago. She denies any history of wrist pain. Examination reveals tenderness at the anatomic snuffbox. Management should consist of
. a long arm cast for 6 weeks, followed by a short arm cast for 6 weeks.
. vascularized bone graft from the 1,2 intercompartmental supraretinacular artery.
. open reduction and internal fixation with a differential pitch screw via a dorsal approach.
. open reduction and internal fixation with a differential pitch screw via a volar approach
. a removable thumb spica splint.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation with a differential pitch screw via a dorsal approach.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The treatment of choice for proximal pole scaphoid fractures is open reduction and internal fixation with a differential pitch screw via a dorsal approach. Healing rates of 100% have been reported for these acute fractures. Casting results in slow healing, with recommendations including 16 weeks or more in a cast. Vascularized bone grafts are not indicated for acute fractures. REFERENCES: Rettig ME, Raskin KB: Retrograde compression screw fixation of acute proximal pole scaphoid fractures. J Hand Surg 1999;24:1206-1210. Raskin KB, Parisi D, Baker J, et al: Dorsal open repair of proximal pole scaphoid fractures. Hand Clin 2001;17:601-610.

Question 1475

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

Figures 39a through 39c show a clinical photograph and the radiographs of a 32-year-old woman who has been unable to actively extend her dominant ring and small finger for the past two weeks. She has no history of trauma and has minimal pain. Examination reveals full passive range of motion (ROM) of the fingers. Active ROM of the wrist is extension of 40 degrees and flexion of 35 degrees. Active forearm pronation is 45 degrees, and supination is 50 degrees. Treatment should consist of

. Total wrist replacement and bridge grafts
. palmar shelf arthroplasty and tendon transfers
. Darrach distal ulna resection, dorsal tenosynosynovectomy, and tendon transfers
. Radioscaphate fusion, extensor tenodesis, and Darrach distal ulna resection
. Total wrist fusion and tendon transfers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Darrach distal ulna resection, dorsal tenosynosynovectomy, and tendon transfers


Explanation

The patient has acute rupture of the extensor tendons to the fifth and fourth fingers. Her X-rays show generalized severe arthritis, consistent with rheumatoid arthritis, in the distal radius and ulna, the carpals, and MCPs. There also appears to be a sharp osteophyte on the dorsal surface of the distal ulna (Fig 39c). Rheumatoid arthritis affects both joints and tendons because both are lined with synovium. The distal ulna typically becomes roughened with a sharp edge which acts“like a buzzsaw” on the overlying tendons. This is called a Vaughan-Jackson lesion when extensor tendons are ruptured at the distal radial-ulnar joint. Of the dorsal/extensor compartments, typically the digiti minimi is involved first and further ruptures progress radially as the hand ulnarly deviates and the other tendons sublux and are brought within range of the “buzzsaw.” The cited articles state that after a dorsal exposure the hypertrophic tenosynovium is removed from each tendon sytematically, and the wrist joint then evaluated. Any bony spicules which may further damage tendons are removed, and the distal ulna is excised. Tendon transfers, grafts, or repairs are then performed. Surgical results tend to be better with single or double tendon ruptures than with multiple tendon ruptures.

Question 1476

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 38-year-old man caught his index finger in a volleyball net. He noted an angular deformity of the finger that was reduced when a teammate pulled on his finger. Three weeks later, he now reports trouble extending his finger. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 55. What anatomic structure is most likely injured?
. Spiral oblique retinacular ligament
. Sagittal bands
. Volar plate
. Central slip of the extensor tendon
. Terminal extensor tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central slip of the extensor tendon


Explanation

The clinical photograph shows a classic boutonniere deformity. It is likely that the patient sustained a volar dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joint, with a concomitant rupture of the central slip insertion of the extensor tendon.

Question 1477

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 35-year-old woman states that she stepped on a piece of glass 6 months ago and reports numbness and shooting pain along the plantar lateral forefoot. She had previously received steroid injections in the 3 to 4 webspace. Examination reveals mild tenderness along the plantar fascia; no Tinel’s sign is noted plantar medially and no Mulder’s click is noted distally. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 7. What is the most likely cause of the numbness?
. Residual foreign body
. Lateral plantar nerve laceration
. Impingement of Baxter’s nerve
. Interdigital neuroma
. Digital nerve laceration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral plantar nerve laceration


Explanation

The MRI scan reveals a laceration through the abductor hallucis musculature and lateral plantar nerve, producing numbness along its distribution. There is no evidence of a foreign body on the MRI scan. Baxter’s nerve, or nerve to the abductor digiti quinti muscle, is the first branch off the lateral plantar nerve and impingement of this nerve typically produces a Tinel’s sign along the nerve branch deep to the abductor hallucis muscle. Interdigital neuroma would be suggested by the presence of a Mulder’s click. A digital nerve laceration would exhibit isolated numbness more distally.

Question 1478

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following describes the correct proximal to distal progression of the annular and cruciform pulleys of the digits?
. A1, A2, C1, A3, C2, A4, C3
. A1, A2, A3, C1, C2, C3, A4
. A1, C1, C2, A2, A3, A4, C3
. A1, C1, A2, C2, A3, A4, C3
. A1, A2, A3, A4, C1, C2, C3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A1, A2, C1, A3, C2, A4, C3


Explanation

The correct progression of the annular and cruciform pulley in the digits is A1, A2, C1, A3, C2, A4, C3. The two cruciform pulleys are collapsible elements adjacent to the more rigid annular pulleys of the flexor tendon sheath. This arrangement enables unrestricted flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint.

Question 1479

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 62-year-old woman with soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia has severe pain in the left index, middle, ring, and little fingers. History reveals that she does not smoke. The clinical history and arteriogram shown in Figure 6 are consistent with which of the following conditions?
. Buerger’s disease
. Hypothenar hammer syndrome
. Superficial palmar arch aneurysm
. Raynaud’s phenomenon
. Diabetic vasculopathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Raynaud’s phenomenon


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The arteriogram shows generalized disease of all vascular structures. Even though the image was obtained following an infusion of nitroglycerin, little flow is present to the fingers. Based on the history of soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia, the most likely diagnosis is CREST (calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias). The arteriogram reveals Raynaud’s phenomenon or the “R” component of CREST. Buerger’s disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans, is strongly associated with a history of smoking. Hypothenar hammer syndrome involves repetitive trauma to the ulnar artery at the wrist, resulting in well-defined filling defects in the superficial palmar arch of the hand.

Question 1480

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The examination finding shown in Video 1 is consistent with which defect?
. Trigger finger
. Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) incompetence
. Flexor digitorum sublimis (FDS) incompetence
. Extensor digitorum communis (EDC) incompetence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) incompetence


Explanation

The video shows the lack of tenodesis caused by the incompetence of the FDP tendon to the ring finger, which can be attributable to a laceration, tendon rupture, or avulsion. Note how the ring finger stays extended (compared to the other digits) when the extensor tendons are tightened during wrist extension. The other fingers are pulled into flexion by the FDP tendons when the extensor tendons are relaxed during wrist extension. With the wrist flexed, the extensor mechanism to all fingers appears to be functioning normally. Findings indicating a trigger finger would be locking in flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint. FDS incompetence can only be detected by blocking FDP function of the other fingers and actively flexing the examined finger.