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Question 1041

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old woman is undergoing conservative treatment for a soft tissue mallet finger of her index finger. She was instructed to wear an extension splint continuously for 8 weeks. At her 4-week follow-up, she admits she removed the splint for 5 minutes to wash her hand, during which her fingertip dropped into flexion. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

. Continue the original splinting protocol for the remaining 4 weeks
. Add an additional 2 weeks to the original splinting protocol
. Restart the continuous splinting protocol from day zero for a full 6-8 weeks
. Transition to night-time only splinting immediately
. Schedule the patient for surgical repair of the terminal tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restart the continuous splinting protocol from day zero for a full 6-8 weeks


Explanation

If the DIP joint falls into flexion at any point during the conservative treatment of a soft tissue mallet finger, the healing tissue is disrupted. The patient must restart the full-time extension splinting protocol from day zero.

Question 1042

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 62-year-old farmer presents with chronic instability and pain in his right thumb MCP joint, sustained from an injury 10 years ago. He has a positive pinch grip test with significant weakness. Radiographs demonstrate severe joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, and osteophyte formation at the MCP joint. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Primary repair of the UCL with a suture anchor
. Reconstruction of the UCL using a palmaris longus autograft
. Adductor advancement (Eaton-Littler technique)
. Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint arthrodesis
. Trapeziometacarpal joint arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint arthrodesis


Explanation

In cases of chronic UCL insufficiency (Gamekeeper's thumb) accompanied by significant osteoarthritis of the MCP joint, soft tissue reconstruction will fail to address the arthritic pain. MCP joint arthrodesis provides a stable, pain-free pinch.

Question 1043

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 35-year-old musician presents with a soft-tissue mallet finger of the little finger. You decide to treat him conservatively with a custom thermoplastic splint. To optimize healing and prevent complications, what is the ideal position for splinting the affected digit?

. DIP joint in 30 degrees of flexion, PIP joint in full extension
. DIP joint in slight hyperextension, PIP joint immobilized in full extension
. DIP joint in neutral to slight hyperextension, PIP joint left free to mobilize
. DIP joint in neutral, PIP joint in 30 degrees of flexion
. Both DIP and PIP joints in slight flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. DIP joint in neutral to slight hyperextension, PIP joint left free to mobilize


Explanation

The ideal splint for a mallet finger immobilizes the DIP joint in neutral to slight hyperextension to approximate the torn tendon ends. The PIP joint must be left free to range to prevent stiffness and secondary deformities.

Question 1044

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 29-year-old professional athlete is diagnosed with an acute thumb UCL tear. An MRI is obtained to evaluate for a Stener lesion. What classic MRI appearance is highly specific for the presence of a Stener lesion?

. The 'double-line' sign
. The 'empty delta' sign
. The 'yo-yo on a string' sign
. The 'bow-tie' sign
. The 'salt and pepper' sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The 'yo-yo on a string' sign


Explanation

On MRI or ultrasound, a Stener lesion classically appears as a rounded mass of retracted ligament tissue proximal to the adductor aponeurosis, often referred to as the 'yo-yo on a string' sign.

Question 1045

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

When performing an open repair of an acute ulnar collateral ligament tear of the thumb with a suture anchor, exact anatomic placement of the anchor is critical. Where is the normal anatomic insertion site of the proper UCL on the proximal phalanx?

. Dorsal-ulnar base of the proximal phalanx
. Volar-radial base of the proximal phalanx
. Volar-ulnar base of the proximal phalanx
. Mid-shaft of the ulnar proximal phalanx
. Volar lip of the proximal phalanx articular surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar-ulnar base of the proximal phalanx


Explanation

The proper UCL originates from the metacarpal head and inserts onto the volar-ulnar aspect of the base of the proximal phalanx. Non-anatomic dorsal placement of a suture anchor can restrict MCP joint flexion.

Question 1046

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 30-year-old construction worker presents with a bony mallet finger of his middle finger involving 40% of the articular surface. Lateral radiographs show the fracture is slightly displaced, but the distal phalanx remains perfectly congruous with the head of the middle phalanx without any volar subluxation. What is the most appropriate management?

. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation with a hook plate
. Continuous DIP joint extension splinting for 6 to 8 weeks
. Extension block pinning using the Ishiguro technique
. Primary arthrodesis of the DIP joint
. Excision of the bone fragment and advancement of the terminal tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continuous DIP joint extension splinting for 6 to 8 weeks


Explanation

Bony mallet injuries with up to 50% articular involvement can be managed non-operatively with continuous extension splinting, provided there is no volar subluxation of the distal phalanx and the joint remains congruous.

Question 1047

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A surgeon is utilizing the Ishiguro technique (extension block pinning) for a displaced bony mallet finger with volar subluxation. Which of the following describes the correct sequence and placement of the pins?

. A transarticular pin is placed first, followed by a dorsal pin into the distal phalanx.
. A dorsal pin is placed into the proximal phalanx, followed by a transarticular pin.
. A transarticular pin is placed holding the DIP in flexion, followed by a dorsal blocking pin.
. A dorsal pin is placed into the middle phalanx head to block the fragment, followed by a transarticular pin to hold DIP extension.
. A dorsal pin is placed transarticularly, followed by a volar pin blocking the distal phalanx.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A dorsal pin is placed into the middle phalanx head to block the fragment, followed by a transarticular pin to hold DIP extension.


Explanation

In the Ishiguro technique, a dorsal blocking pin is first driven into the head of the middle phalanx just proximal to the reduced fracture fragment. The distal phalanx is then extended to reduce the joint, and a second pin is driven longitudinally across the DIP joint to maintain reduction.

Question 1048

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 50-year-old woman presents with a chronic soft tissue mallet deformity of her ring finger of 6 months duration. She has a 40-degree extensor lag at the DIP joint and a 20-degree hyperextension deformity at the PIP joint. Which of the following describes the fundamental pathophysiology of the secondary PIP joint deformity seen in this patient?

. Proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism causing dorsal subluxation of the lateral bands
. Attentuation of the central slip insertion on the middle phalanx
. Volar subluxation of the lateral bands due to transverse retinacular ligament rupture
. Contracture of the oblique retinacular ligaments leading to DIP hyperflexion
. Primary rupture of the volar plate at the PIP joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism causing dorsal subluxation of the lateral bands


Explanation

This describes a swan neck deformity secondary to a chronic mallet finger. The loss of terminal tendon tension allows the extensor mechanism to retract proximally, transmitting unopposed extension force to the PIP joint and causing dorsal subluxation of the lateral bands.

Question 1049

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

What is the most frequently encountered complication of conservative management (continuous extension splinting) for soft tissue mallet finger injuries?

. Terminal tendon rupture
. Infection of the nail bed
. Permanent swan neck deformity
. Complex regional pain syndrome
. Dorsal skin maceration and necrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal skin maceration and necrosis


Explanation

Dorsal skin maceration, ulceration, and necrosis are the most common complications of mallet splints. Careful monitoring, keeping the splint dry, and ensuring the splint does not exert excessive pressure over the dorsal DIP joint are essential.

Question 1050

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient is undergoing surgical repair of an acute UCL tear of the thumb. During the procedure, the surgeon inadvertently places the suture anchor at the insertion site too dorsally on the base of the proximal phalanx. What specific postoperative biomechanical deficit is most likely to occur as a result of this technical error?

. Loss of full MCP joint flexion
. Loss of full MCP joint extension
. Persistent valgus instability in full extension
. Iatrogenic adductor pollicis weakness
. Volar subluxation of the proximal phalanx

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of full MCP joint flexion


Explanation

If the UCL is repaired too dorsally on the proximal phalanx, the ligament will be improperly tensioned. It will become excessively tight as the MCP joint flexes, leading to a profound loss of MCP joint flexion.

Question 1051

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 55-year-old patient presents with a 5-week-old soft tissue mallet injury to the small finger. He has not received any prior treatment and has a 40-degree extensor lag. According to current literature, what is the most appropriate initial management for this delayed presentation?

. Immediate surgical repair of the terminal tendon
. Surgical tenodermodesis
. Full-time extension splinting of the DIP joint for 8 weeks
. DIP joint arthrodesis
. Observation and physical therapy only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full-time extension splinting of the DIP joint for 8 weeks


Explanation

Even with delayed presentation up to 3 months, full-time extension splinting for 6-8 weeks remains the first-line treatment for soft tissue mallet fingers. Studies show comparable, though slightly less predictable, outcomes compared to acute splinting.

Question 1052

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

In a patient presenting with an acute thumb injury, differentiating between a Skier's thumb (UCL injury) and a radial collateral ligament (RCL) injury is important. Which of the following clinical presentations or mechanisms is highly characteristic of an RCL injury rather than a UCL injury?

. Forced hyperabduction of the thumb
. Volar and ulnar subluxation of the proximal phalanx on radiographs
. Presence of a Stener lesion preventing healing
. Laxity with valgus stress testing
. Avulsion fracture from the ulnar base of the proximal phalanx

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar and ulnar subluxation of the proximal phalanx on radiographs


Explanation

RCL injuries typically occur from forced adduction and torsion. Because the RCL is a primary restraint to dorsal and ulnar displacement, complete RCL ruptures often present with volar and ulnar subluxation of the proximal phalanx relative to the metacarpal.

Question 1053

Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection

A 25-year-old skier falls while holding his ski pole and presents with ulnar-sided thumb pain. On examination, there is lack of a firm endpoint when a valgus stress is applied to the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint in 30 degrees of flexion. Which of the following anatomical structures must be interposed to create a Stener lesion?

. Extensor pollicis longus tendon
. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis
. Abductor pollicis brevis tendon
. Volar plate
. Flexor pollicis longus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis


Explanation

A Stener lesion occurs when the distal end of the completely torn ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) displaces superficial to the adductor aponeurosis. This interposition prevents healing and is an absolute indication for operative repair.

Question 1054

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 45-year-old male sustains a soft tissue mallet finger injury to his right index finger. He is treated with a strict continuous DIP joint extension splint. During his 4-week follow-up, he admits the splint slipped off for 10 minutes while showering, causing the finger to flex. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Continue splinting for 2 more weeks
. Restart the 6-week continuous splinting protocol from day zero
. Discontinue the splint and start active range of motion
. Schedule the patient for surgical repair of the terminal tendon
. Transition to nighttime splinting only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restart the 6-week continuous splinting protocol from day zero


Explanation

Treatment of a soft tissue mallet finger requires continuous, uninterrupted extension splinting for 6 to 8 weeks. Any flexion of the DIP joint during this period stretches the healing tendon and requires restarting the entire 6-week continuous splinting protocol.

Question 1055

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

Which of the following is considered an absolute indication for operative intervention in a bony mallet finger injury?

. A fracture involving 15% of the articular surface
. A fracture involving 25% of the articular surface without subluxation
. Volar subluxation of the distal phalanx
. An extensor lag of 20 degrees
. Presentation 4 weeks after the initial injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Volar subluxation of the distal phalanx


Explanation

Volar subluxation of the distal phalanx represents joint instability and is an absolute indication for surgical fixation (e.g., extension block pinning). The exact percentage of articular surface involvement alone remains a relative indication.

Question 1056

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A patient with an untreated chronic mallet finger presents with a new secondary deformity consisting of PIP joint hyperextension and DIP joint flexion. What is the primary biomechanical cause of this secondary PIP hyperextension?

. Rupture of the volar plate at the PIP joint
. Proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism concentrating force on the central slip
. Attenuation of the transverse retinacular ligaments
. Contracture of the flexor digitorum superficialis
. Tear of the sagittal bands at the MCP joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism concentrating force on the central slip


Explanation

A swan neck deformity in the setting of a chronic mallet finger is caused by proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism following terminal tendon rupture. This increases extensor tension at the central slip insertion, leading to PIP hyperextension.

Question 1057

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

During surgical repair of an acute Skier's thumb, the surgeon utilizes a dorsal-ulnar approach to the thumb MCP joint. Which of the following neurologic structures is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury during this approach?

. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
. Superficial branch of the radial nerve
. Recurrent motor branch of the median nerve
. Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
. Dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial branch of the radial nerve


Explanation

The sensory branches of the superficial radial nerve course directly over the dorsoulnar aspect of the thumb MCP joint. They must be carefully identified and protected to avoid painful neuromas during UCL repair.

Question 1058

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 30-year-old laborer presents with an 8-week-old soft tissue mallet finger of the ring finger. He has had no previous treatment. What is the recommended initial management?

. Primary surgical repair with suture anchors
. Terminal tendon reconstruction using a palmaris longus graft
. Continuous DIP joint extension splinting for 8 weeks
. Arthrodesis of the DIP joint
. Fowler central slip tenotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continuous DIP joint extension splinting for 8 weeks


Explanation

Even in chronic soft tissue mallet fingers presenting up to 12 weeks post-injury, continuous extension splinting for 8 weeks (followed by a weaning period) has been shown to have success rates comparable to acute splinting. Surgery is reserved for splinting failures.

Question 1059

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient presents with a thumb UCL injury. MRI confirms a Stener lesion. During surgical exploration and repair, where will the distal stump of the torn UCL be found?

. Deep to the adductor aponeurosis
. Superficial to the adductor aponeurosis
. Intra-articular within the MCP joint
. Retracted proximally to the wrist crease
. Attached to the volar plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial to the adductor aponeurosis


Explanation

In a Stener lesion, the distal end of the UCL avulses from the proximal phalanx and gets trapped superficial to the adductor aponeurosis. This anatomic block prevents healing.

Question 1060

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old patient presents with pain and a supination deformity of the thumb following a fall onto an outstretched hand. Stress testing of the thumb MCP joint demonstrates laxity with radial stress. Which ligament is injured?

. Ulnar collateral ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Volar plate
. Deep transverse metacarpal ligament
. Oblique pulley

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial collateral ligament


Explanation

Radial collateral ligament (RCL) tears of the thumb MCP joint typically present with laxity to radial stress and a characteristic volar subluxation and supination deformity of the proximal phalanx due to unopposed adductor pollicis pull.