This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1041
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old woman is undergoing conservative treatment for a soft tissue mallet finger of her index finger. She was instructed to wear an extension splint continuously for 8 weeks. At her 4-week follow-up, she admits she removed the splint for 5 minutes to wash her hand, during which her fingertip dropped into flexion. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Restart the continuous splinting protocol from day zero for a full 6-8 weeks
Explanation
If the DIP joint falls into flexion at any point during the conservative treatment of a soft tissue mallet finger, the healing tissue is disrupted. The patient must restart the full-time extension splinting protocol from day zero.
Question 1042
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 62-year-old farmer presents with chronic instability and pain in his right thumb MCP joint, sustained from an injury 10 years ago. He has a positive pinch grip test with significant weakness. Radiographs demonstrate severe joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, and osteophyte formation at the MCP joint. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint arthrodesis
Explanation
In cases of chronic UCL insufficiency (Gamekeeper's thumb) accompanied by significant osteoarthritis of the MCP joint, soft tissue reconstruction will fail to address the arthritic pain. MCP joint arthrodesis provides a stable, pain-free pinch.
Question 1043
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 35-year-old musician presents with a soft-tissue mallet finger of the little finger. You decide to treat him conservatively with a custom thermoplastic splint. To optimize healing and prevent complications, what is the ideal position for splinting the affected digit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. DIP joint in neutral to slight hyperextension, PIP joint left free to mobilize
Explanation
The ideal splint for a mallet finger immobilizes the DIP joint in neutral to slight hyperextension to approximate the torn tendon ends. The PIP joint must be left free to range to prevent stiffness and secondary deformities.
Question 1044
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 29-year-old professional athlete is diagnosed with an acute thumb UCL tear. An MRI is obtained to evaluate for a Stener lesion. What classic MRI appearance is highly specific for the presence of a Stener lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The 'yo-yo on a string' sign
Explanation
On MRI or ultrasound, a Stener lesion classically appears as a rounded mass of retracted ligament tissue proximal to the adductor aponeurosis, often referred to as the 'yo-yo on a string' sign.
Question 1045
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
When performing an open repair of an acute ulnar collateral ligament tear of the thumb with a suture anchor, exact anatomic placement of the anchor is critical. Where is the normal anatomic insertion site of the proper UCL on the proximal phalanx?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar-ulnar base of the proximal phalanx
Explanation
The proper UCL originates from the metacarpal head and inserts onto the volar-ulnar aspect of the base of the proximal phalanx. Non-anatomic dorsal placement of a suture anchor can restrict MCP joint flexion.
Question 1046
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old construction worker presents with a bony mallet finger of his middle finger involving 40% of the articular surface. Lateral radiographs show the fracture is slightly displaced, but the distal phalanx remains perfectly congruous with the head of the middle phalanx without any volar subluxation. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continuous DIP joint extension splinting for 6 to 8 weeks
Explanation
Bony mallet injuries with up to 50% articular involvement can be managed non-operatively with continuous extension splinting, provided there is no volar subluxation of the distal phalanx and the joint remains congruous.
Question 1047
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A surgeon is utilizing the Ishiguro technique (extension block pinning) for a displaced bony mallet finger with volar subluxation. Which of the following describes the correct sequence and placement of the pins?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A dorsal pin is placed into the middle phalanx head to block the fragment, followed by a transarticular pin to hold DIP extension.
Explanation
In the Ishiguro technique, a dorsal blocking pin is first driven into the head of the middle phalanx just proximal to the reduced fracture fragment. The distal phalanx is then extended to reduce the joint, and a second pin is driven longitudinally across the DIP joint to maintain reduction.
Question 1048
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 50-year-old woman presents with a chronic soft tissue mallet deformity of her ring finger of 6 months duration. She has a 40-degree extensor lag at the DIP joint and a 20-degree hyperextension deformity at the PIP joint. Which of the following describes the fundamental pathophysiology of the secondary PIP joint deformity seen in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism causing dorsal subluxation of the lateral bands
Explanation
This describes a swan neck deformity secondary to a chronic mallet finger. The loss of terminal tendon tension allows the extensor mechanism to retract proximally, transmitting unopposed extension force to the PIP joint and causing dorsal subluxation of the lateral bands.
Question 1049
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
What is the most frequently encountered complication of conservative management (continuous extension splinting) for soft tissue mallet finger injuries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal skin maceration and necrosis
Explanation
Dorsal skin maceration, ulceration, and necrosis are the most common complications of mallet splints. Careful monitoring, keeping the splint dry, and ensuring the splint does not exert excessive pressure over the dorsal DIP joint are essential.
Question 1050
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient is undergoing surgical repair of an acute UCL tear of the thumb. During the procedure, the surgeon inadvertently places the suture anchor at the insertion site too dorsally on the base of the proximal phalanx. What specific postoperative biomechanical deficit is most likely to occur as a result of this technical error?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of full MCP joint flexion
Explanation
If the UCL is repaired too dorsally on the proximal phalanx, the ligament will be improperly tensioned. It will become excessively tight as the MCP joint flexes, leading to a profound loss of MCP joint flexion.
Question 1051
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 55-year-old patient presents with a 5-week-old soft tissue mallet injury to the small finger. He has not received any prior treatment and has a 40-degree extensor lag. According to current literature, what is the most appropriate initial management for this delayed presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Full-time extension splinting of the DIP joint for 8 weeks
Explanation
Even with delayed presentation up to 3 months, full-time extension splinting for 6-8 weeks remains the first-line treatment for soft tissue mallet fingers. Studies show comparable, though slightly less predictable, outcomes compared to acute splinting.
Question 1052
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In a patient presenting with an acute thumb injury, differentiating between a Skier's thumb (UCL injury) and a radial collateral ligament (RCL) injury is important. Which of the following clinical presentations or mechanisms is highly characteristic of an RCL injury rather than a UCL injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar and ulnar subluxation of the proximal phalanx on radiographs
Explanation
RCL injuries typically occur from forced adduction and torsion. Because the RCL is a primary restraint to dorsal and ulnar displacement, complete RCL ruptures often present with volar and ulnar subluxation of the proximal phalanx relative to the metacarpal.
Question 1053
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 25-year-old skier falls while holding his ski pole and presents with ulnar-sided thumb pain. On examination, there is lack of a firm endpoint when a valgus stress is applied to the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint in 30 degrees of flexion. Which of the following anatomical structures must be interposed to create a Stener lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adductor pollicis aponeurosis
Explanation
A Stener lesion occurs when the distal end of the completely torn ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) displaces superficial to the adductor aponeurosis. This interposition prevents healing and is an absolute indication for operative repair.
Question 1054
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old male sustains a soft tissue mallet finger injury to his right index finger. He is treated with a strict continuous DIP joint extension splint. During his 4-week follow-up, he admits the splint slipped off for 10 minutes while showering, causing the finger to flex. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Restart the 6-week continuous splinting protocol from day zero
Explanation
Treatment of a soft tissue mallet finger requires continuous, uninterrupted extension splinting for 6 to 8 weeks. Any flexion of the DIP joint during this period stretches the healing tendon and requires restarting the entire 6-week continuous splinting protocol.
Question 1055
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following is considered an absolute indication for operative intervention in a bony mallet finger injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar subluxation of the distal phalanx
Explanation
Volar subluxation of the distal phalanx represents joint instability and is an absolute indication for surgical fixation (e.g., extension block pinning). The exact percentage of articular surface involvement alone remains a relative indication.
Question 1056
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A patient with an untreated chronic mallet finger presents with a new secondary deformity consisting of PIP joint hyperextension and DIP joint flexion. What is the primary biomechanical cause of this secondary PIP hyperextension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism concentrating force on the central slip
Explanation
A swan neck deformity in the setting of a chronic mallet finger is caused by proximal retraction of the extensor mechanism following terminal tendon rupture. This increases extensor tension at the central slip insertion, leading to PIP hyperextension.
Question 1057
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During surgical repair of an acute Skier's thumb, the surgeon utilizes a dorsal-ulnar approach to the thumb MCP joint. Which of the following neurologic structures is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury during this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial branch of the radial nerve
Explanation
The sensory branches of the superficial radial nerve course directly over the dorsoulnar aspect of the thumb MCP joint. They must be carefully identified and protected to avoid painful neuromas during UCL repair.
Question 1058
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 30-year-old laborer presents with an 8-week-old soft tissue mallet finger of the ring finger. He has had no previous treatment. What is the recommended initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continuous DIP joint extension splinting for 8 weeks
Explanation
Even in chronic soft tissue mallet fingers presenting up to 12 weeks post-injury, continuous extension splinting for 8 weeks (followed by a weaning period) has been shown to have success rates comparable to acute splinting. Surgery is reserved for splinting failures.
Question 1059
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with a thumb UCL injury. MRI confirms a Stener lesion. During surgical exploration and repair, where will the distal stump of the torn UCL be found?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial to the adductor aponeurosis
Explanation
In a Stener lesion, the distal end of the UCL avulses from the proximal phalanx and gets trapped superficial to the adductor aponeurosis. This anatomic block prevents healing.
Question 1060
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old patient presents with pain and a supination deformity of the thumb following a fall onto an outstretched hand. Stress testing of the thumb MCP joint demonstrates laxity with radial stress. Which ligament is injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial collateral ligament
Explanation
Radial collateral ligament (RCL) tears of the thumb MCP joint typically present with laxity to radial stress and a characteristic volar subluxation and supination deformity of the proximal phalanx due to unopposed adductor pollicis pull.
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